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Question 1 of 150
1. Question
A 24-year-old male presents following trauma with a segmental dentoalveolar fracture involving two incisors. What is the recommended immobilization period?
Correct
ANSWER
4-6 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The standard splinting time for a dentoalveolar fracture ranges from 4 to 6 weeks to allow adequate bony and periodontal healing.
ā In cases with severe bone loss or high mobility, it may extend up to 8 weeks, while minor isolated segments are sometimes stabilized for 4 weeks.
ā Simple cracks need less time than loose, multi-tooth displaced segments.
ā Pediatric patients may heal faster, but treatment is adapted to mixed dentition.
ā Associated InjuriesConcomitant root fractures or soft-tissue damage can alter the total immobilization window.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology IADT) Guidelines or Board Exam ReviewIncorrect
ANSWER
4-6 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The standard splinting time for a dentoalveolar fracture ranges from 4 to 6 weeks to allow adequate bony and periodontal healing.
ā In cases with severe bone loss or high mobility, it may extend up to 8 weeks, while minor isolated segments are sometimes stabilized for 4 weeks.
ā Simple cracks need less time than loose, multi-tooth displaced segments.
ā Pediatric patients may heal faster, but treatment is adapted to mixed dentition.
ā Associated InjuriesConcomitant root fractures or soft-tissue damage can alter the total immobilization window.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology IADT) Guidelines or Board Exam Review -
Question 2 of 150
2. Question
A 73-year-old man with a 40-year smoking history presents with a soft, mobile, painless mass in the parotid region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Warthin tumorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pleomorphic adenoma – Most common benign salivary gland tumor overall, but typically presents in younger females and lacks strong association with smoking.
ā Mucoepidermoid carcinoma – Most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm, typically painful, fixed, or locally invasive.
ā Adenoid cystic carcinoma – Malignant tumor known for perineural invasion, pain, and facial nerve involvement.SYNOPSIS
ā Warthin tumor is a benign salivary gland tumor limited almost exclusively to the parotid gland.
ā Strong demographic predisposition toward older male patients with a significant smoking history.
ā Typically presents as a slow-growing, soft, mobile, and painless parotid mass.REFERENCE
Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology Board GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Warthin tumorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pleomorphic adenoma – Most common benign salivary gland tumor overall, but typically presents in younger females and lacks strong association with smoking.
ā Mucoepidermoid carcinoma – Most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm, typically painful, fixed, or locally invasive.
ā Adenoid cystic carcinoma – Malignant tumor known for perineural invasion, pain, and facial nerve involvement.SYNOPSIS
ā Warthin tumor is a benign salivary gland tumor limited almost exclusively to the parotid gland.
ā Strong demographic predisposition toward older male patients with a significant smoking history.
ā Typically presents as a slow-growing, soft, mobile, and painless parotid mass.REFERENCE
Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology Board Guidelines -
Question 3 of 150
3. Question
An 8-year-old child is diagnosed with skeletal Class III malocclusion due to maxillary deficiency. Which is the most appropriate orthopedic treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Face maskOTHER OPTIONS
ā Twin block appliance – Used primarily for functional correction of skeletal Class II malocclusion.
ā Herbst appliance – Fixed functional appliance used for mandibular advancement in Class II cases.
ā Chin cup – Directs force to retrain orrestrict mandibular growth rather than protracting a deficient maxilla.SYNOPSIS
ā Maxillary protraction face mask delivers forward force to stimulate maxillary anterior growth.
ā Optimal results achieved when initiated early during active growth age 7-9).
ā Directly addresses skeletal Class III etiology caused by maxillary hypoplasia.REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics or Board GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Face maskOTHER OPTIONS
ā Twin block appliance – Used primarily for functional correction of skeletal Class II malocclusion.
ā Herbst appliance – Fixed functional appliance used for mandibular advancement in Class II cases.
ā Chin cup – Directs force to retrain orrestrict mandibular growth rather than protracting a deficient maxilla.SYNOPSIS
ā Maxillary protraction face mask delivers forward force to stimulate maxillary anterior growth.
ā Optimal results achieved when initiated early during active growth age 7-9).
ā Directly addresses skeletal Class III etiology caused by maxillary hypoplasia.REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics or Board Guidelines -
Question 4 of 150
4. Question
What is the correct sequence for donning personal protective equipment PPE) before an aerosol-generating dental procedure?
Correct
ANSWER
Gown – Mask – Eye protection – GlovesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The standard sequence for donning putting on) personal protective equipment PPE) as outlined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is hand hygiene first, followed by the isolation gown, mask or respirator, eye protection goggles or face shield), and gloves last.REFERENCE
CDC Infection Control Guidelines in Dental SettingsIncorrect
ANSWER
Gown – Mask – Eye protection – GlovesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The standard sequence for donning putting on) personal protective equipment PPE) as outlined by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention is hand hygiene first, followed by the isolation gown, mask or respirator, eye protection goggles or face shield), and gloves last.REFERENCE
CDC Infection Control Guidelines in Dental Settings -
Question 5 of 150
5. Question
What is the recommended duration for rubbing hands with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer?
Correct
ANSWER
20-30 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Alcohol-based hand rubs require 20-30 seconds of active rubbing across all hand surfaces until completely dry.
ā Hand washing with soap and water requires 40-60 seconds.
ā Primary method for routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled.REFERENCE
WHO Guidelines on Hand Hygiene in Health CareIncorrect
ANSWER
20-30 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Alcohol-based hand rubs require 20-30 seconds of active rubbing across all hand surfaces until completely dry.
ā Hand washing with soap and water requires 40-60 seconds.
ā Primary method for routine hand hygiene when hands are not visibly soiled.REFERENCE
WHO Guidelines on Hand Hygiene in Health Care -
Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Which nerve primarily supplies general sensory innervation to the mucosa of the floor of the mouth and anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Correct
ANSWER
Lingual nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inferior alveolar nerve – Supplies lower teeth, chin, and lower lip via mental nerve.
ā Buccal nerve – Supplies sensory innervation to buccal mucosa and cheek gingiva.
ā Hypoglossal nerve – Provides motor supply to intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles except palatoglossus).SYNOPSIS
ā Lingual nerve is a major branch of the posterior division of the mandibular nerve V3).
ā The lingual nerve primarily supplies general sensory innervation touch, pain, and temperature) to the mucosa of the floor of the mouth and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
ā Carries taste fibers from anterior 2 or 3 of tongue via Chorda Tympani (CN VII).REFERENCE
Netter’s Head and Neck Anatomy for DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Lingual nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inferior alveolar nerve – Supplies lower teeth, chin, and lower lip via mental nerve.
ā Buccal nerve – Supplies sensory innervation to buccal mucosa and cheek gingiva.
ā Hypoglossal nerve – Provides motor supply to intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles except palatoglossus).SYNOPSIS
ā Lingual nerve is a major branch of the posterior division of the mandibular nerve V3).
ā The lingual nerve primarily supplies general sensory innervation touch, pain, and temperature) to the mucosa of the floor of the mouth and the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
ā Carries taste fibers from anterior 2 or 3 of tongue via Chorda Tympani (CN VII).REFERENCE
Netter’s Head and Neck Anatomy for Dentistry -
Question 7 of 150
7. Question
Which muscle is most closely related to a submandibular orcervical region swelling located at the angle of the mandible?
Correct
ANSWER
Intermediate tendon of the digastric muscleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Platysma muscle – Superficial muscle of facial expression spanning the neck anteriorly.
ā Buccinator muscle – Forms the muscular structure of the cheek wall.
ā Mylohyoid muscle – Forms the floor of the mouth separating sublingual and submandibular spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Submandibular triangle bounded by inferior border of mandible and anterior orposterior bellies of digastric.
ā Digastric intermediate tendon is attached to hyoid bone via a fibrous loop.
ā Key anatomical landmark during neck dissections and submandibular gland surgery.
ā The intermediate tendon of the digastric muscle is closely related to the submandibular and cervical regions near the angle of the mandible, serving as the functional junction dividing the anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle and anchoring to the hyoid bone via a fibrous loop.REFERENCE
Surgical Anatomy of the Head and NeckIncorrect
ANSWER
Intermediate tendon of the digastric muscleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Platysma muscle – Superficial muscle of facial expression spanning the neck anteriorly.
ā Buccinator muscle – Forms the muscular structure of the cheek wall.
ā Mylohyoid muscle – Forms the floor of the mouth separating sublingual and submandibular spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Submandibular triangle bounded by inferior border of mandible and anterior orposterior bellies of digastric.
ā Digastric intermediate tendon is attached to hyoid bone via a fibrous loop.
ā Key anatomical landmark during neck dissections and submandibular gland surgery.
ā The intermediate tendon of the digastric muscle is closely related to the submandibular and cervical regions near the angle of the mandible, serving as the functional junction dividing the anterior and posterior bellies of the digastric muscle and anchoring to the hyoid bone via a fibrous loop.REFERENCE
Surgical Anatomy of the Head and Neck -
Question 8 of 150
8. Question
A painless pedunculated nodule on anterior attached gingiva shows dense collagenous fibrous tissue covered by stratified squamous epithelium. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Irritation fibromaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pyogenic granuloma – Highly vascular, bleeds easily, composed of soft red granulation tissue.
ā Peripheral ossifying fibroma – Contains calcified bone orosteoid osteoma within fibrous tissue.
ā Gingival papilloma – Exhibits finger-like projections caused by HPV infection.SYNOPSIS
ā Most common benign soft tissue exophytic lesion of the oral cavity.
ā Results from chronic local trauma or low-grade irritation.
ā Characterized histologically by dense collagenous fibrous connective tissue covered by stratified squamous epithelium.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial PatholoIncorrect
ANSWER
Irritation fibromaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pyogenic granuloma – Highly vascular, bleeds easily, composed of soft red granulation tissue.
ā Peripheral ossifying fibroma – Contains calcified bone orosteoid osteoma within fibrous tissue.
ā Gingival papilloma – Exhibits finger-like projections caused by HPV infection.SYNOPSIS
ā Most common benign soft tissue exophytic lesion of the oral cavity.
ā Results from chronic local trauma or low-grade irritation.
ā Characterized histologically by dense collagenous fibrous connective tissue covered by stratified squamous epithelium.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial Patholo -
Question 9 of 150
9. Question
Which imaging modality provides the most accurate 3D assessment before surgical exposure of an impacted maxillary canine?
Correct
ANSWER
Cone-beam computed tomographyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical radiograph – 2D imaging modality limited by superimposition.
ā Occlusal radiograph – Provides 2D cross-sectional view but lacks volumetric 3D resolution.
ā Panoramic radiograph – 2D screening view subject to distortion and magnification artifacts.SYNOPSIS
ā CBCT allows precise 3D localized mapping of impacted teeth in all anatomical planes.
ā Crucial for detecting early root resorption on adjacent lateral incisors.
ā Reduces surgical risk during exposure and orthodontic traction design.REFERENCE
AAOMR Clinical Recommendations for CBCTIncorrect
ANSWER
Cone-beam computed tomographyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical radiograph – 2D imaging modality limited by superimposition.
ā Occlusal radiograph – Provides 2D cross-sectional view but lacks volumetric 3D resolution.
ā Panoramic radiograph – 2D screening view subject to distortion and magnification artifacts.SYNOPSIS
ā CBCT allows precise 3D localized mapping of impacted teeth in all anatomical planes.
ā Crucial for detecting early root resorption on adjacent lateral incisors.
ā Reduces surgical risk during exposure and orthodontic traction design.REFERENCE
AAOMR Clinical Recommendations for CBCT -
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
Which radiographic view is standard for evaluating facial skeletal asymmetry and quantifying transverse discrepancy?
Correct
ANSWER
Posteroanterior cephalogramOTHER OPTIONS
ā Orthopantomogram – 2D panoramic view with significant magnification distortion.
ā Lateral cephalogram – Standard view for sagittal and vertical relationships, not transverse asymmetry.
ā Occlusal radiograph – Limited localized view unsuitable for full facial skeletal assessment.SYNOPSIS
ā PA cephalometry provides bilateral frontal comparison of facial morphology.
ā PA cephalograms display bilateral facial structures side-by-side for asymmetry evaluation.
ā Gold standard for assessing transverse discrepancies and mandibular ormaxillary shifts.
ā Essential in planning orthognathic surgery for facial asymmetry.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary OrthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Posteroanterior cephalogramOTHER OPTIONS
ā Orthopantomogram – 2D panoramic view with significant magnification distortion.
ā Lateral cephalogram – Standard view for sagittal and vertical relationships, not transverse asymmetry.
ā Occlusal radiograph – Limited localized view unsuitable for full facial skeletal assessment.SYNOPSIS
ā PA cephalometry provides bilateral frontal comparison of facial morphology.
ā PA cephalograms display bilateral facial structures side-by-side for asymmetry evaluation.
ā Gold standard for assessing transverse discrepancies and mandibular ormaxillary shifts.
ā Essential in planning orthognathic surgery for facial asymmetry.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics -
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
A V-shaped notch on the incisal edge of anterior teeth during orthodontic treatment with ceramic brackets is caused by
Correct
ANSWER
Ceramic BracketOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excessive orthodontic force – Causes root resorption or pain rather than localized enamel notch wear.
ā Coated arch wire – Soft polymer orresin coating does not cause mechanical tooth structure loss.
ā Premature contacts – Causes traumatic occlusion, mobility, or wear facets, but not isolated V-shaped bracket wear notches.SYNOPSIS
ā Ceramic brackets are significantly harder than natural tooth enamel.
ā Incisal contact with opposing ceramic brackets during occlusion leads to rapid localized enamel abrasion.
ā Resin or metal slot inserts orbite ramps are recommended to prevent direct tooth-bracket contact.REFERENCE
Orthodontic Materials and Clinical ApplicationsIncorrect
ANSWER
Ceramic BracketOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excessive orthodontic force – Causes root resorption or pain rather than localized enamel notch wear.
ā Coated arch wire – Soft polymer orresin coating does not cause mechanical tooth structure loss.
ā Premature contacts – Causes traumatic occlusion, mobility, or wear facets, but not isolated V-shaped bracket wear notches.SYNOPSIS
ā Ceramic brackets are significantly harder than natural tooth enamel.
ā Incisal contact with opposing ceramic brackets during occlusion leads to rapid localized enamel abrasion.
ā Resin or metal slot inserts orbite ramps are recommended to prevent direct tooth-bracket contact.REFERENCE
Orthodontic Materials and Clinical Applications -
Question 12 of 150
12. Question

Identify the anatomical cephalometric landmark located at the posteriormost point of the hard palate.
Correct
ANSWER
Posterior Nasal SpineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sella – Midpoint of the sella turcica located in the sphenoid bone.
ā Nasion – Most anterior point of the frontonasal suture.
ā Porion – Superior point of the external auditory meatus.SYNOPSIS
ā PNS marks the posterior boundary of the palatal plane.
ā ANS Anterior Nasal Spine) and PNS together define the Palatal Plane in cephalometrics.
ā Key anatomical landmark in evaluating vertical facial height and jaw inclination.REFERENCE
Jacobson’s Radiographic CephalometryIncorrect
ANSWER
Posterior Nasal SpineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sella – Midpoint of the sella turcica located in the sphenoid bone.
ā Nasion – Most anterior point of the frontonasal suture.
ā Porion – Superior point of the external auditory meatus.SYNOPSIS
ā PNS marks the posterior boundary of the palatal plane.
ā ANS Anterior Nasal Spine) and PNS together define the Palatal Plane in cephalometrics.
ā Key anatomical landmark in evaluating vertical facial height and jaw inclination.REFERENCE
Jacobson’s Radiographic Cephalometry -
Question 13 of 150
13. Question
Which statement correctly characterizes dental abrasion?
Correct
ANSWER
Is caused mainly by mechanical friction with foreign objectsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Occurs mainly on incisal edges – Wear on incisal orocclusal surfaces from tooth-to-tooth contact is Attrition.
ā Occurs more commonly in mandibular arch – Abrasion affects cervical regions of both arches depending on brushing habits.
ā Occurs only on occlusal surfaces – Occlusal loss without foreign object friction is Attrition or Erosion.SYNOPSIS
ā Abrasion results from mechanical wear from external items e.g., hard toothbrushes, abrasive pastes, bobby pins).
ā Classically presents as V-shaped cervical notches with sharp margins.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Is caused mainly by mechanical friction with foreign objectsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Occurs mainly on incisal edges – Wear on incisal orocclusal surfaces from tooth-to-tooth contact is Attrition.
ā Occurs more commonly in mandibular arch – Abrasion affects cervical regions of both arches depending on brushing habits.
ā Occurs only on occlusal surfaces – Occlusal loss without foreign object friction is Attrition or Erosion.SYNOPSIS
ā Abrasion results from mechanical wear from external items e.g., hard toothbrushes, abrasive pastes, bobby pins).
ā Classically presents as V-shaped cervical notches with sharp margins.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
Which root of a maxillary permanent first molar is most commonly resected during root amputation?
Correct
ANSWER
Distobuccal root of maxillary molarOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mesiobuccal root – Larger root that provides critical stability to the molar structure.
ā Palatal root – Largest, strongest root essential for prosthetic support.
ā Distal root of mandibular molar – Applies to mandibular molars hemisection), not maxillary root amputation.SYNOPSIS
ā Distobuccal root has the smallest anatomical surface area and root length.
ā Frequent site of localized advanced furcation involvement Class III).
ā Resection leaves strong palatal and mesiobuccal roots to support crown restorations.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Distobuccal root of maxillary molarOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mesiobuccal root – Larger root that provides critical stability to the molar structure.
ā Palatal root – Largest, strongest root essential for prosthetic support.
ā Distal root of mandibular molar – Applies to mandibular molars hemisection), not maxillary root amputation.SYNOPSIS
ā Distobuccal root has the smallest anatomical surface area and root length.
ā Frequent site of localized advanced furcation involvement Class III).
ā Resection leaves strong palatal and mesiobuccal roots to support crown restorations.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 15 of 150
15. Question
For deep caries near the pulp 0.5 mm RDT, which material combination provides adequate pulp protection under amalgam?
Correct
ANSWER
Calcium hydroxide liner followed by glass ionomer cement baseOTHER OPTIONS
ā MTA only – MTA takes hours to set and lacks immediate mechanical strength under amalgam condensation.
ā Calcium hydroxide only – Highly soluble and weak under condensation forces without a protective base.
ā Calcium hydroxide and MTA – Redundant capping agents without structural base support under amalgam.SYNOPSIS
ā For deep caries with a remaining dentin thickness RDT) of less than 0.5 mm under an amalgam restoration, the traditional and clinically established material combination is a calcium hydroxide liner followed by a glass ionomer cement base
ā Calcium hydroxide CaOH)2) stimulates dentinal bridging reparative dentinogenesis) due to high pH.
ā Glass ionomer cement GIC) base provides thermal insulation, seals margins, and resists condensation pressure.
ā Standard liner-base combination for deep indirect pulp capping beneath metallic restorations.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Calcium hydroxide liner followed by glass ionomer cement baseOTHER OPTIONS
ā MTA only – MTA takes hours to set and lacks immediate mechanical strength under amalgam condensation.
ā Calcium hydroxide only – Highly soluble and weak under condensation forces without a protective base.
ā Calcium hydroxide and MTA – Redundant capping agents without structural base support under amalgam.SYNOPSIS
ā For deep caries with a remaining dentin thickness RDT) of less than 0.5 mm under an amalgam restoration, the traditional and clinically established material combination is a calcium hydroxide liner followed by a glass ionomer cement base
ā Calcium hydroxide CaOH)2) stimulates dentinal bridging reparative dentinogenesis) due to high pH.
ā Glass ionomer cement GIC) base provides thermal insulation, seals margins, and resists condensation pressure.
ā Standard liner-base combination for deep indirect pulp capping beneath metallic restorations.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar in?
Correct
ANSWER
Angle Class IOTHER OPTIONS
ā Angle Class II – Mesiobuccal cusp occludes anterior mesial) to the buccal groove.
ā Angle Class III – Mesiobuccal cusp occludes posterior distal) to the buccal groove.
ā Class IV – Non-standard classification in Edward Angle’s system.SYNOPSIS
ā Angle Class I molar relationship serves as the baseline reference for normal dental occlusion.
ā The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
ā Maxillary canine occludes between mandibular canine and first premolar.
ā Accompanied by harmonious facial profile unless crowded or malaligned.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary OrthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Angle Class IOTHER OPTIONS
ā Angle Class II – Mesiobuccal cusp occludes anterior mesial) to the buccal groove.
ā Angle Class III – Mesiobuccal cusp occludes posterior distal) to the buccal groove.
ā Class IV – Non-standard classification in Edward Angle’s system.SYNOPSIS
ā Angle Class I molar relationship serves as the baseline reference for normal dental occlusion.
ā The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar.
ā Maxillary canine occludes between mandibular canine and first premolar.
ā Accompanied by harmonious facial profile unless crowded or malaligned.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics -
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
A patient presents with anterior crossbite and a mesial molar step relationship. What is the underlying molar classification?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IIIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I – Normal anteroposterior jaw and molar relationship.
ā Class II – Distal relationship of mandibular teeth relative to maxillary teeth.
ā Class IV – Invalid orthodontic classification category.SYNOPSIS
ā The underlying molar classification is Class III.
ā An anterior crossbite coupled with a mesial molar step where the lower permanent molar or primary second molar is positioned mesial to the upper counterpart) reflects a forward-positioned lower arch characteristic of a Class III mesioclusion relationship.
ā May involve maxillary skeletal deficiency, mandibular prognathism, or a combination.REFERENCE
Contemporary OrthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Class IIIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I – Normal anteroposterior jaw and molar relationship.
ā Class II – Distal relationship of mandibular teeth relative to maxillary teeth.
ā Class IV – Invalid orthodontic classification category.SYNOPSIS
ā The underlying molar classification is Class III.
ā An anterior crossbite coupled with a mesial molar step where the lower permanent molar or primary second molar is positioned mesial to the upper counterpart) reflects a forward-positioned lower arch characteristic of a Class III mesioclusion relationship.
ā May involve maxillary skeletal deficiency, mandibular prognathism, or a combination.REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics -
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
A fractured retentive arm of a removable partial denture clasp can be effectively repaired chairside by:
Correct
ANSWER
Embedding a wrought-wire clasp into the acrylic resin baseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Soldering the broken retentive arm – Soldering cast clasps severely weakens metal structure leading to early re-fracture.
ā Recasting the entire framework – Unnecessarily expensive and complex when localized repair is feasible.
ā Grinding the clasp area – Removes remaining clasp element without restoring required tooth retention.SYNOPSIS
ā Embedding a wrought-wire clasp into the acrylic denture base restores lost retention.
ā Embedded 18-gauge wrought wire provides excellent flexibility and mechanical retention in resin.
ā Fast, economical, and durable in-office RPD repair technique.
ā Avoids subjecting the denture framework to high-temperature thermal distortion.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Embedding a wrought-wire clasp into the acrylic resin baseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Soldering the broken retentive arm – Soldering cast clasps severely weakens metal structure leading to early re-fracture.
ā Recasting the entire framework – Unnecessarily expensive and complex when localized repair is feasible.
ā Grinding the clasp area – Removes remaining clasp element without restoring required tooth retention.SYNOPSIS
ā Embedding a wrought-wire clasp into the acrylic denture base restores lost retention.
ā Embedded 18-gauge wrought wire provides excellent flexibility and mechanical retention in resin.
ā Fast, economical, and durable in-office RPD repair technique.
ā Avoids subjecting the denture framework to high-temperature thermal distortion.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics -
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
Which clasp is best suited to engage a deep 0.5 mm 0.020 in) retentive undercut on an RPD abutment tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Combination clasp (wrought-wire retentive arm)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Cast I-bar clasp – Rigid cast structure designed only for standard 0.25 mm 0.010 in) undercuts.
ā Ring clasp – Cast clasp used on isolated molars with standard undercuts, lacks extreme flexibility.
ā Cast circumferential bar clasp – Rigid cast metal that distorts if forced into deep undercuts.SYNOPSIS
ā Wrought-wire has circular cross-section allowing omnidirectional flexibility.
ā Wrought wire in combination clasps offers high flexibility to engage deeper undercuts without exceeding elastic limit.
ā Can safely engage deeper undercuts 0.50 mm or 0.020 in) without overstressing abutment tooth.
ā Ideal for periodontally compromised teeth or distal extension removable partial dentures.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Combination clasp (wrought-wire retentive arm)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Cast I-bar clasp – Rigid cast structure designed only for standard 0.25 mm 0.010 in) undercuts.
ā Ring clasp – Cast clasp used on isolated molars with standard undercuts, lacks extreme flexibility.
ā Cast circumferential bar clasp – Rigid cast metal that distorts if forced into deep undercuts.SYNOPSIS
ā Wrought-wire has circular cross-section allowing omnidirectional flexibility.
ā Wrought wire in combination clasps offers high flexibility to engage deeper undercuts without exceeding elastic limit.
ā Can safely engage deeper undercuts 0.50 mm or 0.020 in) without overstressing abutment tooth.
ā Ideal for periodontally compromised teeth or distal extension removable partial dentures.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics -
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
What is the recommended margin preparation width of a shoulder finish line for an all-ceramic crown?
Correct
ANSWER
1-1.5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Less than 0.5 mm – Insufficient thickness leading to fragile, thin ceramic margins prone to chipping.
ā 0.5-0.7 mm – Standard width for metal-ceramic chamfer margins, inadequate for monolithic orveneered ceramic.
ā 2 mm – Over-preparation of tooth structure compromising pulp vitality and tooth strength.SYNOPSIS
ā A 1.0 to 1.5 mm shoulder provides structural bulk to prevent ceramic fracture.
ā 90-degree internal rounded shoulder margin provides 1.0ā1.5 mm ceramic bulk for structural durability.
ā Minimizes stress concentration at the restorative margin.
ā Ensures adequate space for esthetic ceramic layering without over-contouring.REFERENCE
Rosentiel’s Contemporary Fixed ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
1-1.5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Less than 0.5 mm – Insufficient thickness leading to fragile, thin ceramic margins prone to chipping.
ā 0.5-0.7 mm – Standard width for metal-ceramic chamfer margins, inadequate for monolithic orveneered ceramic.
ā 2 mm – Over-preparation of tooth structure compromising pulp vitality and tooth strength.SYNOPSIS
ā A 1.0 to 1.5 mm shoulder provides structural bulk to prevent ceramic fracture.
ā 90-degree internal rounded shoulder margin provides 1.0ā1.5 mm ceramic bulk for structural durability.
ā Minimizes stress concentration at the restorative margin.
ā Ensures adequate space for esthetic ceramic layering without over-contouring.REFERENCE
Rosentiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics -
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
What is the most common technical complication associated with veneered zirconia fixed partial dentures?
Correct
ANSWER
Veneering layer chippingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Framework fracture – Zirconia core framework possesses extremely high flexural strength >900-1200 MPa).
ā Marginal leakage – Adhesive resin bonding orluting provides excellent marginal seal.
ā Complete loss of retention – Retentive rates remain high when appropriate surface conditioning is performed.SYNOPSIS
ā Mismatch in Thermal Expansion Coefficient CTE) between zirconia core and veneering porcelain leads to chipping.
ā Most common long-term clinical failure mode reported in systematic reviews.
ā Monolithic zirconia crowns with stain orglaze significantly reduce this risk.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Literature Reviews or Fixed ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Veneering layer chippingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Framework fracture – Zirconia core framework possesses extremely high flexural strength >900-1200 MPa).
ā Marginal leakage – Adhesive resin bonding orluting provides excellent marginal seal.
ā Complete loss of retention – Retentive rates remain high when appropriate surface conditioning is performed.SYNOPSIS
ā Mismatch in Thermal Expansion Coefficient CTE) between zirconia core and veneering porcelain leads to chipping.
ā Most common long-term clinical failure mode reported in systematic reviews.
ā Monolithic zirconia crowns with stain orglaze significantly reduce this risk.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Literature Reviews or Fixed Prosthodontics -
Question 22 of 150
22. Question
Which self-care device is most appropriate for interdental cleaning in open embrasure spaces Type II orIII) post-periodontal therapy?
Correct
ANSWER
Interdental brushOTHER OPTIONS
ā Water irrigation only – Excellent adjunct but secondary to mechanical biofilm removal by brushes.SYNOPSIS
ā Type II moderate loss) and Type III complete loss) interdental papillae require interdental brushes.
ā Brushes expand into concave root surface features to disrupt interproximal plaque biofilm.
ā Selected as gold standard for interdental hygiene in treated periodontal patients.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Interdental brushOTHER OPTIONS
ā Water irrigation only – Excellent adjunct but secondary to mechanical biofilm removal by brushes.SYNOPSIS
ā Type II moderate loss) and Type III complete loss) interdental papillae require interdental brushes.
ā Brushes expand into concave root surface features to disrupt interproximal plaque biofilm.
ā Selected as gold standard for interdental hygiene in treated periodontal patients.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 23 of 150
23. Question

Jaw enlargement, ill-fitting dentures, elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and ‘cotton wool’ skull radiographs indicate
Correct
ANSWER
Paget disease of boneOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fibrous dysplasia – Characterized by ground-glass radiographic appearance with normal ormild enzyme changes.
ā Osteosarcoma – Malignant bone tumor with sunburst periosteal reaction and localized pain.
ā Osteopetrosis – Dense marble-like bone with diffuse radiopacity and obliteration of marrow spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Paget disease causes bone remodeling, jaw expansion, and cotton-wool radiopacities.
ā Classic signs – Maxillary expansion, widening alveolar ridge, spacing of teeth, dentures becoming tight.
ā Biochemical marker – Significantly elevated serum alkaline phosphatase with normal serum calcium and phosphorus.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Paget disease of boneOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fibrous dysplasia – Characterized by ground-glass radiographic appearance with normal ormild enzyme changes.
ā Osteosarcoma – Malignant bone tumor with sunburst periosteal reaction and localized pain.
ā Osteopetrosis – Dense marble-like bone with diffuse radiopacity and obliteration of marrow spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Paget disease causes bone remodeling, jaw expansion, and cotton-wool radiopacities.
ā Classic signs – Maxillary expansion, widening alveolar ridge, spacing of teeth, dentures becoming tight.
ā Biochemical marker – Significantly elevated serum alkaline phosphatase with normal serum calcium and phosphorus.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology -
Question 24 of 150
24. Question
Delayed eruption of a maxillary central incisor due to a compound odontoma is best managed by:
Correct
ANSWER
Surgical excision Enucleation) of the odontomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction of unerupted incisor followed by implant – Unnecessary destruction of a viable, normal permanent tooth.
ā Observation and waiting for differential eruption – Odontoma acts as a physical barrier preventing eruption indefinitely.
ā Segmental osteotomy – Invasive orthognathic procedure indicated for major jaw malformations.SYNOPSIS
ā Compound odontoma consists of multiple tooth-like denticles obstructing the eruption path.
ā Surgical enucleation removes physical obstruction while preserving the underlying incisor.
ā Orthodontic exposure and traction can be performed if spontaneous eruption does not occur.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry or Oral Surgery Board GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Surgical excision Enucleation) of the odontomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction of unerupted incisor followed by implant – Unnecessary destruction of a viable, normal permanent tooth.
ā Observation and waiting for differential eruption – Odontoma acts as a physical barrier preventing eruption indefinitely.
ā Segmental osteotomy – Invasive orthognathic procedure indicated for major jaw malformations.SYNOPSIS
ā Compound odontoma consists of multiple tooth-like denticles obstructing the eruption path.
ā Surgical enucleation removes physical obstruction while preserving the underlying incisor.
ā Orthodontic exposure and traction can be performed if spontaneous eruption does not occur.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry or Oral Surgery Board Guidelines -
Question 25 of 150
25. Question
The permanent mandibular first molar usually contains how many root canals?
Correct
ANSWER
Three canalsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Standard anatomy – 2 roots Mesial and Distal) and 3 canals Mesiobuccal, Mesiolingual, Distal).
ā Mesial root almost universally contains 2 canals terminating in separate or joined foramina.
ā Distal root usually contains 1 large oval canal, though a second distal canal Distobuccal orDistolingual) may exist.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the PulpIncorrect
ANSWER
Three canalsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Standard anatomy – 2 roots Mesial and Distal) and 3 canals Mesiobuccal, Mesiolingual, Distal).
ā Mesial root almost universally contains 2 canals terminating in separate or joined foramina.
ā Distal root usually contains 1 large oval canal, though a second distal canal Distobuccal orDistolingual) may exist.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp -
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
Arranging complete denture anterior teeth excessively labial to the alveolar ridge causes
Correct
ANSWER
Decreased retention and instability due to muscle displacementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Increased lip support – While lips are pushed outward, extreme labial placement creates unnatural facial distortion.
ā Discomfort of supporting tissues – Primary issue is muscular displacement and leverage instability rather than tissue sore spots.
ā Improved phonetics – Distorts labiodental sound production F and V sounds).SYNOPSIS
ā Neutral zone is the area where outward lip orcheek forces balance inward tongue forces.
ā Teeth placed outside this zone experience active dislodging forces during muscle activity.
ā Results in fulcrum tipping, loss of peripheral seal, and lower denture instability.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients Boucher)Incorrect
ANSWER
Decreased retention and instability due to muscle displacementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Increased lip support – While lips are pushed outward, extreme labial placement creates unnatural facial distortion.
ā Discomfort of supporting tissues – Primary issue is muscular displacement and leverage instability rather than tissue sore spots.
ā Improved phonetics – Distorts labiodental sound production F and V sounds).SYNOPSIS
ā Neutral zone is the area where outward lip orcheek forces balance inward tongue forces.
ā Teeth placed outside this zone experience active dislodging forces during muscle activity.
ā Results in fulcrum tipping, loss of peripheral seal, and lower denture instability.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients Boucher) -
Question 27 of 150
27. Question
Pronouncing the ‘F’ sound as a ‘V’ sound in complete dentures indicates that maxillary anterior teeth are placed:
Correct
ANSWER
Too incisallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Too lingually – Causes slurring of sibilant ‘S’ sounds against hard palate.
ā Too cervically – Causes insufficient lip contact, leading to indistinct or air-leaking labiodental sounds.
ā Increased vertical dimension – Affects closest speaking space and causes clattering of teeth during speech.SYNOPSIS
ā F and V sounds are labiodental fricatives formed by upper incisal edges contacting wet-dry line of lower lip.
ā Overly long incisally placed) maxillary central incisors dig heavily into lower lip, turning ‘F’ into ‘V’.
ā Modified by shortening incisal length or moving teeth superiorly.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous PatientsIncorrect
ANSWER
Too incisallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Too lingually – Causes slurring of sibilant ‘S’ sounds against hard palate.
ā Too cervically – Causes insufficient lip contact, leading to indistinct or air-leaking labiodental sounds.
ā Increased vertical dimension – Affects closest speaking space and causes clattering of teeth during speech.SYNOPSIS
ā F and V sounds are labiodental fricatives formed by upper incisal edges contacting wet-dry line of lower lip.
ā Overly long incisally placed) maxillary central incisors dig heavily into lower lip, turning ‘F’ into ‘V’.
ā Modified by shortening incisal length or moving teeth superiorly.REFERENCE
Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients -
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
Following trauma, a mobile segment of alveolar bone contains multiple teeth moving en bloc. Diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentoalveolar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Subluxation – Tooth injury with increased mobility and tenderness without tooth displacement or bone fracture.
ā Intrusive luxation – Tooth driven apically into alveolar socket with alveolar process intact.
ā Extrusive luxation – Partial displacement of individual tooth out of socket.SYNOPSIS
ā Key clinical pathognomonic signs – Multiple adjacent teeth move together as a single unit.
ā Diagnostic imaging – Radiographs show horizontal or oblique fracture line in alveolar bone.
ā Treatment – Rigid or semi-rigid splinting for 4-6 weeks to allow bone union.REFERENCE
IADT Guidelines or Oral and Maxillofacial TraumaIncorrect
ANSWER
Dentoalveolar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Subluxation – Tooth injury with increased mobility and tenderness without tooth displacement or bone fracture.
ā Intrusive luxation – Tooth driven apically into alveolar socket with alveolar process intact.
ā Extrusive luxation – Partial displacement of individual tooth out of socket.SYNOPSIS
ā Key clinical pathognomonic signs – Multiple adjacent teeth move together as a single unit.
ā Diagnostic imaging – Radiographs show horizontal or oblique fracture line in alveolar bone.
ā Treatment – Rigid or semi-rigid splinting for 4-6 weeks to allow bone union.REFERENCE
IADT Guidelines or Oral and Maxillofacial Trauma -
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
Well-demarcated enamel opacities restricted to permanent first molars and incisors in an 8-year-old child indicate:
Correct
ANSWER
Molar incisor hypomineralization.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Amelogenesis imperfecta – Generalised hereditary defect affecting all teeth in primary and permanent dentition.
ā Fluorosis – Diffuse, symmetric opacities across all teeth exposed to high fluoride during development.
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta – Affects dentin matrix, presenting as opalescent translucent amber teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā MIH is a systemic developmental defect of enamel affecting 1 to 4 permanent first molars, frequently accompanied by incisors.
ā Clinical presentation – Enamel opacities ranging from white-yellow to yellow-brown with post-eruptive enamel breakdown.
ā Aetiology – Systemic illness or fever during the first 3 years of life when these tooth germs mineralise.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Board GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Molar incisor hypomineralization.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Amelogenesis imperfecta – Generalised hereditary defect affecting all teeth in primary and permanent dentition.
ā Fluorosis – Diffuse, symmetric opacities across all teeth exposed to high fluoride during development.
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta – Affects dentin matrix, presenting as opalescent translucent amber teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā MIH is a systemic developmental defect of enamel affecting 1 to 4 permanent first molars, frequently accompanied by incisors.
ā Clinical presentation – Enamel opacities ranging from white-yellow to yellow-brown with post-eruptive enamel breakdown.
ā Aetiology – Systemic illness or fever during the first 3 years of life when these tooth germs mineralise.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Board Guidelines -
Question 30 of 150
30. Question

Thin, yellow-brown enamel with high thermal sensitivity affecting all primary and permanent teeth indicates
Correct
ANSWER
Amelogenesis imperfectaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta – Genetic dentin defect resulting in bulbous crowns and obliterated pulp canals.
ā Dental fluorosis – High fluoride intake causes fluorotic mottling, teeth are caries-resistant and non-hypersensitive.
ā Enamel hypoplasia – Environmental localized enamel pits or grooves restricted to specific time of injury.SYNOPSIS
ā Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic defect affecting enamel formation across all teeth.
ā Affects enamel matrix protein formation amelogenin, enamelin.
ā Diffuse involvement of both primary and permanent dentitions across all tooth surfaces.
ā Characterised by hypoplastic thin, hypomaturation, or hypocalcified enamel leading to severe sensitivity and attrition.REFERENCE
Neville Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Amelogenesis imperfectaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta – Genetic dentin defect resulting in bulbous crowns and obliterated pulp canals.
ā Dental fluorosis – High fluoride intake causes fluorotic mottling, teeth are caries-resistant and non-hypersensitive.
ā Enamel hypoplasia – Environmental localized enamel pits or grooves restricted to specific time of injury.SYNOPSIS
ā Amelogenesis imperfecta is a genetic defect affecting enamel formation across all teeth.
ā Affects enamel matrix protein formation amelogenin, enamelin.
ā Diffuse involvement of both primary and permanent dentitions across all tooth surfaces.
ā Characterised by hypoplastic thin, hypomaturation, or hypocalcified enamel leading to severe sensitivity and attrition.REFERENCE
Neville Oral Pathology -
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
Severe maxillary sinus pneumatization leaving 3 mm residual bone height requires which procedure for implant placement?
Correct
ANSWER
Sinus lift procedure (sinus floor elevation)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Ridge augmentation only – Onlay grafting adds height on ridge surface but distorts crown-to-root ratio and interarch space.
ā Extraction of adjacent teeth – Does not add vertical bone height beneath the maxillary sinus floor.
ā Orthodontic correction – Cannot create new alveolar bone height in edentulous posterior maxilla.SYNOPSIS
ā Sinus elevation with bone grafting creates vertical height internally within the sinus.
ā Lateral window sinus lift required when residual bone height is < 4-5 mm beneath sinus membrane. ā Schneiderian membrane is carefully elevated and bone graft material packed beneath it. ā Allows staged or simultaneous implant placement with adequate primary stability. REFERENCE Misch's Contemporary Implant DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Sinus lift procedure (sinus floor elevation)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Ridge augmentation only – Onlay grafting adds height on ridge surface but distorts crown-to-root ratio and interarch space.
ā Extraction of adjacent teeth – Does not add vertical bone height beneath the maxillary sinus floor.
ā Orthodontic correction – Cannot create new alveolar bone height in edentulous posterior maxilla.SYNOPSIS
ā Sinus elevation with bone grafting creates vertical height internally within the sinus.
ā Lateral window sinus lift required when residual bone height is < 4-5 mm beneath sinus membrane. ā Schneiderian membrane is carefully elevated and bone graft material packed beneath it. ā Allows staged or simultaneous implant placement with adequate primary stability. REFERENCE Misch's Contemporary Implant Dentistry -
Question 32 of 150
32. Question
Which skeletal abnormality is most commonly associated with repaired cleft lip and palate?
Correct
ANSWER
Maxillary deficiencyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mandibular deficiency – Mandible typically exhibits normal growth potential in isolated cleft lip orpalate cases.
ā Excessive maxillary growth – Cleft patients experience growth restriction, never overgrowth.
ā Increased vertical facial height only – Cleft patients typically show midface retrusion and reduced vertical development.SYNOPSIS
ā Surgical repair of the palate leaves dense fibrotic scarring along the hard palate.
ā Surgical scar tissue acts as a mechanical restraint, restricting anteroposterior and transverse maxillary growth.
ā Patients frequently develop midface deficiency, Class III malocclusion, and crossbites requiring orthognathic surgery.REFERENCE
Grabb and Smith’s Plastic Surgery or Orthodontic Board ReviewIncorrect
ANSWER
Maxillary deficiencyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mandibular deficiency – Mandible typically exhibits normal growth potential in isolated cleft lip orpalate cases.
ā Excessive maxillary growth – Cleft patients experience growth restriction, never overgrowth.
ā Increased vertical facial height only – Cleft patients typically show midface retrusion and reduced vertical development.SYNOPSIS
ā Surgical repair of the palate leaves dense fibrotic scarring along the hard palate.
ā Surgical scar tissue acts as a mechanical restraint, restricting anteroposterior and transverse maxillary growth.
ā Patients frequently develop midface deficiency, Class III malocclusion, and crossbites requiring orthognathic surgery.REFERENCE
Grabb and Smith’s Plastic Surgery or Orthodontic Board Review -
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
What serves as the anterior determinant of occlusion in natural and restored dentitions?
Correct
ANSWER
Vertical and horizontal overlap of anterior teethOTHER OPTIONS
ā Vertical overlap only – Incomplete factor, overbite alone does not dictate incisal guidance angle without overjet.
ā Horizontal overlap only – Overjet alone does not establish anterior disclusion during mandibular protrusion.
ā Curve of Spee – Anteroposterior occlusal curve of posterior teeth, a posterior determinant factor.SYNOPSIS
ā Anterior determinants (overbite and overjet) control disclusion of posterior teeth during protrusive or lateral movements.
ā Posterior determinants are the temporomandibular joints’ condylar guidance and mandibular fossa anatomy.
ā Proper anterior guidance protects posterior teeth from damaging lateral horizontal forces (Mutually Protected Occlusion).REFERENCE
Okeson’s Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and OcclusionIncorrect
ANSWER
Vertical and horizontal overlap of anterior teethOTHER OPTIONS
ā Vertical overlap only – Incomplete factor, overbite alone does not dictate incisal guidance angle without overjet.
ā Horizontal overlap only – Overjet alone does not establish anterior disclusion during mandibular protrusion.
ā Curve of Spee – Anteroposterior occlusal curve of posterior teeth, a posterior determinant factor.SYNOPSIS
ā Anterior determinants (overbite and overjet) control disclusion of posterior teeth during protrusive or lateral movements.
ā Posterior determinants are the temporomandibular joints’ condylar guidance and mandibular fossa anatomy.
ā Proper anterior guidance protects posterior teeth from damaging lateral horizontal forces (Mutually Protected Occlusion).REFERENCE
Okeson’s Management of Temporomandibular Disorders and Occlusion -
Question 34 of 150
34. Question
Which occlusal scheme is preferred for a single implant replacing a maxillary canine?
Correct
ANSWER
Group function occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mutually protected occlusion – General term describing anterior disclusion of posteriors, but canine guidance on an isolated implant causes overload.
ā Canine-guided occlusion – Concentrates all lateral shear forces onto a single implant, risking screw loosening or osseointegration failure.
ā Balanced occlusion – Indicated exclusively for removable complete dentures to maintain stability.SYNOPSIS
ā Single implants lack a periodontal ligament to provide proprioceptive damping against lateral forces.
ā Canine guidance on a canine implant creates severe lateral tipping forces on the implant fixture.
ā Group function distributes lateral excursive loads across adjacent natural premolars and teeth, shielding the implant.REFERENCE
Misch’s Contemporary Implant DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Group function occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mutually protected occlusion – General term describing anterior disclusion of posteriors, but canine guidance on an isolated implant causes overload.
ā Canine-guided occlusion – Concentrates all lateral shear forces onto a single implant, risking screw loosening or osseointegration failure.
ā Balanced occlusion – Indicated exclusively for removable complete dentures to maintain stability.SYNOPSIS
ā Single implants lack a periodontal ligament to provide proprioceptive damping against lateral forces.
ā Canine guidance on a canine implant creates severe lateral tipping forces on the implant fixture.
ā Group function distributes lateral excursive loads across adjacent natural premolars and teeth, shielding the implant.REFERENCE
Misch’s Contemporary Implant Dentistry -
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
In HIV-positive patients, a CD4 count below which level defines severe immunosuppression (AIDS)?
Correct
ANSWER
200 cells permm3OTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā CD4+ T-lymphocyte count < 200 cells ormm3 or CD4 percentage < 14% criteria for clinical AIDS diagnosis. ā Associated with high risk of opportunistic oral infections - Kaposi sarcoma, PCP, oral candidiasis, HSV. ā Dental treatment requires prophylactic considerations and consultation regarding bleeding or infection risks. REFERENCE CDC Classification System for HIV InfectionIncorrect
ANSWER
200 cells permm3OTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā CD4+ T-lymphocyte count < 200 cells ormm3 or CD4 percentage < 14% criteria for clinical AIDS diagnosis. ā Associated with high risk of opportunistic oral infections - Kaposi sarcoma, PCP, oral candidiasis, HSV. ā Dental treatment requires prophylactic considerations and consultation regarding bleeding or infection risks. REFERENCE CDC Classification System for HIV Infection -
Question 36 of 150
36. Question
Which analgesic medication is preferred for a dental patient with an active peptic ulcer history?
Correct
ANSWER
AcetaminophenOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aspirin – Non-selective COX inhibitor that causes direct gastric mucosal erosion and inhibits platelet aggregation.
ā Ibuprofen – Standard NSAID that inhibits COX-1, decreasing protective gastric mucus and worsening ulcer disease.
ā Naproxen – Potent non-selective NSAID with high incidence of GI ulceration and bleeding.SYNOPSIS
ā Acetaminophen Paracetamol) acts primarily centrally in the CNS and lacks peripheral anti-inflammatory COX-1 inhibition.
ā Safe for patients with peptic ulcer disease, GERD, or history of GI bleeding.
ā Maximum safe daily adult dose is 3000ā4000 mg orday to avoid hepatotoxicity.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
AcetaminophenOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aspirin – Non-selective COX inhibitor that causes direct gastric mucosal erosion and inhibits platelet aggregation.
ā Ibuprofen – Standard NSAID that inhibits COX-1, decreasing protective gastric mucus and worsening ulcer disease.
ā Naproxen – Potent non-selective NSAID with high incidence of GI ulceration and bleeding.SYNOPSIS
ā Acetaminophen Paracetamol) acts primarily centrally in the CNS and lacks peripheral anti-inflammatory COX-1 inhibition.
ā Safe for patients with peptic ulcer disease, GERD, or history of GI bleeding.
ā Maximum safe daily adult dose is 3000ā4000 mg orday to avoid hepatotoxicity.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry -
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
What should be administered to reduce systemic absorption following accidental fluoride toothpaste ingestion?
Correct
ANSWER
Encourage milk consumption immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Give plenty of water only – Dilutes stomach contents slightly but does not chemically neutralize or precipitate toxic fluoride ions.
ā Avoid calcium-containing foods – Incorrect, calcium is the primary antidote for fluoride binding in the GI tract.
ā Give additional fluoride supplements – Exacerbates fluoride toxicity, leading to metabolic acidosis and cardiac collapse.SYNOPSIS
ā Calcium in milk binds fluoride ions to form insoluble calcium fluoride in the stomach.
ā Free fluoride ions bind with soluble calcium (Ca2+) or magnesium ions to form insoluble Calcium Fluoride (CaF2).
ā Milk, calcium hydroxide, or aluminium-containing antacids precipitate fluoride, preventing GI absorption into the bloodstream.
ā First-aid treatment for toxic fluoride ingestion (< 5 mg per kg) before emergency transfer. REFERENCE American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry AAPD) Fluoride GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Encourage milk consumption immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Give plenty of water only – Dilutes stomach contents slightly but does not chemically neutralize or precipitate toxic fluoride ions.
ā Avoid calcium-containing foods – Incorrect, calcium is the primary antidote for fluoride binding in the GI tract.
ā Give additional fluoride supplements – Exacerbates fluoride toxicity, leading to metabolic acidosis and cardiac collapse.SYNOPSIS
ā Calcium in milk binds fluoride ions to form insoluble calcium fluoride in the stomach.
ā Free fluoride ions bind with soluble calcium (Ca2+) or magnesium ions to form insoluble Calcium Fluoride (CaF2).
ā Milk, calcium hydroxide, or aluminium-containing antacids precipitate fluoride, preventing GI absorption into the bloodstream.
ā First-aid treatment for toxic fluoride ingestion (< 5 mg per kg) before emergency transfer. REFERENCE American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry AAPD) Fluoride Guidelines -
Question 38 of 150
38. Question
An avulsed permanent tooth stored in milk reaches the clinic within 15 minutes. What is the correct protocol?
Correct
ANSWER
Immediate reimplantation of the toothOTHER OPTIONS
ā Discard the tooth and place a space maintainer – Unjustified; immediate replantation has a high success rate when extra-oral time is < 60 minutes. ā Perform pulpectomy outside the mouth and then reimplant - Unnecessary handling damages delicate PDL cells and increases ankylosis risk. ā Perform pulpotomy and reimplant - Inappropriate endodontic therapy for avulsed permanent teeth. SYNOPSIS ā Extra-oral dry time < 60 minutes and storage in cold milk preserves viable periodontal ligament cells. Golden time for replantation is 20 minutes. ā Immediate replantation, flexible splinting for 2 weeks, and systemic antibiotics are the gold standard protocol. ā Endodontic root canal treatment is initiated in-office 7-10 days later for mature apex teeth. REFERENCE IADT Guidelines for Management of Traumatic Dental InjuriesIncorrect
ANSWER
Immediate reimplantation of the toothOTHER OPTIONS
ā Discard the tooth and place a space maintainer – Unjustified; immediate replantation has a high success rate when extra-oral time is < 60 minutes. ā Perform pulpectomy outside the mouth and then reimplant - Unnecessary handling damages delicate PDL cells and increases ankylosis risk. ā Perform pulpotomy and reimplant - Inappropriate endodontic therapy for avulsed permanent teeth. SYNOPSIS ā Extra-oral dry time < 60 minutes and storage in cold milk preserves viable periodontal ligament cells. Golden time for replantation is 20 minutes. ā Immediate replantation, flexible splinting for 2 weeks, and systemic antibiotics are the gold standard protocol. ā Endodontic root canal treatment is initiated in-office 7-10 days later for mature apex teeth. REFERENCE IADT Guidelines for Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries -
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
Unilateral throbbing temporal headache with photophobia, nausea, and desire for dark quiet rooms indicates:
Correct
ANSWER
Migraine headacheOTHER OPTIONS
ā Cluster headache – Severe periorbital, non-throbbing pain with autonomic signs tearing, rhinorrhea, nasal congestion).
ā Tension headache – Dull, pressing band-like bilateral discomfort, lacks severe nausea or photophobia.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia – Brief, electric shock-like lancinating pain triggered by light tactile stimulation.SYNOPSIS
ā Migraine without aura presents with unilateral, pulsating or throbbing moderate-to-severe headache lasting 4-72 hours.
ā Pathognomonic associated symptoms – Nausea, vomiting, photophobia (light sensitivity), and phonophobia *(sound sensitivity).
ā Aggravated by routine physical activity, relieved by rest in a quiet, dark room.REFERENCE
International Classification of Headache Disorders ICHD-3)Incorrect
ANSWER
Migraine headacheOTHER OPTIONS
ā Cluster headache – Severe periorbital, non-throbbing pain with autonomic signs tearing, rhinorrhea, nasal congestion).
ā Tension headache – Dull, pressing band-like bilateral discomfort, lacks severe nausea or photophobia.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia – Brief, electric shock-like lancinating pain triggered by light tactile stimulation.SYNOPSIS
ā Migraine without aura presents with unilateral, pulsating or throbbing moderate-to-severe headache lasting 4-72 hours.
ā Pathognomonic associated symptoms – Nausea, vomiting, photophobia (light sensitivity), and phonophobia *(sound sensitivity).
ā Aggravated by routine physical activity, relieved by rest in a quiet, dark room.REFERENCE
International Classification of Headache Disorders ICHD-3) -
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
Erythematous depapillated lesions on the tongue that resolve and reappear in different oral locations indicate
Correct
ANSWER
Erythema migransOTHER OPTIONS
ā Erythroplakia – Persistent red mucosal patch with high premalignant dysplasia risk, does not wander or resolve spontaneously.
ā Candidiasis – Fungal infection presenting as wipeable white plaques or generalised chronic erythema.
ā Lichen planus – Immune-mediated lesion featuring bilateral Wickham’s striae, erosions, or desquamative gingivitis.SYNOPSIS
ā Benign inflammatory condition characterised by loss of filiform papillae producing smooth red patches.
ā Lesions are bordered by narrow yellow-white hyperkeratotic margins.
ā Characteristically resolves in one area and reappears in another (‘ wandering’ pattern), usually asymptomatic.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Erythema migransOTHER OPTIONS
ā Erythroplakia – Persistent red mucosal patch with high premalignant dysplasia risk, does not wander or resolve spontaneously.
ā Candidiasis – Fungal infection presenting as wipeable white plaques or generalised chronic erythema.
ā Lichen planus – Immune-mediated lesion featuring bilateral Wickham’s striae, erosions, or desquamative gingivitis.SYNOPSIS
ā Benign inflammatory condition characterised by loss of filiform papillae producing smooth red patches.
ā Lesions are bordered by narrow yellow-white hyperkeratotic margins.
ā Characteristically resolves in one area and reappears in another (‘ wandering’ pattern), usually asymptomatic.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology -
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
Which impression material offers the highest dimensional stability and tear strength for fixed partial dentures?
Correct
ANSWER
Polyvinyl siloxaneOTHER OPTIONS
ā Alginate – Irreversible hydrocolloid subject to imbibition and syneresis, low tear strength.
ā Impression compound – Rigid thermoplastic material used for preliminary complete denture impressions.
ā Zinc oxide eugenol – Rigid non-elastic impression paste used only for edentulous mucostatic impressions.SYNOPSIS
ā Polyvinyl siloxane PVS produces zero volatile byproducts during polymerisation.
ā Features – superior dimensional stability, allowing delayed or multiple cast pourings without deformation.
ā High elastic recovery and excellent tear strength near thin crown preparation margins.REFERENCE
Craig’s Restorative Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
Polyvinyl siloxaneOTHER OPTIONS
ā Alginate – Irreversible hydrocolloid subject to imbibition and syneresis, low tear strength.
ā Impression compound – Rigid thermoplastic material used for preliminary complete denture impressions.
ā Zinc oxide eugenol – Rigid non-elastic impression paste used only for edentulous mucostatic impressions.SYNOPSIS
ā Polyvinyl siloxane PVS produces zero volatile byproducts during polymerisation.
ā Features – superior dimensional stability, allowing delayed or multiple cast pourings without deformation.
ā High elastic recovery and excellent tear strength near thin crown preparation margins.REFERENCE
Craig’s Restorative Dental Materials -
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
A single edentulous area located anterior to remaining natural teeth crossing the midline is Kennedy Class
Correct
ANSWER
Class IVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I – Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to remaining natural teeth.
ā Class II – Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to remaining natural teeth.
ā Class III – Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior to it.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class IV is a single bilateral edentulous space crossing the dental midline anteriorly.
ā Crucial rule – Applegate Rule 5 – Class IV cannot have modification spaces, additional posterior spaces convert it to Class I, II, or III.
ā Poses specific esthetic, leverage, and force-distribution challenges in removable prosthodontics.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Class IVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I – Bilateral edentulous areas located posterior to remaining natural teeth.
ā Class II – Unilateral edentulous area located posterior to remaining natural teeth.
ā Class III – Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior to it.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class IV is a single bilateral edentulous space crossing the dental midline anteriorly.
ā Crucial rule – Applegate Rule 5 – Class IV cannot have modification spaces, additional posterior spaces convert it to Class I, II, or III.
ā Poses specific esthetic, leverage, and force-distribution challenges in removable prosthodontics.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics -
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
Following flap surgery, a xenograft was placed and secured using bioresorbable sutures. Which type of periodontal dressing is most appropriate to protect the surgical site?
Correct
ANSWER
Non eugenol dressingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Eugenol-containing dressings (e.g., Kirkland pack) – Can cause tissue irritation, burning sensation, and hypersensitivity. Not ideal for post-gingivectomy healing.SYNOPSIS
⢠After gingivectomy, a periodontal dressing is applied to
– Protect the surgical site
– Reduce postoperative pain and bleeding
– Facilitate healing
⢠Non-eugenol dressings (e.g., Coe-Pak) are preferred because
– Do not cause irritation or allergic reactions (unlike eugenol-based dressings).
– Provide better tissue adaptation and less postoperative discomfort.
– Easier to remove after healing.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Non eugenol dressingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Eugenol-containing dressings (e.g., Kirkland pack) – Can cause tissue irritation, burning sensation, and hypersensitivity. Not ideal for post-gingivectomy healing.SYNOPSIS
⢠After gingivectomy, a periodontal dressing is applied to
– Protect the surgical site
– Reduce postoperative pain and bleeding
– Facilitate healing
⢠Non-eugenol dressings (e.g., Coe-Pak) are preferred because
– Do not cause irritation or allergic reactions (unlike eugenol-based dressings).
– Provide better tissue adaptation and less postoperative discomfort.
– Easier to remove after healing.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition -
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
Which component is attached to an open-tray impression coping to replicate the implant body in dental stone?
Correct
ANSWER
Implant analogueOTHER OPTIONS
ā Healing abutment – Used intraorally to shape soft tissue emergence profile.
ā Impression coping – Attached to implant in mouth to capture spatial orientation within impression material.
ā Cover screw – Protective intraoral cap placed over implant body during submerged healing.SYNOPSIS
ā Implant analogue is a precise metal replica of the implant platform and internal connection.
ā Screwed onto impression coping inside the impression before pouring dental stone.
ā Replicates the exact 3D spatial position of the implant body on the master working model.REFERENCE
Misch’s Contemporary Implant DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Implant analogueOTHER OPTIONS
ā Healing abutment – Used intraorally to shape soft tissue emergence profile.
ā Impression coping – Attached to implant in mouth to capture spatial orientation within impression material.
ā Cover screw – Protective intraoral cap placed over implant body during submerged healing.SYNOPSIS
ā Implant analogue is a precise metal replica of the implant platform and internal connection.
ā Screwed onto impression coping inside the impression before pouring dental stone.
ā Replicates the exact 3D spatial position of the implant body on the master working model.REFERENCE
Misch’s Contemporary Implant Dentistry -
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
Exposed necrotic mandibular bone following high-dose head and neck radiotherapy indicates
Correct
ANSWER
Osteoradionecrosis (ORN)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Osteomyelitis – Infectious bone inflammation caused by pyogenic bacteria without radiation history.
ā Medication-related osteonecrosis – Caused by anti-resorptive bisphosphonates( denosumab) or anti-angiogenic medications.
ā Fibrous dysplasia – Developmental skeletal disorder where normal bone is replaced by fibrous tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā ORN key criteria – Exposed bone in irradiated field (> 60 Gy) failing to heal over 3-6 months.
ā Pathophysiology – Marx theory – Hypoxia, Hypocellularity, and Hypovascularity (3 H’s).
ā Mandible affected significantly more than maxilla due to rich maxillary vascular supply and dense cortical mandibular structure.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Osteoradionecrosis (ORN)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Osteomyelitis – Infectious bone inflammation caused by pyogenic bacteria without radiation history.
ā Medication-related osteonecrosis – Caused by anti-resorptive bisphosphonates( denosumab) or anti-angiogenic medications.
ā Fibrous dysplasia – Developmental skeletal disorder where normal bone is replaced by fibrous tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā ORN key criteria – Exposed bone in irradiated field (> 60 Gy) failing to heal over 3-6 months.
ā Pathophysiology – Marx theory – Hypoxia, Hypocellularity, and Hypovascularity (3 H’s).
ā Mandible affected significantly more than maxilla due to rich maxillary vascular supply and dense cortical mandibular structure.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology -
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
The oblique ridge of the primary maxillary second molar extends between which two cusps?
Correct
ANSWER
Mesiolingual and distobuccal cuspsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps – Connects via buccal marginal ridge orcusp ridge, not oblique ridge.
ā Mesiolingual and distolingual cusps – Connects lingual cusps along lingual surface.
ā Mesiobuccal and distolingual cusps – Transverse diagonal alignment incorrect for maxillary molar anatomy.SYNOPSIS
ā Oblique ridge runs diagonally from the mesiolingual to the distobuccal cusp.
ā Anatomical feature present on maxillary molars( primary 2nd molar, and permanent 1st or 2nd molars).
ā Prominent elevated enamel ridge crossing occlusal surface obliquely.
ā Forms the distal boundary of the central fossa and anterior boundary of the distal triangular fossa.REFERENCE
Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy, Physiology, and OcclusionIncorrect
ANSWER
Mesiolingual and distobuccal cuspsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps – Connects via buccal marginal ridge orcusp ridge, not oblique ridge.
ā Mesiolingual and distolingual cusps – Connects lingual cusps along lingual surface.
ā Mesiobuccal and distolingual cusps – Transverse diagonal alignment incorrect for maxillary molar anatomy.SYNOPSIS
ā Oblique ridge runs diagonally from the mesiolingual to the distobuccal cusp.
ā Anatomical feature present on maxillary molars( primary 2nd molar, and permanent 1st or 2nd molars).
ā Prominent elevated enamel ridge crossing occlusal surface obliquely.
ā Forms the distal boundary of the central fossa and anterior boundary of the distal triangular fossa.REFERENCE
Wheeler’s Dental Anatomy, Physiology, and Occlusion -
Question 47 of 150
47. Question
A deep carious tooth is non-responsive to pulp tests with no periapical symptoms or radiographic changes. Diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Pulp necrosis with normal apical tissuesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis – Thermal testing yields lingering pain, and percussion causes severe tenderness.
ā Reversible pulpitis with acute apical abscess – Reversible pulpitis responds with sharp non-lingering pain to cold, non-necrosed.
ā Previously treated tooth with apical periodontitis – Implies prior endodontic obturation, and periapical lesion is present.SYNOPSIS
ā Non-responsive pulp vitality test confirms necrosis; absence of periapical signs confirms normal apex.
ā Normal apical tissues – Tooth is non-tender to percussion or palpation and exhibits intact PDL space radiographically.REFERENCE
American Association of Endodontists AAE) Diagnostic TerminologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Pulp necrosis with normal apical tissuesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis – Thermal testing yields lingering pain, and percussion causes severe tenderness.
ā Reversible pulpitis with acute apical abscess – Reversible pulpitis responds with sharp non-lingering pain to cold, non-necrosed.
ā Previously treated tooth with apical periodontitis – Implies prior endodontic obturation, and periapical lesion is present.SYNOPSIS
ā Non-responsive pulp vitality test confirms necrosis; absence of periapical signs confirms normal apex.
ā Normal apical tissues – Tooth is non-tender to percussion or palpation and exhibits intact PDL space radiographically.REFERENCE
American Association of Endodontists AAE) Diagnostic Terminology -
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
A tooth exhibits lingering thermal pain, severe tenderness to percussion, and PDL widening. Diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis with normal apical tissues – Lacks tenderness to percussion and radiographic PDL widening.
ā Pulp necrosis with normal apical tissues – Pulp necrosis does not produce lingering thermal pain responses.
ā Reversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis – Reversible pulpitis produces short, non-lingering pain that subsides immediately upon stimulus removal.SYNOPSIS
ā Symptomatic Irreversible Pulpitis – Lingering thermal pain lasting > 10-15 seconds after cold or heat stimulus removal.
ā Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis – Inflammation spread to periapical tissues causing tenderness to biting or percussion.
ā Radiographic finding – Widened periodontal ligament space surrounding root apex.REFERENCE
AAE Endodontic Diagnostic GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis with normal apical tissues – Lacks tenderness to percussion and radiographic PDL widening.
ā Pulp necrosis with normal apical tissues – Pulp necrosis does not produce lingering thermal pain responses.
ā Reversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis – Reversible pulpitis produces short, non-lingering pain that subsides immediately upon stimulus removal.SYNOPSIS
ā Symptomatic Irreversible Pulpitis – Lingering thermal pain lasting > 10-15 seconds after cold or heat stimulus removal.
ā Symptomatic Apical Periodontitis – Inflammation spread to periapical tissues causing tenderness to biting or percussion.
ā Radiographic finding – Widened periodontal ligament space surrounding root apex.REFERENCE
AAE Endodontic Diagnostic Guidelines -
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
Haemophilia B (Christmas disease) is caused by an inherited deficiency of which clotting factor?
Correct
ANSWER
Factor IXOTHER OPTIONS
ā Factor VIII – Deficiency causes Haemophilia A (Classic Haemophilia), accounting for ~80-85% of cases.
ā Factor XI – Deficiency causes Haemophilia C (Rosenthal syndrome).
ā Factor VII – Deficiency causes rare congenital Factor VII deficiency (extrinsic pathway defect).SYNOPSIS
ā Hemophilia B is an X-linked recessive congenital bleeding disorder.
ā Characterised by deficiency or dysfunction of blood coagulation Factor IX.
ā Dental considerations – Requires replacement therapy with factor concentrate before invasive surgical procedures.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of the Medically Compromised PatientIncorrect
ANSWER
Factor IXOTHER OPTIONS
ā Factor VIII – Deficiency causes Haemophilia A (Classic Haemophilia), accounting for ~80-85% of cases.
ā Factor XI – Deficiency causes Haemophilia C (Rosenthal syndrome).
ā Factor VII – Deficiency causes rare congenital Factor VII deficiency (extrinsic pathway defect).SYNOPSIS
ā Hemophilia B is an X-linked recessive congenital bleeding disorder.
ā Characterised by deficiency or dysfunction of blood coagulation Factor IX.
ā Dental considerations – Requires replacement therapy with factor concentrate before invasive surgical procedures.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient -
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
Which laboratory test assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway in a patient with Hemophilia A?
Correct
ANSWER
Partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Bleeding time – Assesses primary hemostasis platelet plug formation and vascular function), normal in haemophilia.
ā Prothrombin time (PT) – Evaluates extrinsic and common pathways Factors I, II, V, VII, X).
ā Platelet count – Evaluates platelet quantity, normal in hemophilic patients.SYNOPSIS
ā Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) measures the Intrinsic pathway (Factors VIII, IX, XI, XII) and Common pathway.
ā Haemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) prolongs aPTT, while PT or INR and platelet counts remain completely normal.
ā Essential laboratory monitoring prior to dental surgery in patients with bleeding disorders.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Bleeding time – Assesses primary hemostasis platelet plug formation and vascular function), normal in haemophilia.
ā Prothrombin time (PT) – Evaluates extrinsic and common pathways Factors I, II, V, VII, X).
ā Platelet count – Evaluates platelet quantity, normal in hemophilic patients.SYNOPSIS
ā Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) measures the Intrinsic pathway (Factors VIII, IX, XI, XII) and Common pathway.
ā Haemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) prolongs aPTT, while PT or INR and platelet counts remain completely normal.
ā Essential laboratory monitoring prior to dental surgery in patients with bleeding disorders.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry -
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
What metabolic oral symptom is routinely noted in end-stage renal disease secondary to salivary urea accumulation?
Correct
ANSWER
Uremic halitosisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Increased bacterial plaque – Plaque accumulation is driven by hygiene habits, not urea accumulation directly.
ā Periodontal abscess – Localized pyogenic infection not directly caused by salivary chemical changes.
ā Reduced salivary flow only – Xerostomia occurs but uremic halitosis is the specific metabolic symptom of urea breakdown.SYNOPSIS
ā End-Stage Renal Disease results in high circulating blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
ā Elevated urea concentration leaks into saliva, where oral urease enzymes hydrolyze urea into ammonia.
ā Manifests as characteristic uremic halitosis (ammonia orurine-like breath odor) and metallic dysgeusia.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of Medically Compromised PatientsIncorrect
ANSWER
Uremic halitosisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Increased bacterial plaque – Plaque accumulation is driven by hygiene habits, not urea accumulation directly.
ā Periodontal abscess – Localized pyogenic infection not directly caused by salivary chemical changes.
ā Reduced salivary flow only – Xerostomia occurs but uremic halitosis is the specific metabolic symptom of urea breakdown.SYNOPSIS
ā End-Stage Renal Disease results in high circulating blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
ā Elevated urea concentration leaks into saliva, where oral urease enzymes hydrolyze urea into ammonia.
ā Manifests as characteristic uremic halitosis (ammonia orurine-like breath odor) and metallic dysgeusia.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of Medically Compromised Patients -
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
Which anti-hypertensive drug is commonly associated with drug-induced hyposalivation ?
Correct
ANSWER
HydrochlorothiazideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Nifedipine – Calcium channel blocker strongly associated with drug-induced gingival overgrowth, not xerostomia.
ā Propranolol – Non-selective beta-blocker, can alter salivary composition but less potent diuretic xerostomic driver.
ā Losartan – ARB with lower incidence of oral side effects compared to diuretics.SYNOPSIS
ā Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that increases renal sodium and water excretion.
ā Systemic fluid volume reduction leads to decreased salivary gland output and persistent dry mouth.
ā ManagementHydration, saliva substitutes, fluoride supplementation to prevent rampant cervical caries.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
HydrochlorothiazideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Nifedipine – Calcium channel blocker strongly associated with drug-induced gingival overgrowth, not xerostomia.
ā Propranolol – Non-selective beta-blocker, can alter salivary composition but less potent diuretic xerostomic driver.
ā Losartan – ARB with lower incidence of oral side effects compared to diuretics.SYNOPSIS
ā Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that increases renal sodium and water excretion.
ā Systemic fluid volume reduction leads to decreased salivary gland output and persistent dry mouth.
ā ManagementHydration, saliva substitutes, fluoride supplementation to prevent rampant cervical caries.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry -
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
Where should the preparation margin ideally be placed for a porcelain laminate veneer?
Correct
ANSWER
At the crest of the free gingival marginOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 mm subgingival – Violates biologic width causing severe chronic gingival inflammation and bone resorption.
ā 0.5 mm subgingival – Acceptable in high lip-line cases but harder to isolate reliably for adhesive bonding.
ā 1 mm supragingival – Exposes restorative margin unacceptably in anterior esthetic zone.SYNOPSIS
ā Equigingival (at gingival crest) placement balances esthetic concealment of veneer margin with biological health.
ā Facilitates absolute rubber dam isolation and moisture control required for resin cement bonding.
ā Enamel preservation at margins ensures optimal micromechanical bond strength.REFERENCE
Contemporary Fixed ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
At the crest of the free gingival marginOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 mm subgingival – Violates biologic width causing severe chronic gingival inflammation and bone resorption.
ā 0.5 mm subgingival – Acceptable in high lip-line cases but harder to isolate reliably for adhesive bonding.
ā 1 mm supragingival – Exposes restorative margin unacceptably in anterior esthetic zone.SYNOPSIS
ā Equigingival (at gingival crest) placement balances esthetic concealment of veneer margin with biological health.
ā Facilitates absolute rubber dam isolation and moisture control required for resin cement bonding.
ā Enamel preservation at margins ensures optimal micromechanical bond strength.REFERENCE
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics -
Question 54 of 150
54. Question
Where should a posterior crown margin ideally be placed when esthetics is not a primary concern?
Correct
ANSWER
SupragingivallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Deep subgingivally – Violates biologic width, impedes isolation, and promotes chronic gingivitis.
ā At the base of the gingival sulcus – Risks damaging epithelial attachment during crown preparation.
ā Within the junctional epithelium – Causes irreversible periodontal tissue injury and attachment loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Supragingival margins are placed on sound tooth structure above the free gingival margin.
ā Easiest to prepare, impression, finish, clean, and evaluate for marginal fit.
ā Gold standard location for non-aesthetic posterior teeth to preserve periodontal health.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
SupragingivallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Deep subgingivally – Violates biologic width, impedes isolation, and promotes chronic gingivitis.
ā At the base of the gingival sulcus – Risks damaging epithelial attachment during crown preparation.
ā Within the junctional epithelium – Causes irreversible periodontal tissue injury and attachment loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Supragingival margins are placed on sound tooth structure above the free gingival margin.
ā Easiest to prepare, impression, finish, clean, and evaluate for marginal fit.
ā Gold standard location for non-aesthetic posterior teeth to preserve periodontal health.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
Respecting a patient’s right to select their preferred treatment plan demonstrates which ethical principle?
Correct
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Beneficence – Duty to act for the benefit of the patient (‘doing good’).
ā Non-maleficence – Duty to do no harm.
ā Justice – Duty to treat people fairly and distribute healthcare resources equitably.SYNOPSIS
ā Patient Autonomy (‘self-governance’) mandates informed consent and respect for patient decisions.
ā Clinicians must present valid diagnosis, treatment options, risks, and benefits.
ā Patient retains ultimate legal and ethical right to accept or decline proposed treatment.REFERENCE
ADA Code of Ethics and Professional ConductIncorrect
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Beneficence – Duty to act for the benefit of the patient (‘doing good’).
ā Non-maleficence – Duty to do no harm.
ā Justice – Duty to treat people fairly and distribute healthcare resources equitably.SYNOPSIS
ā Patient Autonomy (‘self-governance’) mandates informed consent and respect for patient decisions.
ā Clinicians must present valid diagnosis, treatment options, risks, and benefits.
ā Patient retains ultimate legal and ethical right to accept or decline proposed treatment.REFERENCE
ADA Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct -
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
Publishing identifiable patient intraoral photos on social media without written consent violates
Correct
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Justice – Ethical duty of fairness and non-discrimination.
ā Beneficence – Principle of acting in the best medical ordental interest of the patient.
ā Veracity – Principle of honesty and truthfulness in patient communication.SYNOPSIS
ā Disclosing patient images without explicit written consent violates patient confidentiality which is covered under the principle of autonomy.
ā Disclosing identifiable patient information or images without formal written consent breaches privacy.
ā Applies across all platforms including educational presentations and social media publications.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional ConductIncorrect
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Justice – Ethical duty of fairness and non-discrimination.
ā Beneficence – Principle of acting in the best medical ordental interest of the patient.
ā Veracity – Principle of honesty and truthfulness in patient communication.SYNOPSIS
ā Disclosing patient images without explicit written consent violates patient confidentiality which is covered under the principle of autonomy.
ā Disclosing identifiable patient information or images without formal written consent breaches privacy.
ā Applies across all platforms including educational presentations and social media publications.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct -
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
What is the correct sequence of care for a tooth requiring orthodontic extrusion before crown restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Endodontic treatment – Orthodontic extrusion – Crown placementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicable.SYNOPSIS
ā Step 1 – Root canal treatment performed first to manage pulp, allow post placement, and prevent pain.
ā Step 2 – Forced orthodontic extrusion pulls tooth structure coronally to re-establish ferrule length.
ā Step 3 – Stabilization period followed by final crown prep and permanent restoration placement.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics or EndodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
Endodontic treatment – Orthodontic extrusion – Crown placementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicable.SYNOPSIS
ā Step 1 – Root canal treatment performed first to manage pulp, allow post placement, and prevent pain.
ā Step 2 – Forced orthodontic extrusion pulls tooth structure coronally to re-establish ferrule length.
ā Step 3 – Stabilization period followed by final crown prep and permanent restoration placement.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics or Endodontics -
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
Where should root canal obturation ideally terminate?
Correct
ANSWER
Minor apical constrictionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Apical constriction (minor apical diameter) is the narrowest portion of the root canal system.
ā Positioned typically 0.5 mm to 1.0 mm short of the radiographic oranatomical apex.
ā Provides natural matrix barrier to confine obturation materials inside canal space.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the PulpIncorrect
ANSWER
Minor apical constrictionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Apical constriction (minor apical diameter) is the narrowest portion of the root canal system.
ā Positioned typically 0.5 mm to 1.0 mm short of the radiographic oranatomical apex.
ā Provides natural matrix barrier to confine obturation materials inside canal space.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp -
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
Which oral hygiene aid is most appropriate for a Parkinson’s patient with severe resting tremors?
Correct
ANSWER
Powered or Electric toothbrushOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dental floss only – Requires fine motor control and bilateral finger dexterity impossible with severe tremors.
ā Manual toothbrush – Requires controlled manual wrist and arm movements compromised by resting tremors.
ā Antimicrobial mouthwash only – Chemically reduces plaque slightly but cannot mechanically remove sticky biofilm.SYNOPSIS
ā Parkinson’s disease causes resting tremors, bradykinesia, and loss of fine motor dexterity.
ā Powered(electric) toothbrushes feature large easy-grip handles and automated oscillating heads.
ā Allows effective mechanical plaque removal without requiring complex manual brushing motions.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Powered or Electric toothbrushOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dental floss only – Requires fine motor control and bilateral finger dexterity impossible with severe tremors.
ā Manual toothbrush – Requires controlled manual wrist and arm movements compromised by resting tremors.
ā Antimicrobial mouthwash only – Chemically reduces plaque slightly but cannot mechanically remove sticky biofilm.SYNOPSIS
ā Parkinson’s disease causes resting tremors, bradykinesia, and loss of fine motor dexterity.
ā Powered(electric) toothbrushes feature large easy-grip handles and automated oscillating heads.
ā Allows effective mechanical plaque removal without requiring complex manual brushing motions.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry -
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
What is the preferred topical fluoride application for a 7-year-old child with special needs?
Correct
ANSWER
5% sodium fluoride varnishOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.2% sodium fluoride mouth rinse daily – High risk of swallowing in special needs children with impaired swallowing reflexes.
ā 2% sodium fluoride gel – Requires tray delivery for 4 minutes with high salivary accumulation and ingestion risk.
ā 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride gel – Acidic gel poses swallowing toxicity and can etch ceramic orcomposite restorations.SYNOPSIS
ā 5% Sodium Fluoride (22,600 ppm F) varnish adheres quickly to enamel upon contact with saliva.
ā Fast paint-on application requires minimal patient cooperation.
ā Significantly reduces risk of accidental acute systemic ingestion in pediatric orspecial needs patients.REFERENCE
AAPD Fluoride Therapy GuidelinesIncorrect
ANSWER
5% sodium fluoride varnishOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.2% sodium fluoride mouth rinse daily – High risk of swallowing in special needs children with impaired swallowing reflexes.
ā 2% sodium fluoride gel – Requires tray delivery for 4 minutes with high salivary accumulation and ingestion risk.
ā 1.23% acidulated phosphate fluoride gel – Acidic gel poses swallowing toxicity and can etch ceramic orcomposite restorations.SYNOPSIS
ā 5% Sodium Fluoride (22,600 ppm F) varnish adheres quickly to enamel upon contact with saliva.
ā Fast paint-on application requires minimal patient cooperation.
ā Significantly reduces risk of accidental acute systemic ingestion in pediatric orspecial needs patients.REFERENCE
AAPD Fluoride Therapy Guidelines -
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
Punching rubber dam holes too close together leads to which complication?
Correct
ANSWER
LeakageOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Holes too far apart – Causes excess dam material between the teeth, resulting in wrinkling or bunching.
⢠Holes too close together – Causes the dam material to stretch tightly, resulting in gaps, tearing, and leakage.REFERENCE
Mosbys review NBDE part 2Incorrect
ANSWER
LeakageOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Holes too far apart – Causes excess dam material between the teeth, resulting in wrinkling or bunching.
⢠Holes too close together – Causes the dam material to stretch tightly, resulting in gaps, tearing, and leakage.REFERENCE
Mosbys review NBDE part 2 -
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
If a healthcare practitioner sustains an accidental scalpel puncture contacting a patient site, what is the protocol?
Correct
ANSWER
Inform the patient immediately and follow standard PEP protocolsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Do not inform the patient or record the incident – Ethical and legal violation concealing occupational exposure risk.
ā Do not inform the patient, but record the incident – Violates consent and prevents necessary patient baseline viral testing.
ā Inform the patient, but omit recording in medical notes – Incomplete medical documentation exposes clinic to severe legal liability.SYNOPSIS
ā Protocol for occupational exposure needle-stick orscalpel injury –
ā 1. Wash site immediately with soap and water.
ā 2. Document exposure incident and inform exposure control officer.
ā 3. Inform patient, request consent for baseline HBV, HCV, and HIV testing, and initiate Post-Exposure Prophylaxis PEP) within hours.REFERENCE
CDC Bloodborne Pathogens & Postexposure Prophylaxis ProtocolsIncorrect
ANSWER
Inform the patient immediately and follow standard PEP protocolsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Do not inform the patient or record the incident – Ethical and legal violation concealing occupational exposure risk.
ā Do not inform the patient, but record the incident – Violates consent and prevents necessary patient baseline viral testing.
ā Inform the patient, but omit recording in medical notes – Incomplete medical documentation exposes clinic to severe legal liability.SYNOPSIS
ā Protocol for occupational exposure needle-stick orscalpel injury –
ā 1. Wash site immediately with soap and water.
ā 2. Document exposure incident and inform exposure control officer.
ā 3. Inform patient, request consent for baseline HBV, HCV, and HIV testing, and initiate Post-Exposure Prophylaxis PEP) within hours.REFERENCE
CDC Bloodborne Pathogens & Postexposure Prophylaxis Protocols -
Question 63 of 150
63. Question

Creamy white mucosal patches that wipe off to reveal an erythematous bleeding base. Identify the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Pseudomembranous oral candidiasisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Leukoplakia – Non-wipeable white plaque that cannot be characterized clinically orpathologically as any other disease.
ā Oral lichen planus – Non-wipeable lacy white lines Wickham’s striae) on buccal mucosa.
ā White sponge nevus – Autosomal dominant hereditary condition presenting as thick non-wipeable spongy white plaques.SYNOPSIS
ā Classic acute fungal infection caused by Candida albicans overgrowth.
ā Key pathognomonic feature – Soft white curd-like plaques wipe off with gauze, leaving raw erythematous orbleeding surface.
ā Associated with immunosuppression, broad-spectrum antibiotics, corticosteroid inhalers, or diabetes.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Pseudomembranous oral candidiasisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Leukoplakia – Non-wipeable white plaque that cannot be characterized clinically orpathologically as any other disease.
ā Oral lichen planus – Non-wipeable lacy white lines Wickham’s striae) on buccal mucosa.
ā White sponge nevus – Autosomal dominant hereditary condition presenting as thick non-wipeable spongy white plaques.SYNOPSIS
ā Classic acute fungal infection caused by Candida albicans overgrowth.
ā Key pathognomonic feature – Soft white curd-like plaques wipe off with gauze, leaving raw erythematous orbleeding surface.
ā Associated with immunosuppression, broad-spectrum antibiotics, corticosteroid inhalers, or diabetes.REFERENCE
Neville Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology -
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
Rapid onset, non-painless upper lip swelling after starting an ACE inhibitor indicates
Correct
ANSWER
AngioedemaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Orofacial granulomatosis – Chronic non-painful persistent lip swelling showing non-caseating granulomas on biopsy.
ā Fibroma – Slow-growing hyperplastic fibrous tissue nodule secondary to chronic irritation.
ā Oral mucocele – Localized fluid-filled salivary mucin extravasation phenomenon on lower lip.SYNOPSIS
ā Angioedema involves rapid, severe non-pitting swelling of deep dermal, subcutaneous, or submucosal tissues.
ā ACE inhibitors e.g., Lisinopril) increase systemic bradykinin levels, triggering vasodilation.
ā Can progress to life-threatening airway compromise laryngeal edema) requiring emergency epinephrine.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of Medically Compromised PatientsIncorrect
ANSWER
AngioedemaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Orofacial granulomatosis – Chronic non-painful persistent lip swelling showing non-caseating granulomas on biopsy.
ā Fibroma – Slow-growing hyperplastic fibrous tissue nodule secondary to chronic irritation.
ā Oral mucocele – Localized fluid-filled salivary mucin extravasation phenomenon on lower lip.SYNOPSIS
ā Angioedema involves rapid, severe non-pitting swelling of deep dermal, subcutaneous, or submucosal tissues.
ā ACE inhibitors e.g., Lisinopril) increase systemic bradykinin levels, triggering vasodilation.
ā Can progress to life-threatening airway compromise laryngeal edema) requiring emergency epinephrine.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of Medically Compromised Patients -
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
What three primary functional components comprise a standard dental hand instrument?
Correct
ANSWER
Handle, shank, blade or nibOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blade, bur, latch – Mixes hand instrument and rotary latch-type bur terminology.
ā Tip, bur, motor – Components belonging to handpieces and electric motors.
ā Head, neck, turbine – Anatomical structure of a high-speed air turbine handpiece.SYNOPSIS
ā Handle shaft – Grasping portion held by practitioner.
ā Shank – Connects handle to working end, angled to keep working end aligned with long axis.
ā Blade or Nib – Active working end blade on cutting instruments, nib on non-cutting instruments like condensers).REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Handle, shank, blade or nibOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blade, bur, latch – Mixes hand instrument and rotary latch-type bur terminology.
ā Tip, bur, motor – Components belonging to handpieces and electric motors.
ā Head, neck, turbine – Anatomical structure of a high-speed air turbine handpiece.SYNOPSIS
ā Handle shaft – Grasping portion held by practitioner.
ā Shank – Connects handle to working end, angled to keep working end aligned with long axis.
ā Blade or Nib – Active working end blade on cutting instruments, nib on non-cutting instruments like condensers).REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
What is the final laboratory furnace heating procedure performed on a porcelain or metal-ceramic crown?
Correct
ANSWER
GlazingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pickling – Chemical acid bath used to remove oxidation scale from gold alloy castings.
ā Sandblasting – Micro-abrasion technique used to roughen internal metal orzirconia surface before cementation.
ā Acid etching – Application of hydrofluoric acid to etch glass-ceramics before resin bonding.SYNOPSIS
ā Glazing is the final firing stage where surface ceramic melts slightly to form a smooth, impervious glass layer.
ā Seals microscopic surface flaws and cracks, significantly increasing flexural strength.
ā Provides a smooth, hygienic finish that minimizes plaque accumulation and opposing enamel abrasion.REFERENCE
Phillips’ Science of Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
GlazingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pickling – Chemical acid bath used to remove oxidation scale from gold alloy castings.
ā Sandblasting – Micro-abrasion technique used to roughen internal metal orzirconia surface before cementation.
ā Acid etching – Application of hydrofluoric acid to etch glass-ceramics before resin bonding.SYNOPSIS
ā Glazing is the final firing stage where surface ceramic melts slightly to form a smooth, impervious glass layer.
ā Seals microscopic surface flaws and cracks, significantly increasing flexural strength.
ā Provides a smooth, hygienic finish that minimizes plaque accumulation and opposing enamel abrasion.REFERENCE
Phillips’ Science of Dental Materials -
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
Which nerve blocks are required for complete anesthesia during extraction of tooth #36?
Correct
ANSWER
Inferior alveolar, lingual, and long buccal nerve blocksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block IANB – Anesthetizes mandibular molar pulp, periodontal ligament, and surrounding bone.
ā Lingual Nerve Block – Anesthetizes lingual gingival tissues and floor of mouth.
ā Long Buccal Nerve Block – Anesthetizes buccal soft tissue adjacent to mandibular molar.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local AnesthesiaIncorrect
ANSWER
Inferior alveolar, lingual, and long buccal nerve blocksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Inferior Alveolar Nerve Block IANB – Anesthetizes mandibular molar pulp, periodontal ligament, and surrounding bone.
ā Lingual Nerve Block – Anesthetizes lingual gingival tissues and floor of mouth.
ā Long Buccal Nerve Block – Anesthetizes buccal soft tissue adjacent to mandibular molar.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia -
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
Why do the spread of infection is more dangerous in children than adult?
Correct
ANSWER
Marrow spaces are wideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Because of wider marrow spaces in the child, an odontogenic infection can rapidly spread through the bone, possibly damaging the erupting teeth.
⢠Most odontogenic infections in the child are not serious and can be easily managed by removing the source of infection with pulp therapy or removing the involved tooth.
⢠Although uncommon, serious complications can occur when the infection spreads beyond the dentition, including cellulitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, brain abscess, temporary blindness, airway obstruction, and mediastinal spread of infection.
⢠Classic signs and symptoms of infection include redness, pain, swelling, and local and systemic temperature increases.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 405Incorrect
ANSWER
Marrow spaces are wideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Because of wider marrow spaces in the child, an odontogenic infection can rapidly spread through the bone, possibly damaging the erupting teeth.
⢠Most odontogenic infections in the child are not serious and can be easily managed by removing the source of infection with pulp therapy or removing the involved tooth.
⢠Although uncommon, serious complications can occur when the infection spreads beyond the dentition, including cellulitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, brain abscess, temporary blindness, airway obstruction, and mediastinal spread of infection.
⢠Classic signs and symptoms of infection include redness, pain, swelling, and local and systemic temperature increases.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 405 -
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
Which is the handle color for the 25k file?
Correct
ANSWER
RedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blue – Handle colour for 30k file or 60k file.
ā White – Handle colour for 15k file or 50k file.
ā Purple – Handle colour for 10k file.SYNOPSIS
ā ISO colour coding standardises endodontic instrument dimensions for clear identification.
ā Sizes 15 to 40 follow the sequence White Yellow Red Blue Green Black.
ā Size 25 files consistently feature a red handle identifier.REFERENCE
Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition, Chapter 16Incorrect
ANSWER
RedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blue – Handle colour for 30k file or 60k file.
ā White – Handle colour for 15k file or 50k file.
ā Purple – Handle colour for 10k file.SYNOPSIS
ā ISO colour coding standardises endodontic instrument dimensions for clear identification.
ā Sizes 15 to 40 follow the sequence White Yellow Red Blue Green Black.
ā Size 25 files consistently feature a red handle identifier.REFERENCE
Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition, Chapter 16 -
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
What is the copper concentration present in high-copper amalgam?
Correct
ANSWER
13 percentageOTHER OPTIONS
ā 3 percentage – Below required threshold for high-copper amalgams.
ā 7 percentage – Traditional low-copper amalgam concentration.
ā 50 percentage – Abnormally high concentration for dental amalgams.SYNOPSIS
ā High-copper amalgams contain greater than 12% copper to eliminate the corrosion-susceptible gamma-2 phase.
ā This significantly reduces marginal breakdown and creep.
ā Improves longevity and mechanical properties of the restoration.REFERENCE
Phillips’ Science of Dental Materials, 13th Edition, Chapter 18Incorrect
ANSWER
13 percentageOTHER OPTIONS
ā 3 percentage – Below required threshold for high-copper amalgams.
ā 7 percentage – Traditional low-copper amalgam concentration.
ā 50 percentage – Abnormally high concentration for dental amalgams.SYNOPSIS
ā High-copper amalgams contain greater than 12% copper to eliminate the corrosion-susceptible gamma-2 phase.
ā This significantly reduces marginal breakdown and creep.
ā Improves longevity and mechanical properties of the restoration.REFERENCE
Phillips’ Science of Dental Materials, 13th Edition, Chapter 18 -
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
Which one of the following is not indicated for pedo patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Osseointegrated implantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠All other partial dentures can be given to children as it doesn’t interfere with bone growthSYNOPSIS
⢠In a growing patient, implants are contraindicated due to the risk of infra-occlusion with continued vertical facial growth.
⢠Implant placement is best left until skeletal maturity.
⢠Standard dental implants are not normally used in children as they act as ankylosed teeth and may disturb the growth of the jaws.
⢠Orthodontic implants, however, may be placed, for example, in the midline of
the palate.
⢠Orthodontic appliances can then be attached to these implants, which are removed at the end of treatment.
⢠There are three reasons for avoiding implants in young patients
1. The implant does not move with the growing alveolus it acts as an ankylosed tooth. Thus implants should not be placed until vertical growth of the jaws is virtually complete around 18 years of age. The exception to this rule is the lower intercanine region which can receive implants earlier in exceptional cases of hypodontia, for example, X-linked ectodermal dysplasia.
2. Implants can interfere with the normal growth of the jaws.
3. Young bone does not behave in the same way as mature bone. Due to squashing
and crushing, the axis of an inserted implant may deviate widely from the axis of the tap.REFERENCE
Oxford book of Pediatric dentistry Page 492Incorrect
ANSWER
Osseointegrated implantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠All other partial dentures can be given to children as it doesn’t interfere with bone growthSYNOPSIS
⢠In a growing patient, implants are contraindicated due to the risk of infra-occlusion with continued vertical facial growth.
⢠Implant placement is best left until skeletal maturity.
⢠Standard dental implants are not normally used in children as they act as ankylosed teeth and may disturb the growth of the jaws.
⢠Orthodontic implants, however, may be placed, for example, in the midline of
the palate.
⢠Orthodontic appliances can then be attached to these implants, which are removed at the end of treatment.
⢠There are three reasons for avoiding implants in young patients
1. The implant does not move with the growing alveolus it acts as an ankylosed tooth. Thus implants should not be placed until vertical growth of the jaws is virtually complete around 18 years of age. The exception to this rule is the lower intercanine region which can receive implants earlier in exceptional cases of hypodontia, for example, X-linked ectodermal dysplasia.
2. Implants can interfere with the normal growth of the jaws.
3. Young bone does not behave in the same way as mature bone. Due to squashing
and crushing, the axis of an inserted implant may deviate widely from the axis of the tap.REFERENCE
Oxford book of Pediatric dentistry Page 492 -
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
What will you do for an 8 year old child patient with obliteration in the central permanent incisor?
Correct
ANSWER
Careful monitoringOTHER OPTIONS
⢠No need for any particular treatment until symptomatic.SYNOPSIS
⢠Occurrence of obliteration in permanent teeth increased over time, with most cases diagnosed more than 3 years following the trauma.
⢠Although pulp canal obliteration is a pathologic process, it has no known deleterious effects and therefore does not necessitate any treatment in primary or permanent teeth except follow-up.
⢠In teeth with an open apex, there is a greater possibility of maintaining pulp vitality or revascularization of the neurovascular supply compared to mature teeth, due to the intense cell activity capable of promoting the defense and regeneration of affected tissues.REFERENCE
Pulp canal obliteration to primary and permanent teeth following trauma-Bianca SantosIncorrect
ANSWER
Careful monitoringOTHER OPTIONS
⢠No need for any particular treatment until symptomatic.SYNOPSIS
⢠Occurrence of obliteration in permanent teeth increased over time, with most cases diagnosed more than 3 years following the trauma.
⢠Although pulp canal obliteration is a pathologic process, it has no known deleterious effects and therefore does not necessitate any treatment in primary or permanent teeth except follow-up.
⢠In teeth with an open apex, there is a greater possibility of maintaining pulp vitality or revascularization of the neurovascular supply compared to mature teeth, due to the intense cell activity capable of promoting the defense and regeneration of affected tissues.REFERENCE
Pulp canal obliteration to primary and permanent teeth following trauma-Bianca Santos -
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
Direct pulp capping is done in which of the following
Correct
ANSWER
Permanent molarĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Direct pulp capping is contraindicated in primary teeth because of the risk of developing internal root resorption.SYNOPSIS
⢠Direct Pulp Capping is the placement of a medicament or non-medicated material on an exposed pulp that is occurred in course of excavating the last portions of deep dentinal caries or because of trauma.
⢠Indications of Direct Pulp Capping
Pulp-capping procedures should be limited to asymptomatic (absence of pain)permanent teeth, vital young permanent teeth, with the possible exception of discomfort caused by the intake of food, the teeth should have
– True pinpoint exposure (small mechanical exposure less than 1 mm) surrounded by sound dentin produced accidentally by trauma during cavity preparation.
– Mechanical or carious exposures less than 1 mm, in an asymptomatic vital young permanent tooth.
– The exposure site should have bright red hemorrhage easily controlled by dry cotton pellet with minimal pressure.
– Lack of bleeding at the exposure site (the amount of bleeding considered normal in the absence of a hyperemic or an inflamed pulp.
⢠Contraindications
1) Curiously exposed deciduous teeth
2) Spontaneous pain or severe toothache at night
3) Swelling
4) Fistula
5) Tenderness to percussion
6) Pathologic mobility
7) Root resorption-external or internal
8) Periapical or interradicular radiolucency
9) Pulp calcifications
10) Profuse hemorrhage from the exposure site
11) Pus or exudate from exposure site.
⢠Presently, the materials most commonly used are calcium hydroxide, emdogain, and mineral trioxide aggregate – MTA.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 337, 338Incorrect
ANSWER
Permanent molarĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Direct pulp capping is contraindicated in primary teeth because of the risk of developing internal root resorption.SYNOPSIS
⢠Direct Pulp Capping is the placement of a medicament or non-medicated material on an exposed pulp that is occurred in course of excavating the last portions of deep dentinal caries or because of trauma.
⢠Indications of Direct Pulp Capping
Pulp-capping procedures should be limited to asymptomatic (absence of pain)permanent teeth, vital young permanent teeth, with the possible exception of discomfort caused by the intake of food, the teeth should have
– True pinpoint exposure (small mechanical exposure less than 1 mm) surrounded by sound dentin produced accidentally by trauma during cavity preparation.
– Mechanical or carious exposures less than 1 mm, in an asymptomatic vital young permanent tooth.
– The exposure site should have bright red hemorrhage easily controlled by dry cotton pellet with minimal pressure.
– Lack of bleeding at the exposure site (the amount of bleeding considered normal in the absence of a hyperemic or an inflamed pulp.
⢠Contraindications
1) Curiously exposed deciduous teeth
2) Spontaneous pain or severe toothache at night
3) Swelling
4) Fistula
5) Tenderness to percussion
6) Pathologic mobility
7) Root resorption-external or internal
8) Periapical or interradicular radiolucency
9) Pulp calcifications
10) Profuse hemorrhage from the exposure site
11) Pus or exudate from exposure site.
⢠Presently, the materials most commonly used are calcium hydroxide, emdogain, and mineral trioxide aggregate – MTA.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 337, 338 -
Question 74 of 150
74. Question
Which is the most commonly seen benign salivary gland tumor?
Correct
ANSWER
Pleomorphic adenomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Basal cell adenoma – Rare benign salivary gland tumor.
ā Adenoid cystic carcinoma – Malignant salivary gland tumor.
ā Warthin tumor – Second most common benign salivary tumor.SYNOPSIS
ā Pleomorphic adenoma accounts for 60% to 70% of all salivary gland neoplasms.
ā It most commonly arises in the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.
ā Histologically shows mixture of epithelial and mesenchymal-like elements.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 11Incorrect
ANSWER
Pleomorphic adenomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Basal cell adenoma – Rare benign salivary gland tumor.
ā Adenoid cystic carcinoma – Malignant salivary gland tumor.
ā Warthin tumor – Second most common benign salivary tumor.SYNOPSIS
ā Pleomorphic adenoma accounts for 60% to 70% of all salivary gland neoplasms.
ā It most commonly arises in the superficial lobe of the parotid gland.
ā Histologically shows mixture of epithelial and mesenchymal-like elements.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 11 -
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
What is the optimum remaining crown length (ferrule) for post and core?
Correct
ANSWER
1.5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.5 mm – Insufficient height to provide resistance against root fracture.
ā 1 mm – Suboptimal ferrule height.
ā 3 mm – Preferred when feasible but 1.5-2.0 mm is standard optimum minimum.SYNOPSIS
ā A minimum ferrule height of 1.5 to 2.0 mm of sound dentin surrounding the coronal walls improves structural resistance.
ā Significantly prevents tooth fracture under occlusal forces.
ā Ensures proper retention and force distribution.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 5th Edition, Chapter 12Incorrect
ANSWER
1.5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.5 mm – Insufficient height to provide resistance against root fracture.
ā 1 mm – Suboptimal ferrule height.
ā 3 mm – Preferred when feasible but 1.5-2.0 mm is standard optimum minimum.SYNOPSIS
ā A minimum ferrule height of 1.5 to 2.0 mm of sound dentin surrounding the coronal walls improves structural resistance.
ā Significantly prevents tooth fracture under occlusal forces.
ā Ensures proper retention and force distribution.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel’s Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics, 5th Edition, Chapter 12 -
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
A 5 years old child patient has fractured his incisor while playing which has led to a small exposure of pulp with fractured fragment of tooth in his hand. What will you do?
Correct
ANSWER
PulpotomyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulp capping and reattachment of fragment – is done in permanent tooth.
⢠Pulpectomy – indicated with tooth with large pulp exposure and where radicular pulp is also involved.
⢠Apexification – process of inducing a calcified barrier at the apical care for young permanent non vital tooth with open apex.SYNOPSIS
⢠When the carious process has reached the pulp or in incidences of direct pulpal exposure during excavation
of a carious lesion,or traumatic pulpal exposure, the pulpotomy procedure is indicated and is the treatment of choice.
⢠The pulpotomy procedure is based on the rationale that the radicular pulp tissue is healthy or is capable of healing after surgical amputation of the affected or infected coronal pulp.
⢠Any signs and or symptoms of inflammation extending beyond the coronal pulp is a contraindication for a pulpotomy.
⢠Thus, a pulpotomy is contraindicated when any of the following are present
– Swelling of pulpal origin,
– Fistula,
– Pathologic mobility,
– Pathologic external root resorption,
– Internal root resorption,
– Periapical or interradicular radiolucency,
– Pulp calcifications, or excessive bleeding from the amputated radicular stumps.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 340Incorrect
ANSWER
PulpotomyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulp capping and reattachment of fragment – is done in permanent tooth.
⢠Pulpectomy – indicated with tooth with large pulp exposure and where radicular pulp is also involved.
⢠Apexification – process of inducing a calcified barrier at the apical care for young permanent non vital tooth with open apex.SYNOPSIS
⢠When the carious process has reached the pulp or in incidences of direct pulpal exposure during excavation
of a carious lesion,or traumatic pulpal exposure, the pulpotomy procedure is indicated and is the treatment of choice.
⢠The pulpotomy procedure is based on the rationale that the radicular pulp tissue is healthy or is capable of healing after surgical amputation of the affected or infected coronal pulp.
⢠Any signs and or symptoms of inflammation extending beyond the coronal pulp is a contraindication for a pulpotomy.
⢠Thus, a pulpotomy is contraindicated when any of the following are present
– Swelling of pulpal origin,
– Fistula,
– Pathologic mobility,
– Pathologic external root resorption,
– Internal root resorption,
– Periapical or interradicular radiolucency,
– Pulp calcifications, or excessive bleeding from the amputated radicular stumps.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 340 -
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
Twins visited your clinic for routine dental check up. During examination you found great change in behaviour between both of them. What will be the reason?
Correct
ANSWER
EnvironmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gender differences can also be seen in behavior when observing a twin boy and girl. But the greatest influence is of the environment.SYNOPSIS
⢠The factors that affect a child behaviour in a dental clinic can be broadly classified into
1 Sociocultural and Developmental factors
2. Familial factors
3. Factors associated with the dentist or dental operatory.
Familial factors include environment, family and peer influence, maternal attitude and behavior
Environment – Home is the first school where the child learns.
⢠The influence of the environment on health or social determinants of health has been an area of recent interest.
⢠Studies have linked dental anxiety and resultant behavior management problems to socioeconomic status and household characteristics.
⢠Explanations for this behavior may include increased caries history, resultant invasive treatment, and lack of access to dentists with experience treating children.
⢠Behavior management problems have also been linked to single-parent homes, possibly due to increased economic and social pressures in these environments.
⢠Emerging areas of study are the correlation between dental behavior and residence in an area at high risk for toxic stressors such as violence and low socioeconomic status.
⢠Thus the environment greatly influences behaviour differences between twins.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 354Incorrect
ANSWER
EnvironmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gender differences can also be seen in behavior when observing a twin boy and girl. But the greatest influence is of the environment.SYNOPSIS
⢠The factors that affect a child behaviour in a dental clinic can be broadly classified into
1 Sociocultural and Developmental factors
2. Familial factors
3. Factors associated with the dentist or dental operatory.
Familial factors include environment, family and peer influence, maternal attitude and behavior
Environment – Home is the first school where the child learns.
⢠The influence of the environment on health or social determinants of health has been an area of recent interest.
⢠Studies have linked dental anxiety and resultant behavior management problems to socioeconomic status and household characteristics.
⢠Explanations for this behavior may include increased caries history, resultant invasive treatment, and lack of access to dentists with experience treating children.
⢠Behavior management problems have also been linked to single-parent homes, possibly due to increased economic and social pressures in these environments.
⢠Emerging areas of study are the correlation between dental behavior and residence in an area at high risk for toxic stressors such as violence and low socioeconomic status.
⢠Thus the environment greatly influences behaviour differences between twins.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 354 -
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
Why the caries progression in children more rapid than adults?
Correct
ANSWER
Generalized dentin sclerosis by age.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Permanent teeth are supposed to have a much longer period of function.
⢠During that course of time, they change considerably with age, especially during eruption and the first years thereafter.
⢠Due to alternating de- and remineralizing episodes, surface enamel matures post-eruptively.
⢠Hereby, mineral quality is improved and solubility is lowered.
⢠Due to the life-long activity of the odontoblasts, the pulp recedes, the dentin tubules obliterate and the dentin also acquires a higher degree of mineralization. Thus, caries progresses faster in enamel and dentin of newly erupted permanent teeth in children and adolescents than in adults.REFERENCE
Early childhood caries – McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for Child and Adolescent – 11th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Generalized dentin sclerosis by age.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Permanent teeth are supposed to have a much longer period of function.
⢠During that course of time, they change considerably with age, especially during eruption and the first years thereafter.
⢠Due to alternating de- and remineralizing episodes, surface enamel matures post-eruptively.
⢠Hereby, mineral quality is improved and solubility is lowered.
⢠Due to the life-long activity of the odontoblasts, the pulp recedes, the dentin tubules obliterate and the dentin also acquires a higher degree of mineralization. Thus, caries progresses faster in enamel and dentin of newly erupted permanent teeth in children and adolescents than in adults.REFERENCE
Early childhood caries – McDonald and Avery’s Dentistry for Child and Adolescent – 11th Edition -
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
What is your treatment plan for distal bulge present in primary second lower molar which is preventing the eruption of mandibular first molar?
Correct
ANSWER
Slicing of distal bulge and guide the molar eruptionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Extraction of primary second molar – results in space loss and ectopic eruption of the first permanent molar.
⢠Extraction of permanent first molar – not a valid choice.
⢠Forceful extraction of permanent first molar – not required.SYNOPSIS
⢠Slicing of the distal bulge of the primary second molar is done to guide the eruption of the first permanent molar.
⢠Obtain distal reduction with a fine tapered diamond bur.
⢠It is important not to change the proportions of the tooth or create an overhang that will impede molar eruption.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Oxford Page 236Incorrect
ANSWER
Slicing of distal bulge and guide the molar eruptionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Extraction of primary second molar – results in space loss and ectopic eruption of the first permanent molar.
⢠Extraction of permanent first molar – not a valid choice.
⢠Forceful extraction of permanent first molar – not required.SYNOPSIS
⢠Slicing of the distal bulge of the primary second molar is done to guide the eruption of the first permanent molar.
⢠Obtain distal reduction with a fine tapered diamond bur.
⢠It is important not to change the proportions of the tooth or create an overhang that will impede molar eruption.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Oxford Page 236 -
Question 80 of 150
80. Question
What will be the diagnosis for a 5-year-old child having severe plaque and attachment loss in his lower second primary molar?
Correct
ANSWER
Localized aggressive periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Generalised periodontitis – is rare in children. it is the interproximal attachment loss that affects three or more permanent teeth other than incisors and first molars.
⢠Gingivitis – is common in children with generalized appearance.SYNOPSIS
⢠LAP in the primary dentition formerly called localized prepubertal periodontitis, and is characterized by localized loss of attachment in the primary dentition.
⢠It occurs in children without evidence of systemic disease.
⢠The disease is most commonly manifested in the molar area, where localized, usually bilaterally symmetric loss of attachment occurs.
⢠It is usually accompanied by mild to moderate inflammation, and heavier than average plaque deposits may be visible.
⢠It is commonly first diagnosed during the late primary dentition or early transitional dentition.
⢠LAP of the primary dentition may progress to LAP in the permanent dentition.
⢠LAP in the primary dentition is associated with a bacterial infection and a specific, but minor, host immunological deficit.
⢠Some cases are associated with systemic genetic diseases.
⢠Antibiotic therapy combined with local debridement appears to be an effective treatment regimen.
⢠Metronidazole is the antibiotic of choice for LAP of the primary dentition.
⢠Tetracyclines are contraindicated.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 375, 376Incorrect
ANSWER
Localized aggressive periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Generalised periodontitis – is rare in children. it is the interproximal attachment loss that affects three or more permanent teeth other than incisors and first molars.
⢠Gingivitis – is common in children with generalized appearance.SYNOPSIS
⢠LAP in the primary dentition formerly called localized prepubertal periodontitis, and is characterized by localized loss of attachment in the primary dentition.
⢠It occurs in children without evidence of systemic disease.
⢠The disease is most commonly manifested in the molar area, where localized, usually bilaterally symmetric loss of attachment occurs.
⢠It is usually accompanied by mild to moderate inflammation, and heavier than average plaque deposits may be visible.
⢠It is commonly first diagnosed during the late primary dentition or early transitional dentition.
⢠LAP of the primary dentition may progress to LAP in the permanent dentition.
⢠LAP in the primary dentition is associated with a bacterial infection and a specific, but minor, host immunological deficit.
⢠Some cases are associated with systemic genetic diseases.
⢠Antibiotic therapy combined with local debridement appears to be an effective treatment regimen.
⢠Metronidazole is the antibiotic of choice for LAP of the primary dentition.
⢠Tetracyclines are contraindicated.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 375, 376 -
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
What will be the result of vitality test of young permanent tooth with open apex?
Correct
ANSWER
Non-reliableĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Two types of sensory fibres are present in the pulp – the myelinated A fibres and unmyelinated C fibres.
⢠The A fibres predominantly innervate the dentine.
⢠The C fibres innervate the body of the pulp.
⢠The AΓ fibres have lower electrical thresholds than the C fibres and respond to a number of stimuli which do not activate C fibres.
⢠AΓ fibres mediate acute, sharp pain and are excited by hydromechanical events in dentinal tubules such as drilling or air-drying.
⢠The C fibres mediate a dull, burning, and poorly located pain, and are activated only by stimuli reaching the pulp proper.
⢠C fibres have a high threshold and can be activated by intense heating or cooling of the tooth crown.
⢠In primary and young permanent teeth A delta fibres have delayed release.
⢠For electric and thermal testing to be effective, the pulp must have a sufficient number of mature neurons.
⢠However, both primary and immature permanent teeth are not fully innervated with alpha myelinated axons, the neural components which are responsible for the pulpal pain response.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – Journal of DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Non-reliableĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Two types of sensory fibres are present in the pulp – the myelinated A fibres and unmyelinated C fibres.
⢠The A fibres predominantly innervate the dentine.
⢠The C fibres innervate the body of the pulp.
⢠The AΓ fibres have lower electrical thresholds than the C fibres and respond to a number of stimuli which do not activate C fibres.
⢠AΓ fibres mediate acute, sharp pain and are excited by hydromechanical events in dentinal tubules such as drilling or air-drying.
⢠The C fibres mediate a dull, burning, and poorly located pain, and are activated only by stimuli reaching the pulp proper.
⢠C fibres have a high threshold and can be activated by intense heating or cooling of the tooth crown.
⢠In primary and young permanent teeth A delta fibres have delayed release.
⢠For electric and thermal testing to be effective, the pulp must have a sufficient number of mature neurons.
⢠However, both primary and immature permanent teeth are not fully innervated with alpha myelinated axons, the neural components which are responsible for the pulpal pain response.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – Journal of Dentistry -
Question 82 of 150
82. Question
Why does immature tooth show less sensation of cold and hot?
Correct
ANSWER
Incomplete innervationsOTHER OPTIONS
Detailed belowSYNOPSIS
⢠For electric and thermal testing to be effective, the pulp must have a sufficient number of mature neurons.
⢠However, both primary and immature permanent teeth are not fully innervated with alpha myelinated axons, the neural components which are responsible for the pulpal pain response.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – Journal of DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Incomplete innervationsOTHER OPTIONS
Detailed belowSYNOPSIS
⢠For electric and thermal testing to be effective, the pulp must have a sufficient number of mature neurons.
⢠However, both primary and immature permanent teeth are not fully innervated with alpha myelinated axons, the neural components which are responsible for the pulpal pain response.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – Journal of Dentistry -
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
What test is used to locate the pain for a pedo patient with vague pain and can’t locate it?
Correct
ANSWER
Anaesthetic testOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Test cavity – This test may serve as a last resort in testing for pulp vitality. The test cavity is made by drilling through the enamel-dentine junction of an unanesthetized tooth with good isolation.
⢠Electric test – The objective of EPT is to stimulate intact AĪ“ nerves in the pulp-dentine complex by applying an electric current on the tooth surface.
⢠Percussion test – Percussion testĀ cannot be used in pediatric patientsĀ because it is difficult to get periodontal response due to resorption of deciduous roots, and there will be furcal involvement in long standing inflammation of deciduous tooth unlike in the apical area as in permanent teeth.SYNOPSIS
⢠When dental symptoms are poorly localized or referred, an accurate diagnosis is extremely difficult.
⢠Sometimes, patients may not even able to specify whether the symptoms are from the maxillary or mandibular arch.
⢠In such cases, and where pulp testing has proved inconclusive, an anaesthetic test may be helpful.
⢠The technique is as follows, using either infiltration or an intraligamentary injection, the most posterior tooth in the area suspected of causing the pain is anaesthetized.
⢠If pain persists once the tooth has been fully anaesthetized, the tooth immediately mesial to it is then anaesthetized, and so on, until the pain disappears.
⢠If the source of the pain cannot be even localized to the upper or lower jaw, an inferior alveolar nerve block injection is given cessation of pain indicates involvement of a mandibular tooth.
⢠This approach has an advantage over a test cavity, which may incur iatrogenic damage.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – a review-gopikrishnaIncorrect
ANSWER
Anaesthetic testOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Test cavity – This test may serve as a last resort in testing for pulp vitality. The test cavity is made by drilling through the enamel-dentine junction of an unanesthetized tooth with good isolation.
⢠Electric test – The objective of EPT is to stimulate intact AĪ“ nerves in the pulp-dentine complex by applying an electric current on the tooth surface.
⢠Percussion test – Percussion testĀ cannot be used in pediatric patientsĀ because it is difficult to get periodontal response due to resorption of deciduous roots, and there will be furcal involvement in long standing inflammation of deciduous tooth unlike in the apical area as in permanent teeth.SYNOPSIS
⢠When dental symptoms are poorly localized or referred, an accurate diagnosis is extremely difficult.
⢠Sometimes, patients may not even able to specify whether the symptoms are from the maxillary or mandibular arch.
⢠In such cases, and where pulp testing has proved inconclusive, an anaesthetic test may be helpful.
⢠The technique is as follows, using either infiltration or an intraligamentary injection, the most posterior tooth in the area suspected of causing the pain is anaesthetized.
⢠If pain persists once the tooth has been fully anaesthetized, the tooth immediately mesial to it is then anaesthetized, and so on, until the pain disappears.
⢠If the source of the pain cannot be even localized to the upper or lower jaw, an inferior alveolar nerve block injection is given cessation of pain indicates involvement of a mandibular tooth.
⢠This approach has an advantage over a test cavity, which may incur iatrogenic damage.REFERENCE
Assessment of pulp vitality – a review-gopikrishna -
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
An 8 years old child, suffered a trauma at the TMJ region as infant, complaining now from limitation in movement of the mandible. What would be the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
AnkylosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Subluxation – causes deviation of TMJ and not limited mouth opening.
⢠Trismus – a condition characterized by limited mouth opening.
⢠Muscular contraction – may cause limited mouth opening.SYNOPSIS
⢠Deflection is commonly associated with an intracapsular disorder, such as disk displacement without reduction or TMJ ankylosis.
⢠Ankylosis, a rare but serious manifestation of TMJ trauma, occurs when there is a fusion of the mandible to the cranial base or zygoma.
⢠Given the variability of traumatic injuries to the masticatory system and the differing levels of individual response to injury, it is reasonable to screen for trauma in patients with a history of TMD.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 580Incorrect
ANSWER
AnkylosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Subluxation – causes deviation of TMJ and not limited mouth opening.
⢠Trismus – a condition characterized by limited mouth opening.
⢠Muscular contraction – may cause limited mouth opening.SYNOPSIS
⢠Deflection is commonly associated with an intracapsular disorder, such as disk displacement without reduction or TMJ ankylosis.
⢠Ankylosis, a rare but serious manifestation of TMJ trauma, occurs when there is a fusion of the mandible to the cranial base or zygoma.
⢠Given the variability of traumatic injuries to the masticatory system and the differing levels of individual response to injury, it is reasonable to screen for trauma in patients with a history of TMD.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 580 -
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
What will cause if a child on swing dropped on his chin?
Correct
ANSWER
Greenstick bilateral condylar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Tooth fracture – may occur due to a fall on the chin but more chances for bilateral condylar fracture.
⢠Mandibular body fracture – least possible to occur.SYNOPSIS
⢠Mechanism of Injury – When a child falls on the chin, the force is transmitted posteriorly through the mandibular body towards condylar necks (weakest point) where it absorb the impact and leads to fracture of condyles.
⢠In children, because the bone is more flexible and not fully mineralized greenstick fractures (incomplete fractures) are common.
⢠Bilateral involvement occurs because the impact is transmitted symmetrically through both condyles.
⢠Clinical findings include
– Pain and tenderness over TMJ
– Restricted mouth opening
– Muscle spasm and pain
– Anterior open bite
– Deviation on opening
– No mobility in lower border
⢠Radiographic Findings
– Panoramic (OPG) – Greenstick or incomplete fracture lines at the condylar neck region.
⢠Management – Usually conservative in children
– Soft diet
– Analgesics
– Early gentle mobilization
– Regular follow-up to ensure normal growth of condyleREFERENCE
Mcdonald and Avery – Pg 653Incorrect
ANSWER
Greenstick bilateral condylar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Tooth fracture – may occur due to a fall on the chin but more chances for bilateral condylar fracture.
⢠Mandibular body fracture – least possible to occur.SYNOPSIS
⢠Mechanism of Injury – When a child falls on the chin, the force is transmitted posteriorly through the mandibular body towards condylar necks (weakest point) where it absorb the impact and leads to fracture of condyles.
⢠In children, because the bone is more flexible and not fully mineralized greenstick fractures (incomplete fractures) are common.
⢠Bilateral involvement occurs because the impact is transmitted symmetrically through both condyles.
⢠Clinical findings include
– Pain and tenderness over TMJ
– Restricted mouth opening
– Muscle spasm and pain
– Anterior open bite
– Deviation on opening
– No mobility in lower border
⢠Radiographic Findings
– Panoramic (OPG) – Greenstick or incomplete fracture lines at the condylar neck region.
⢠Management – Usually conservative in children
– Soft diet
– Analgesics
– Early gentle mobilization
– Regular follow-up to ensure normal growth of condyleREFERENCE
Mcdonald and Avery – Pg 653 -
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
What would be the diagnosis for a child who came to you after anterior trauma shows mal-alignment of four anterior teeth on clinical examination?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentoalveolar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Subluxation – Subluxated teeth present increased mobility and widening of the periodontal space.
⢠Concussion – Teeth suffering from concussion injuries are sensitive to percussion without any additional sign.SYNOPSIS
⢠The extent and position of the alveolar fracture should be verified clinically and radiographically.
⢠If there is displacement of the teeth to the extent that their apices have risen up and are now positioned over the labial or lingual or palatal alveolar plates, apical lock, then they will require extruding first to free the apices before repositioning.
⢠The segment of alveolus with teeth requires only 3-4 weeks of rigid splinting composite-wire type, with two abutment teeth on either side of the fracture, together with antibiotics, chlorhexidine, soft diet, and tetanus prophylaxis check.
⢠Pulpal survival is more likely if repositioning occurs within 1 hour of the injury.
⢠Root resorption is rare.REFERENCE
Arthur J Nowak – Pediatric dentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Dentoalveolar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Subluxation – Subluxated teeth present increased mobility and widening of the periodontal space.
⢠Concussion – Teeth suffering from concussion injuries are sensitive to percussion without any additional sign.SYNOPSIS
⢠The extent and position of the alveolar fracture should be verified clinically and radiographically.
⢠If there is displacement of the teeth to the extent that their apices have risen up and are now positioned over the labial or lingual or palatal alveolar plates, apical lock, then they will require extruding first to free the apices before repositioning.
⢠The segment of alveolus with teeth requires only 3-4 weeks of rigid splinting composite-wire type, with two abutment teeth on either side of the fracture, together with antibiotics, chlorhexidine, soft diet, and tetanus prophylaxis check.
⢠Pulpal survival is more likely if repositioning occurs within 1 hour of the injury.
⢠Root resorption is rare.REFERENCE
Arthur J Nowak – Pediatric dentistry -
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
What is the adverse effect of excessive use of cephalosporins?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Cephalosporins frequently cause gastrointestinal adverse effects.
ā Symptoms include nausea, dyspepsia, and abdominal pain.
ā Disruption of intestinal microflora commonly leads to diarrhea.REFERENCE
Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 13th Edition, Chapter 55Incorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Cephalosporins frequently cause gastrointestinal adverse effects.
ā Symptoms include nausea, dyspepsia, and abdominal pain.
ā Disruption of intestinal microflora commonly leads to diarrhea.REFERENCE
Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 13th Edition, Chapter 55 -
Question 88 of 150
88. Question
Which of the following is a feature of Treacher Collins syndrome?
Correct
ANSWER
Underdevelopment of the zygomatic complex and cheekbonesOTHER OPTIONS
ā One side of the face is underdeveloped – Characteristic of Hemifacial Microsomia.
ā Micrognathia and cleft palate – Features of Pierre Robin sequence.SYNOPSIS
ā Treacher Collins syndrome involves bilateral hypoplasia of the zygomatic arches and malar bones.
ā Results in characteristically depressed cheekbones and downward slanting palpebral fissures.
ā Originates from 1st and 2nd branchial arch defects.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Chapter 3Incorrect
ANSWER
Underdevelopment of the zygomatic complex and cheekbonesOTHER OPTIONS
ā One side of the face is underdeveloped – Characteristic of Hemifacial Microsomia.
ā Micrognathia and cleft palate – Features of Pierre Robin sequence.SYNOPSIS
ā Treacher Collins syndrome involves bilateral hypoplasia of the zygomatic arches and malar bones.
ā Results in characteristically depressed cheekbones and downward slanting palpebral fissures.
ā Originates from 1st and 2nd branchial arch defects.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Chapter 3 -
Question 89 of 150
89. Question
Identify the diagnosis for anterior open bite and protruded upper anteriors?
Correct
ANSWER
Thumb suckingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Nail biting – Causes localized incisor wear orchipping without massive open bite.
ā Tongue thrusting – Secondary adaptive behavior or causes broader open bite.
ā Lip biting – Typically causes retroclination of lower anteriors.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent thumb sucking exerts continuous labial force on maxillary incisors.
ā Causes proclination of upper anteriors and prevents vertical incisor eruption.
ā Leads directly to anterior open bite.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Chapter 5Incorrect
ANSWER
Thumb suckingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Nail biting – Causes localized incisor wear orchipping without massive open bite.
ā Tongue thrusting – Secondary adaptive behavior or causes broader open bite.
ā Lip biting – Typically causes retroclination of lower anteriors.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent thumb sucking exerts continuous labial force on maxillary incisors.
ā Causes proclination of upper anteriors and prevents vertical incisor eruption.
ā Leads directly to anterior open bite.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Chapter 5 -
Question 90 of 150
90. Question
A 66 year old patient wearing a denture for 10 years presents with growth under mandibular denture. What is the treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Surgical interventionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Re make – New denture will fail without prior removal of fibrous mass.
ā Medication – Medical management cannot resolve hyperplastic fibrous tissue.
ā Reduce overextension – Relieves acute irritation but does not eliminate hyperplastic tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā Epulis fissuratum (inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia) results from chronic denture irritation.
ā Established hyperplastic fibrous folds require complete surgical excision.
ā Tissue must be surgically corrected before fabricating a new denture.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, 13th Edition, Chapter 6Incorrect
ANSWER
Surgical interventionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Re make – New denture will fail without prior removal of fibrous mass.
ā Medication – Medical management cannot resolve hyperplastic fibrous tissue.
ā Reduce overextension – Relieves acute irritation but does not eliminate hyperplastic tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā Epulis fissuratum (inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia) results from chronic denture irritation.
ā Established hyperplastic fibrous folds require complete surgical excision.
ā Tissue must be surgically corrected before fabricating a new denture.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients, 13th Edition, Chapter 6 -
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
Which is the bur used for preparation of occlusal rest for RPD?
Correct
ANSWER
RoundOTHER OPTIONS
ā Tapered – Creates sharp line angles undesirable for rest seats.
ā Inverted cone – Creates undercuts which prevent seat path of insertion.
ā Fissure – Creates steep vertical walls rather than spoon-shaped floor.SYNOPSIS
ā Round diamond or carbide burs No. 2, 4, or 8) are used for occlusal rest seats.
ā Creates smooth saucer-shaped or spoon-shaped rest seat floors.
ā Prevents sharp line angles and stress concentrations.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th Edition, Chapter 6Incorrect
ANSWER
RoundOTHER OPTIONS
ā Tapered – Creates sharp line angles undesirable for rest seats.
ā Inverted cone – Creates undercuts which prevent seat path of insertion.
ā Fissure – Creates steep vertical walls rather than spoon-shaped floor.SYNOPSIS
ā Round diamond or carbide burs No. 2, 4, or 8) are used for occlusal rest seats.
ā Creates smooth saucer-shaped or spoon-shaped rest seat floors.
ā Prevents sharp line angles and stress concentrations.REFERENCE
McCracken’s Removable Partial Prosthodontics, 13th Edition, Chapter 6 -
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
Which bur is used for preparing enamel with minimum crack creation?
Correct
ANSWER
CarbideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Stainless steel – Lacks durability and efficiency in cutting enamel.
ā Diamond – Cuts by abrasion which produces sub-surface enamel micro-cracks.
ā None of the above – Incorrect as carbide is effective.SYNOPSIS
ā Carbide burs cut enamel cleanly by blade shear action rather than abrasive grinding.
ā Results in smoother cavity walls.
ā Produces significantly fewer enamel micro-cracks compared to diamond burs.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Chapter 6Incorrect
ANSWER
CarbideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Stainless steel – Lacks durability and efficiency in cutting enamel.
ā Diamond – Cuts by abrasion which produces sub-surface enamel micro-cracks.
ā None of the above – Incorrect as carbide is effective.SYNOPSIS
ā Carbide burs cut enamel cleanly by blade shear action rather than abrasive grinding.
ā Results in smoother cavity walls.
ā Produces significantly fewer enamel micro-cracks compared to diamond burs.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Chapter 6 -
Question 93 of 150
93. Question
What could be the cause of acute sharp pain immediately after amalgam restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Pulpal irritationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Microleakage – Causes gradual sensitivity rather than immediate acute sharp pain.
ā Delayed expansion – Occurs days or weeks later due to moisture contamination in zinc amalgams.SYNOPSIS
ā Acute sharp post-operative pain immediately after restoration placement indicates direct pulpal irritation.
ā May result from deep preparation, high occlusion, or operative thermal trauma.
ā Requires immediate occlusal check and pulpal evaluation.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Chapter 11Incorrect
ANSWER
Pulpal irritationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Microleakage – Causes gradual sensitivity rather than immediate acute sharp pain.
ā Delayed expansion – Occurs days or weeks later due to moisture contamination in zinc amalgams.SYNOPSIS
ā Acute sharp post-operative pain immediately after restoration placement indicates direct pulpal irritation.
ā May result from deep preparation, high occlusion, or operative thermal trauma.
ā Requires immediate occlusal check and pulpal evaluation.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th Edition, Chapter 11 -
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
Which of the following is true about herpes ulcers?
Correct
ANSWER
Self limitingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Herpes simplex virus type 1 HSV-1, is a large DNA virus that causes primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
⢠It is mostly acquired through direct skin contact or bodily fluids.
⢠Oral lesions may start as vesicles on the tongue, buccal mucosa, and gingiva, rapidly rupturing to become ulcers 1 to 3 mm in size, which may subsequently form a large ulcerated area covered by a yellowish-gray membrane.
⢠The infection is self-limiting, lasting 10 to 14 days, and healing without scarring.
⢠Children may present with severe local pain, which can lead to difficulties with fluid and food intake, putting them at risk for dehydration.
⢠Excessive drooling, halitosis, and sore throat are frequently present.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 72, 73Incorrect
ANSWER
Self limitingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Herpes simplex virus type 1 HSV-1, is a large DNA virus that causes primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
⢠It is mostly acquired through direct skin contact or bodily fluids.
⢠Oral lesions may start as vesicles on the tongue, buccal mucosa, and gingiva, rapidly rupturing to become ulcers 1 to 3 mm in size, which may subsequently form a large ulcerated area covered by a yellowish-gray membrane.
⢠The infection is self-limiting, lasting 10 to 14 days, and healing without scarring.
⢠Children may present with severe local pain, which can lead to difficulties with fluid and food intake, putting them at risk for dehydration.
⢠Excessive drooling, halitosis, and sore throat are frequently present.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 72, 73 -
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
What is the diagnosis of the child with clinical features of anodontia and loss of body hair with intolerance to heat?
Correct
ANSWER
Ectodermal dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Down’s syndrome – trisomy in 21 chromosome , macroglossia , altered dentition.
⢠Dentin dysplasia – inherited dentin defect causing ghost tooth appearance.SYNOPSIS
⢠Developmental agenesis of primary teeth is relatively rare.
⢠When several primary teeth fail to develop, other ectodermal deficiencies are usually evident.
⢠One of the more common types of ectodermal dysplasia is X-linked recessive hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia XLHED, also called anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia and Christ-Siemens-Touraine syndrome.
⢠Because the absence of teeth predisposes the child to a lack of alveolar process growth, the construction of dentures is complicated.
⢠A deficiency in sweat glands predisposes to increased body temperature, and children with hypohidrosis or anhidrosis are extremely uncomfortable during hot weather.
⢠Many of them must reside in cool climates.
⢠Children with ectodermal dysplasia usually have normal mental capacity and a normal life expectancy.REFERENCE
MCDonaldIncorrect
ANSWER
Ectodermal dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Down’s syndrome – trisomy in 21 chromosome , macroglossia , altered dentition.
⢠Dentin dysplasia – inherited dentin defect causing ghost tooth appearance.SYNOPSIS
⢠Developmental agenesis of primary teeth is relatively rare.
⢠When several primary teeth fail to develop, other ectodermal deficiencies are usually evident.
⢠One of the more common types of ectodermal dysplasia is X-linked recessive hypohidrotic ectodermal dysplasia XLHED, also called anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia and Christ-Siemens-Touraine syndrome.
⢠Because the absence of teeth predisposes the child to a lack of alveolar process growth, the construction of dentures is complicated.
⢠A deficiency in sweat glands predisposes to increased body temperature, and children with hypohidrosis or anhidrosis are extremely uncomfortable during hot weather.
⢠Many of them must reside in cool climates.
⢠Children with ectodermal dysplasia usually have normal mental capacity and a normal life expectancy.REFERENCE
MCDonald -
Question 96 of 150
96. Question
What will be your diagnosis if a 6-year-old child has abnormal enamel, dentin, and pulp in a segment crossing the midline. In radiographs, the teeth have a ghost appearance.
Correct
ANSWER
Regional odontodysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypoplasia – developmental defects of enamel or dentin.
⢠Dentinogenesis imperfecta – inherited defect of dentin.
⢠Amelogenesis imperfecta – inherited defects of enamel.SYNOPSIS
⢠This is an uncommon developmental anomaly, typically affecting the primary teeth and corresponding permanent successors within a segment of the dentition.
⢠The anterior teeth are more commonly affected than the posterior teeth and the defect may cross the midline.
⢠The term ghost teeth is sometimes applied to reflect the radiographic appearance seen.
⢠Affected patients may present with abscesses prior to the eruption of the teeth.
⢠The abnormal teeth have poorly developed crowns with enamel and dentine changes, large pulp chambers, and open apices.
⢠The permanent teeth may be less severely affected than the primary predecessors.
⢠The removal of teeth affected by regional odontodysplasia is often necessary.
⢠As this is often the case in the primary dentition, consideration then needs to be given to management of the affected permanent successors.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur .j.NowakIncorrect
ANSWER
Regional odontodysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypoplasia – developmental defects of enamel or dentin.
⢠Dentinogenesis imperfecta – inherited defect of dentin.
⢠Amelogenesis imperfecta – inherited defects of enamel.SYNOPSIS
⢠This is an uncommon developmental anomaly, typically affecting the primary teeth and corresponding permanent successors within a segment of the dentition.
⢠The anterior teeth are more commonly affected than the posterior teeth and the defect may cross the midline.
⢠The term ghost teeth is sometimes applied to reflect the radiographic appearance seen.
⢠Affected patients may present with abscesses prior to the eruption of the teeth.
⢠The abnormal teeth have poorly developed crowns with enamel and dentine changes, large pulp chambers, and open apices.
⢠The permanent teeth may be less severely affected than the primary predecessors.
⢠The removal of teeth affected by regional odontodysplasia is often necessary.
⢠As this is often the case in the primary dentition, consideration then needs to be given to management of the affected permanent successors.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur .j.Nowak -
Question 97 of 150
97. Question
Which bacteria is not present in a newborn mouth?
Correct
ANSWER
Streptococcus mutansOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Streptococcus salivarius – found in the oral cavity of newborns.
⢠Lactobacillus – another cariogenic bacteria found in oral cavity of newborns.
⢠E.coli – found in the newborn mouth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Several infant factors contribute significantly to the colonization of S. mutans.
⢠First, although S. mutans may colonize the mouth before tooth eruption, the emergence of
teeth increases the non-shedding surfaces for adherence to S.mutans.
⢠Thus, with tooth eruption, the colonization rate of the infants increases as their ages increase.
⢠Second, infant dietary and oral hygiene habits also facilitate the colonization of S.mutans.
⢠On pre dentate infants, frequent exposure to sugars, especially from snacking and sweetened pacifiers, correlated significantly with S. mutans colonization.
⢠The earlier the colonization of S. mutans, the higher the caries risk.
⢠The age of colonization on its own may not be the most important aspect in caries development, since other factors, such as sugar consumption and oral hygiene, are also likely to play significant roles in determining caries risk.
⢠S. mutans colonization after tooth eruption is influenced by both maternal and infant factors.
⢠It is now well-recognized that the mother is usually the primary source of S. mutans for infection of her child and poor maternal oral hygiene and dietary habits increase the likelihood of transmission of the infection from mother to child.REFERENCE
A longitudinal study of Streptococcus mutans colonization in infants after tooth eruption. Journal of Dental Research. 2003,82,7,504ā508.Incorrect
ANSWER
Streptococcus mutansOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Streptococcus salivarius – found in the oral cavity of newborns.
⢠Lactobacillus – another cariogenic bacteria found in oral cavity of newborns.
⢠E.coli – found in the newborn mouth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Several infant factors contribute significantly to the colonization of S. mutans.
⢠First, although S. mutans may colonize the mouth before tooth eruption, the emergence of
teeth increases the non-shedding surfaces for adherence to S.mutans.
⢠Thus, with tooth eruption, the colonization rate of the infants increases as their ages increase.
⢠Second, infant dietary and oral hygiene habits also facilitate the colonization of S.mutans.
⢠On pre dentate infants, frequent exposure to sugars, especially from snacking and sweetened pacifiers, correlated significantly with S. mutans colonization.
⢠The earlier the colonization of S. mutans, the higher the caries risk.
⢠The age of colonization on its own may not be the most important aspect in caries development, since other factors, such as sugar consumption and oral hygiene, are also likely to play significant roles in determining caries risk.
⢠S. mutans colonization after tooth eruption is influenced by both maternal and infant factors.
⢠It is now well-recognized that the mother is usually the primary source of S. mutans for infection of her child and poor maternal oral hygiene and dietary habits increase the likelihood of transmission of the infection from mother to child.REFERENCE
A longitudinal study of Streptococcus mutans colonization in infants after tooth eruption. Journal of Dental Research. 2003,82,7,504ā508. -
Question 98 of 150
98. Question
What is meant by immediate implants?
Correct
ANSWER
An implant is placed at the same time as the natural tooth is extractedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Immediate implant placement refers to surgical insertion of a dental implant directly into a fresh extraction socket.
ā Performed during the same surgical visit as tooth extraction.
ā Preserves bone structure and reduces overall treatment duration.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition, Chapter 74Incorrect
ANSWER
An implant is placed at the same time as the natural tooth is extractedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Immediate implant placement refers to surgical insertion of a dental implant directly into a fresh extraction socket.
ā Performed during the same surgical visit as tooth extraction.
ā Preserves bone structure and reduces overall treatment duration.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition, Chapter 74 -
Question 99 of 150
99. Question
Rideal walker test is done for?
Correct
ANSWER
To determine the coefficient factor of disinfectantOTHER OPTIONS
ā To determine chemical disinfection effectiveness on an inanimate surface – Broad function, test specifically calculates coefficient.SYNOPSIS
ā The Rideal-Walker test calculates the Phenol Coefficient factor of liquid disinfectants.
ā Compares their germicidal efficacy against pure phenol using Salmonella typhi.
ā Standardizes disinfectant efficiency ratings.REFERENCE
Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 10th Edition, Chapter 3Incorrect
ANSWER
To determine the coefficient factor of disinfectantOTHER OPTIONS
ā To determine chemical disinfection effectiveness on an inanimate surface – Broad function, test specifically calculates coefficient.SYNOPSIS
ā The Rideal-Walker test calculates the Phenol Coefficient factor of liquid disinfectants.
ā Compares their germicidal efficacy against pure phenol using Salmonella typhi.
ā Standardizes disinfectant efficiency ratings.REFERENCE
Ananthanarayan and Paniker’s Textbook of Microbiology, 10th Edition, Chapter 3 -
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
A child patient whose medical condition does not permit him to take treatment in supine position and needs to sit erect in the dental chair. What is the underlying condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Bronchial asthmaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cardiac disease – Can also be the answer. Usually tolerated in semi-reclined position, not strictly erect, concern is not airway but stress.SYNOPSIS
⢠In bronchial asthma, the child may experience dyspnea (difficulty in breathing) especially when lying down (orthopnea).
⢠Supine position can cause
– Increased airway resistance
– Reduced diaphragmatic movement
– Worsening of breathlessness and coughing
– Hence, asthmatic patients should be treated in a semi-supine or upright position to ease breathing and reduce the risk of bronchospasm.REFERENCE
McDonald & Avery, Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, 11th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Bronchial asthmaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cardiac disease – Can also be the answer. Usually tolerated in semi-reclined position, not strictly erect, concern is not airway but stress.SYNOPSIS
⢠In bronchial asthma, the child may experience dyspnea (difficulty in breathing) especially when lying down (orthopnea).
⢠Supine position can cause
– Increased airway resistance
– Reduced diaphragmatic movement
– Worsening of breathlessness and coughing
– Hence, asthmatic patients should be treated in a semi-supine or upright position to ease breathing and reduce the risk of bronchospasm.REFERENCE
McDonald & Avery, Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, 11th ed. -
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
2 2-month-old pedo patient, presented with an ulcer in the ventral surface of the tongue, during examination a mandibular tooth was seen which was hypermobile. Which disease has these features?
Correct
ANSWER
Riga fede diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Erythema multiforme – chronic vesiculo-ulcerative disease.
⢠ANUG – Epithelial necrosis of gingiva caused by porphyromonas gingivalis and other microbes. Interdental crater-like depressions are seen in gingiva
⢠Recurrent aphthous ulcer – A condition characterized by recurrent oral ulcerations.SYNOPSIS
⢠Riga-Fede disease is a mouth ulcer seen in infants and is usually caused by rubbing the tongue over teeth.
⢠The ulcer may be uncomfortable but it is otherwise harmless. Less commonly other parts of the mouth may be involved.
⢠Prematurely erupted teeth are hypermobile because of limited root development.
⢠Some teeth may be mobile to the extent that there is a danger of displacement of the tooth and possible aspiration, in which case the removal of the tooth is indicated.REFERENCE
Pg 366 MCDonaldIncorrect
ANSWER
Riga fede diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Erythema multiforme – chronic vesiculo-ulcerative disease.
⢠ANUG – Epithelial necrosis of gingiva caused by porphyromonas gingivalis and other microbes. Interdental crater-like depressions are seen in gingiva
⢠Recurrent aphthous ulcer – A condition characterized by recurrent oral ulcerations.SYNOPSIS
⢠Riga-Fede disease is a mouth ulcer seen in infants and is usually caused by rubbing the tongue over teeth.
⢠The ulcer may be uncomfortable but it is otherwise harmless. Less commonly other parts of the mouth may be involved.
⢠Prematurely erupted teeth are hypermobile because of limited root development.
⢠Some teeth may be mobile to the extent that there is a danger of displacement of the tooth and possible aspiration, in which case the removal of the tooth is indicated.REFERENCE
Pg 366 MCDonald -
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
A patient came to the clinic after 4 years of restoration on a few teeth shows all teeth without edges and there is no history of trauma. What will be your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
AttritionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dental erosion – may have a variety of etiologies aside from bulimia in this age group, such as sports and carbonated beverage intake or gastroesophageal reflux.
⢠Abrasion – the pathologic wearing away of tooth structure secondary to the mechanical action of an external agent.
⢠Abfraction – refers to loss of tooth structure from occlusal stresses that create repeated tooth flexure at a location away from the point of loading.SYNOPSIS
⢠Attrition is the wearing of teeth during function.
⢠It is a normal physiologic process that occurs as teeth occlude with those in the opposing dental arch.
⢠Certain types of foods and associated habits may contribute to more or less wear for individuals.
⢠The effects of attrition on occlusion are compensated for by further functional eruption.
⢠Poor quality or absent enamel as in fluorosis, enamel hypoplasia or dentinogenesis imperfecta, premature contacts, intraoral abrasives, grinding habits etc can accelerate attrition.
⢠Normal levels of attrition do not require therapy.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 193, 194
Textbook of oral pathology Neville Page 60,61Incorrect
ANSWER
AttritionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dental erosion – may have a variety of etiologies aside from bulimia in this age group, such as sports and carbonated beverage intake or gastroesophageal reflux.
⢠Abrasion – the pathologic wearing away of tooth structure secondary to the mechanical action of an external agent.
⢠Abfraction – refers to loss of tooth structure from occlusal stresses that create repeated tooth flexure at a location away from the point of loading.SYNOPSIS
⢠Attrition is the wearing of teeth during function.
⢠It is a normal physiologic process that occurs as teeth occlude with those in the opposing dental arch.
⢠Certain types of foods and associated habits may contribute to more or less wear for individuals.
⢠The effects of attrition on occlusion are compensated for by further functional eruption.
⢠Poor quality or absent enamel as in fluorosis, enamel hypoplasia or dentinogenesis imperfecta, premature contacts, intraoral abrasives, grinding habits etc can accelerate attrition.
⢠Normal levels of attrition do not require therapy.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 193, 194
Textbook of oral pathology Neville Page 60,61 -
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
A 12 year old child presented with multiple white spots, inflamed gingiva, high plaque, bad breath and a probing depth of 4-5mm. What would be the periodontal diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Juvenile periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gingivitis – Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation of the gingival tissues with no loss of attachment or bone.SYNOPSIS
⢠Juvenile periodontitis, also known as aggressive periodontitis or early-onset periodontitis, is a rare and severe form of periodontal disease that affects children and young adults. It is characterized by a rapid progression of gum and bone destruction, leading to tooth loss if left untreated.
⢠The exact causes of juvenile or aggressive periodontitis are not yet fully understood. However, research suggests that several factors may contribute to the development of these conditions. These factors include
– Genetic predisposition
– Bacterial infections or poor oral hygiene
– Impaired immune response
– Lifestyle factors
⢠The disease typically begins around puberty and may affect the molars and incisors (front teeth) first. Unlike the more common form of periodontitis seen in adults, individuals with juvenile periodontitis often have minimal plaque and tartar buildup, making it distinct and challenging to diagnose.
⢠Signs and symptoms of juvenile periodontitis include
– Red, swollen, and bleeding gums
– Bad breath (halitosis)
– Gums that are tender and painful to touch
– Receding gums, making the teeth appear longer
– Formation of deep periodontal pockets
– Loose teeth or teeth that are separating
– Bite changes or malocclusion
– Discomfort or pain while chewing
– Pus between the teeth and gums
⢠If the disease is discovered at a very early stage, treatment can include subgingival scaling and root planing in conjunction with antibiotic therapy. If conservative treatment does not result in a resolution of the disease process, the dentist may switch to surgical therapy.
⢠Surgical treatment would involve flap elevation of the affected areas, followed by thorough root debridement.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 371Incorrect
ANSWER
Juvenile periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gingivitis – Gingivitis is characterized by inflammation of the gingival tissues with no loss of attachment or bone.SYNOPSIS
⢠Juvenile periodontitis, also known as aggressive periodontitis or early-onset periodontitis, is a rare and severe form of periodontal disease that affects children and young adults. It is characterized by a rapid progression of gum and bone destruction, leading to tooth loss if left untreated.
⢠The exact causes of juvenile or aggressive periodontitis are not yet fully understood. However, research suggests that several factors may contribute to the development of these conditions. These factors include
– Genetic predisposition
– Bacterial infections or poor oral hygiene
– Impaired immune response
– Lifestyle factors
⢠The disease typically begins around puberty and may affect the molars and incisors (front teeth) first. Unlike the more common form of periodontitis seen in adults, individuals with juvenile periodontitis often have minimal plaque and tartar buildup, making it distinct and challenging to diagnose.
⢠Signs and symptoms of juvenile periodontitis include
– Red, swollen, and bleeding gums
– Bad breath (halitosis)
– Gums that are tender and painful to touch
– Receding gums, making the teeth appear longer
– Formation of deep periodontal pockets
– Loose teeth or teeth that are separating
– Bite changes or malocclusion
– Discomfort or pain while chewing
– Pus between the teeth and gums
⢠If the disease is discovered at a very early stage, treatment can include subgingival scaling and root planing in conjunction with antibiotic therapy. If conservative treatment does not result in a resolution of the disease process, the dentist may switch to surgical therapy.
⢠Surgical treatment would involve flap elevation of the affected areas, followed by thorough root debridement.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 371 -
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
A 7 years old patient with pain in the left lower side shows many caries teeth and not able to detect which tooth is causing the pain. How will you confirm your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
X-rayOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Percussion test – Percussion test cannot be used in pediatric patients because it is difficult to get periodontal response due to resorption of deciduous roots, and there will be furcal involvement in long standing inflammation of deciduous tooth unlike in the apical area as in permanent teeth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Radiographs should follow a careful clinical examination.
⢠Performing bitewing radiographs is necessary to assess the depth of the caries,the morphology of the pulp chamber, the height of the pulp horns, the integrity and depth of restorations, and the level of bone support.
⢠Bitewing views can also demonstrate the presence of a calcified bridge in the pulp chamber, indicating the formation of tertiary dentin by a vital pulp in response to caries or pulp treatment.
⢠On each periapical radiograph, inspection of the PDL continuity should be done to diagnose inflammatory and resorptive lesions.
⢠As in primary teeth, sensibility tests,sometimes called vitality or pulp tests, such as thermal and EPT have limited reliability in young permanent teeth, and do not
reflect the extent of pulp inflammation.
⢠Cavity test is not practical in a pedo patient.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 484Incorrect
ANSWER
X-rayOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Percussion test – Percussion test cannot be used in pediatric patients because it is difficult to get periodontal response due to resorption of deciduous roots, and there will be furcal involvement in long standing inflammation of deciduous tooth unlike in the apical area as in permanent teeth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Radiographs should follow a careful clinical examination.
⢠Performing bitewing radiographs is necessary to assess the depth of the caries,the morphology of the pulp chamber, the height of the pulp horns, the integrity and depth of restorations, and the level of bone support.
⢠Bitewing views can also demonstrate the presence of a calcified bridge in the pulp chamber, indicating the formation of tertiary dentin by a vital pulp in response to caries or pulp treatment.
⢠On each periapical radiograph, inspection of the PDL continuity should be done to diagnose inflammatory and resorptive lesions.
⢠As in primary teeth, sensibility tests,sometimes called vitality or pulp tests, such as thermal and EPT have limited reliability in young permanent teeth, and do not
reflect the extent of pulp inflammation.
⢠Cavity test is not practical in a pedo patient.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 484 -
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
Which of the following is the critical factor that determine the severity of oral habit in a child?
Correct
ANSWER
DurationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The types of dental changes that a digit habit may cause vary with
– The amount of force applied to the teeth or force magnitude.
– How the digit is positioned in the mouth or force direction
– How much time does the child engage in the habit or frequency in hours per day, and
– How long the habit persists, or duration in months or years.
⢠Thumb and finger habits make up the majority of oral habits.
⢠It is the duration of time sucking in months and years that probably plays the most critical role in tooth movement caused by a digit habit.
⢠The most frequently reported dental outcomes of an active digit habit are the following
1. Posterior crossbite
2. Anterior open bite
3. Increased overjetREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 386Incorrect
ANSWER
DurationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The types of dental changes that a digit habit may cause vary with
– The amount of force applied to the teeth or force magnitude.
– How the digit is positioned in the mouth or force direction
– How much time does the child engage in the habit or frequency in hours per day, and
– How long the habit persists, or duration in months or years.
⢠Thumb and finger habits make up the majority of oral habits.
⢠It is the duration of time sucking in months and years that probably plays the most critical role in tooth movement caused by a digit habit.
⢠The most frequently reported dental outcomes of an active digit habit are the following
1. Posterior crossbite
2. Anterior open bite
3. Increased overjetREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 386 -
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
Dull sound can be heard while percussion in which type of injury?
Correct
ANSWER
SubluxationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Luxation or displacement injuries are the most common types of injuries to primary teeth treated in the dental office.
⢠These injuries damage supporting teeth structures, including the periodontal ligament and the alveolar bone.
⢠The PDL is the physiologic hammock that supports the tooth in its socket.
⢠Maintaining its vitality is the primary objective in the management of all luxation injuries.
⢠Several types of luxation injury occur.
1. Concussion – The tooth is not mobile and is not displaced. The PDL absorbs the injury and is inflamed, which leaves the tooth tender to biting pressure and percussion. The percussion sound is normal.
2. Subluxation – The tooth is loosened but is not displaced from its socket. Percussion produces a dull sound.
3. Intrusion – The tooth is driven into its socket. This compresses the PDL and commonly causes a crushing fracture of the alveolar socket. Percussion produces a metallic sound.
4. Extrusion – This is a central dislocation of the tooth from its socket. The PDL is usually torn in this injury. Percussion produces a dull sound.
5. Lateral luxation – The tooth is displaced in a labial, lingual, or lateral direction. The PDL is torn, and contusion or fracture of the supporting alveolar bone occurs. percussion produces a metallic sound.
6. Avulsion – The tooth is completely displaced from the alveolus. The PDL is severed, and fractures of the alveolus may occurREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 228Incorrect
ANSWER
SubluxationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Luxation or displacement injuries are the most common types of injuries to primary teeth treated in the dental office.
⢠These injuries damage supporting teeth structures, including the periodontal ligament and the alveolar bone.
⢠The PDL is the physiologic hammock that supports the tooth in its socket.
⢠Maintaining its vitality is the primary objective in the management of all luxation injuries.
⢠Several types of luxation injury occur.
1. Concussion – The tooth is not mobile and is not displaced. The PDL absorbs the injury and is inflamed, which leaves the tooth tender to biting pressure and percussion. The percussion sound is normal.
2. Subluxation – The tooth is loosened but is not displaced from its socket. Percussion produces a dull sound.
3. Intrusion – The tooth is driven into its socket. This compresses the PDL and commonly causes a crushing fracture of the alveolar socket. Percussion produces a metallic sound.
4. Extrusion – This is a central dislocation of the tooth from its socket. The PDL is usually torn in this injury. Percussion produces a dull sound.
5. Lateral luxation – The tooth is displaced in a labial, lingual, or lateral direction. The PDL is torn, and contusion or fracture of the supporting alveolar bone occurs. percussion produces a metallic sound.
6. Avulsion – The tooth is completely displaced from the alveolus. The PDL is severed, and fractures of the alveolus may occurREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 228 -
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
Child during dental treatment shows tachycardia, sweating and speech problem. What will be your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Vasovagal shockOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Insulin shock – If a diabetic patient, who appears well, has a sudden deterioration in cognition or loss of consciousness in the dental office, the condition is more likely to be due to acute hypoglycemia or insulin shock.
⢠Adrenal crisis – usually seen in patients on steroid therapy, symptoms include sweating tachycardia restlessness.SYNOPSIS
⢠Tachycardia, sweating, and speech problems are symptoms of vasovagal shock.
⢠Syncope is the most common medical emergency in the dental office.
⢠Vasodepressor syncope, or the simple faint, is the most common type of syncope and causes loss of consciousness in the dental office.
⢠Management consists of positioning the patient supine, lowering the head, and raising the legs above the heart to augment blood flow to the brain by gravity.
⢠Cardiac output will be increased and adequate cerebral perfusion will be restored.
⢠Administration of oxygen is appropriate in any emergency involving a decrease in brain perfusion.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 156Incorrect
ANSWER
Vasovagal shockOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Insulin shock – If a diabetic patient, who appears well, has a sudden deterioration in cognition or loss of consciousness in the dental office, the condition is more likely to be due to acute hypoglycemia or insulin shock.
⢠Adrenal crisis – usually seen in patients on steroid therapy, symptoms include sweating tachycardia restlessness.SYNOPSIS
⢠Tachycardia, sweating, and speech problems are symptoms of vasovagal shock.
⢠Syncope is the most common medical emergency in the dental office.
⢠Vasodepressor syncope, or the simple faint, is the most common type of syncope and causes loss of consciousness in the dental office.
⢠Management consists of positioning the patient supine, lowering the head, and raising the legs above the heart to augment blood flow to the brain by gravity.
⢠Cardiac output will be increased and adequate cerebral perfusion will be restored.
⢠Administration of oxygen is appropriate in any emergency involving a decrease in brain perfusion.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 156 -
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
A 5-year-old child presents with upper lip swelling following minor trauma but teeth are non-mobile and vital. Management?
Correct
ANSWER
Anti Inflammatory drugs and follow upOTHER OPTIONS
ā Anti-inflammatory drugs and splinting – Splinting is unnecessary since teeth are non-mobile.
ā Rigid splinting – Contraindicated when teeth show no mobility or displacement.
ā Follow-up – Incomplete; supportive medication is needed for lip swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā Non-mobile vital teeth indicate simple concussion or soft tissue trauma.
ā Management is supportive using anti-inflammatory drugs for lip swelling.
ā Regular follow-up ensures no secondary pulpal necrosis develops over time.REFERENCE
Andreasen’s Textbook and Colour Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth, 5th Edition, Chapter 10Incorrect
ANSWER
Anti Inflammatory drugs and follow upOTHER OPTIONS
ā Anti-inflammatory drugs and splinting – Splinting is unnecessary since teeth are non-mobile.
ā Rigid splinting – Contraindicated when teeth show no mobility or displacement.
ā Follow-up – Incomplete; supportive medication is needed for lip swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā Non-mobile vital teeth indicate simple concussion or soft tissue trauma.
ā Management is supportive using anti-inflammatory drugs for lip swelling.
ā Regular follow-up ensures no secondary pulpal necrosis develops over time.REFERENCE
Andreasen’s Textbook and Colour Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth, 5th Edition, Chapter 10 -
Question 109 of 150
109. Question
Patient presents with a suspicious soft tissue lesion on the buccal mucosa. Management?
Correct
ANSWER
Send the patient to oral surgeon for biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excision – Biopsy or histopathology must precede definitive extensive excision.
ā No need for treatment – Suspicious lesions must not be ignored.
ā Pharmacological management – Inappropriate without definitive histopathological diagnosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Unexplained or suspicious mucosal lesions require definitive histological examination.
ā Referring to an oral surgeon for biopsy ensures an accurate diagnosis.
ā Prevents misdiagnosis or delayed treatment of malignant lesions.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 19Incorrect
ANSWER
Send the patient to oral surgeon for biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excision – Biopsy or histopathology must precede definitive extensive excision.
ā No need for treatment – Suspicious lesions must not be ignored.
ā Pharmacological management – Inappropriate without definitive histopathological diagnosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Unexplained or suspicious mucosal lesions require definitive histological examination.
ā Referring to an oral surgeon for biopsy ensures an accurate diagnosis.
ā Prevents misdiagnosis or delayed treatment of malignant lesions.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 19 -
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
Which virus reactivation is associated with oral hairy leukoplakia or mucosal lesions in extreme immunocompromised states?
Correct
ANSWER
Epstein barr virusOTHER OPTIONS
ā Cytomegalovirus – Associated with deep mucosal ulcerations in immunocompromised patients.
ā Human herpesvirus 7 – Associated with roseola infantum, not oral hairy leukoplakia.
ā HIV – The underlying predisposing disease or retrovirus, but EBV reactivation directly causes the lesion itself.SYNOPSIS
ā Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV, or HHV-4) reactivates during severe immunosuppression.
ā Directly causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia on the lateral borders of the tongue.
ā Appears as non-removable white hyperkeratotic striations.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 7Incorrect
ANSWER
Epstein barr virusOTHER OPTIONS
ā Cytomegalovirus – Associated with deep mucosal ulcerations in immunocompromised patients.
ā Human herpesvirus 7 – Associated with roseola infantum, not oral hairy leukoplakia.
ā HIV – The underlying predisposing disease or retrovirus, but EBV reactivation directly causes the lesion itself.SYNOPSIS
ā Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV, or HHV-4) reactivates during severe immunosuppression.
ā Directly causes Oral Hairy Leukoplakia on the lateral borders of the tongue.
ā Appears as non-removable white hyperkeratotic striations.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition, Chapter 7 -
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
Which type of bone graft is used for a two-walled defect?
Correct
ANSWER
Cortical decalcified freeze dried bone graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠If the defect is lined by only two walls of bone, the defect is a two-wall defect.
⢠Cortical decalcified freeze-dried bone allograft is used for 2 walled osseous defects
⢠Cortical bone contains pure cortex-dense bone, hence it is used for weight or force-bearing areas
⢠Freeze drying decreases antigenicity and facilitates long-term storage
⢠Decalcifying improves osteostimulatory properties
⢠Cancellous bone provides more open spaces for faster revascularisation, but it lacks mechanical strength, particularly when used for non-weight or non-force-bearing areasREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Cortical decalcified freeze dried bone graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠If the defect is lined by only two walls of bone, the defect is a two-wall defect.
⢠Cortical decalcified freeze-dried bone allograft is used for 2 walled osseous defects
⢠Cortical bone contains pure cortex-dense bone, hence it is used for weight or force-bearing areas
⢠Freeze drying decreases antigenicity and facilitates long-term storage
⢠Decalcifying improves osteostimulatory properties
⢠Cancellous bone provides more open spaces for faster revascularisation, but it lacks mechanical strength, particularly when used for non-weight or non-force-bearing areasREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
Which among the following has a high rate of recurrence?
Correct
ANSWER
OKCOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Odontogenic keratocyst OKC) is the cyst arising from the cell rests of the dental lamina.
⢠It can occur anywhere in the jaw but is commonly seen in the posterior part of the mandible.
⢠Radiographically, most OKCs are unilocular when presented at the periapex and can be mistaken for a radicular or lateral periodontal cyst.
⢠The exact reason for the high recurrence rate of OKC has not been established, it is thought to be due to incomplete removal of the primary lesion with thin epithelial lining, the presence of satellite cysts, and epithelial remnants.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
OKCOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Odontogenic keratocyst OKC) is the cyst arising from the cell rests of the dental lamina.
⢠It can occur anywhere in the jaw but is commonly seen in the posterior part of the mandible.
⢠Radiographically, most OKCs are unilocular when presented at the periapex and can be mistaken for a radicular or lateral periodontal cyst.
⢠The exact reason for the high recurrence rate of OKC has not been established, it is thought to be due to incomplete removal of the primary lesion with thin epithelial lining, the presence of satellite cysts, and epithelial remnants.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 113 of 150
113. Question

A panoramic image of a girl at mixed dentition stage is given. Radiograph shows ghost-like teeth. Ghost teeth are seen in which condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Regional OdontoDysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Regional odontodysplasia RO) is an uncommon, developmental anomaly of the dental hard tissues that affects ectodermal and mesodermal dental components with characteristic clinical and radiographic findings.
⢠The clinical manifestations of odontodysplasia are
– Localized occurrence within a particular segment in either or both dentitions
– Hypocalcification and hypoplasia of the enamel and dentin
– Discolored, small, and distorted affected teeth with various surface markings e.g., irregular contour with surface pits and grooves and yellowish or brownish discoloration)
– Delayed or failed eruption due to arrested root formation.
⢠The radiographic features have consistently demonstrated
– Thin and defective layers of enamel and dentin, resulting in a faint, fuzzy outline, creating a ghost-like appearance.
– The pulp chambers and canals are enlarged, and the roots appear short and stubby with open apices.
– True and false denticles may be seen in the pulp of affected teeth as well as adjacent, clinically normal teeth.REFERENCE
Ghost teeth- Regional odontodysplasia of maxillary first molar associated with eruption disorders -Journal of Pharmacy and Bioallied SciencesIncorrect
ANSWER
Regional OdontoDysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Regional odontodysplasia RO) is an uncommon, developmental anomaly of the dental hard tissues that affects ectodermal and mesodermal dental components with characteristic clinical and radiographic findings.
⢠The clinical manifestations of odontodysplasia are
– Localized occurrence within a particular segment in either or both dentitions
– Hypocalcification and hypoplasia of the enamel and dentin
– Discolored, small, and distorted affected teeth with various surface markings e.g., irregular contour with surface pits and grooves and yellowish or brownish discoloration)
– Delayed or failed eruption due to arrested root formation.
⢠The radiographic features have consistently demonstrated
– Thin and defective layers of enamel and dentin, resulting in a faint, fuzzy outline, creating a ghost-like appearance.
– The pulp chambers and canals are enlarged, and the roots appear short and stubby with open apices.
– True and false denticles may be seen in the pulp of affected teeth as well as adjacent, clinically normal teeth.REFERENCE
Ghost teeth- Regional odontodysplasia of maxillary first molar associated with eruption disorders -Journal of Pharmacy and Bioallied Sciences -
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
A lateral sliding flap is placed over a root surface that has been denuded for 6 years. Which of the following tissue relationships is most likely to occur?
Correct
ANSWER
Epithelium adjacent to the previously denuded root surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A lateral sliding flap is used for root coverage, typically in cases of gingival recession.
⢠In a root surface denuded for 6 years, significant loss of periodontal ligament (PDL) and cementum has likely occurred.
⢠True regeneration (new PDL fibers inserted into new cementum) is unlikely because
– The root surface has been exposed for an extended period.
– Natural cementogenesis and fiber reattachment do not readily occur in such cases.
– Instead, the junctional epithelium is likely to form along the previously exposed root surface, leading to a long junctional epithelium, which is a common outcome in periodontal wound healing.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 63Incorrect
ANSWER
Epithelium adjacent to the previously denuded root surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A lateral sliding flap is used for root coverage, typically in cases of gingival recession.
⢠In a root surface denuded for 6 years, significant loss of periodontal ligament (PDL) and cementum has likely occurred.
⢠True regeneration (new PDL fibers inserted into new cementum) is unlikely because
– The root surface has been exposed for an extended period.
– Natural cementogenesis and fiber reattachment do not readily occur in such cases.
– Instead, the junctional epithelium is likely to form along the previously exposed root surface, leading to a long junctional epithelium, which is a common outcome in periodontal wound healing.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 63 -
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
A patient returned after endodontic treatment followed by post and core management complaints of spontaneous dull pain on mastication shows mild mobility of tooth . You suspects a vertical root fracture. Which is the best radiographic technique to confirm a vertical root fracture?
Correct
ANSWER
CBCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bitewing – For interproximal lesions
⢠Occlusal – Diagnosis of cysts and canine impactionsSYNOPSIS
⢠Periapical radiographs PRs) are the most used imaging modalities.
⢠However, the X-ray beam needs to be set at the same angle of the root fracture line in order to become visible.
⢠On the other hand, cone beam CT CBCT) images are tridimensional exams, presenting the entire volume for that patient, without superimposing anatomic structures over the teeth.
⢠This exam gives a perception of dimension and allows the maxillofacial radiologist MFR) to perform a complete diagnosis of pathologies, facial fractures, surgical planning and root fracturesREFERENCE
Radiographic diagnosis of root fractures- a systematic review, meta-analyses and sources of heterogeneity – British Institute of Radiology – Dentomaxillofacial RadiologyIncorrect
ANSWER
CBCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bitewing – For interproximal lesions
⢠Occlusal – Diagnosis of cysts and canine impactionsSYNOPSIS
⢠Periapical radiographs PRs) are the most used imaging modalities.
⢠However, the X-ray beam needs to be set at the same angle of the root fracture line in order to become visible.
⢠On the other hand, cone beam CT CBCT) images are tridimensional exams, presenting the entire volume for that patient, without superimposing anatomic structures over the teeth.
⢠This exam gives a perception of dimension and allows the maxillofacial radiologist MFR) to perform a complete diagnosis of pathologies, facial fractures, surgical planning and root fracturesREFERENCE
Radiographic diagnosis of root fractures- a systematic review, meta-analyses and sources of heterogeneity – British Institute of Radiology – Dentomaxillofacial Radiology -
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
A patient underwent orthodontic fixed applaince therapy one year back shows large radiolucent area at the midroot region of tooth 11. What will be the treatment plan?
Correct
ANSWER
RCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Root hemisection is sectioning of multi-rooted teeth with its crown portion, with the loss of periodontal attachment and is performed to retain the original tooth structure and attain the fixed prosthodontic prosthesis.
ā¢Apexification- Its a procedure of inducing root end closure of an incompletely formed non vital permanent tooth by removing the coronal and non vital radicular tissue just short of the root end and placing a biocompatible agent such as CaOH in the canals for 2 weeks to 1month to disinfect the canal space and root end closure is accomplished with an apical barrier such as MTASYNOPSIS
⢠Midroot radiolucency during Orthodontic treatment may be due to Internal Root Resorption
⢠Internal resorption  originates in a vital pulp, and the pulp must remain vital for the resorption to be progressive. Teeth with internal resorption usually are asymptomatic and often identified radiographically. Clinically, internal resorption teeth sometimes can be identified when resorption is in the coronal area and the tooth takes on a pink hue. Radiographically, internal resorption usually is round or oval-shaped and centered on the root canal, and the canal is not visible through the resorption area. Also, the defect for internal resorption is a widening of the canal.
⢠Treatment Perspectives
– In general, there are three treatment options for internal resorption
1. No treatment with eventual extraction if and when the tooth becomes symptomatic.
2. Immediate extraction.
3. Saving it by doing internal treatment that include conventional root canal treatment.
⢠Treatment must be based on prognosis of the tooth.
– If the resorption is contained within the root with no perforation, good prognosis for treatment with conventional endodontic treatment can be achieved.
– If the resorption perforates the root the prognosis is reduced.
– If the resorption is in the cervical area of the tooth, long term predictability of the tooth needs to be considered from a structural point, especially for anterior teeth. If the tooth is restorable and has a reasonable prognosis, root canal treatment is the choice.REFERENCE
Management of Internal Root Resorption in Orthodontics- Turkish Journal of Orthodontics- November 2016Incorrect
ANSWER
RCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Root hemisection is sectioning of multi-rooted teeth with its crown portion, with the loss of periodontal attachment and is performed to retain the original tooth structure and attain the fixed prosthodontic prosthesis.
ā¢Apexification- Its a procedure of inducing root end closure of an incompletely formed non vital permanent tooth by removing the coronal and non vital radicular tissue just short of the root end and placing a biocompatible agent such as CaOH in the canals for 2 weeks to 1month to disinfect the canal space and root end closure is accomplished with an apical barrier such as MTASYNOPSIS
⢠Midroot radiolucency during Orthodontic treatment may be due to Internal Root Resorption
⢠Internal resorption  originates in a vital pulp, and the pulp must remain vital for the resorption to be progressive. Teeth with internal resorption usually are asymptomatic and often identified radiographically. Clinically, internal resorption teeth sometimes can be identified when resorption is in the coronal area and the tooth takes on a pink hue. Radiographically, internal resorption usually is round or oval-shaped and centered on the root canal, and the canal is not visible through the resorption area. Also, the defect for internal resorption is a widening of the canal.
⢠Treatment Perspectives
– In general, there are three treatment options for internal resorption
1. No treatment with eventual extraction if and when the tooth becomes symptomatic.
2. Immediate extraction.
3. Saving it by doing internal treatment that include conventional root canal treatment.
⢠Treatment must be based on prognosis of the tooth.
– If the resorption is contained within the root with no perforation, good prognosis for treatment with conventional endodontic treatment can be achieved.
– If the resorption perforates the root the prognosis is reduced.
– If the resorption is in the cervical area of the tooth, long term predictability of the tooth needs to be considered from a structural point, especially for anterior teeth. If the tooth is restorable and has a reasonable prognosis, root canal treatment is the choice.REFERENCE
Management of Internal Root Resorption in Orthodontics- Turkish Journal of Orthodontics- November 2016 -
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
An 8 year old child comes to the clinic with 1 year old fractured central incisor. How will you manage this case?
Correct
ANSWER
ApexificationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠RCT – Later required following apexification once the root end is closed.
⢠DPC – done in cases with minute pulp exposure within short period of time.
⢠IPC – done in cases with deep dentinal caries that doesn’t reach pulp.SYNOPSIS
⢠Apexification is the treatment of choice for non vital teeth with open apex and pulp exposure.
⢠Apexification is a method of treatment for immature permanent teeth in which root growth and development cease due to pulp necrosis.
⢠Its purpose is to induce root end closure with no canal wall thickening or continuous root lengthening.
⢠It can be achieved in two ways
1) As a long-term procedure use calcium hydroxide dressing to allow the formation of a biological hard tissue barrier.
2) As a short-term, more recent procedure, creating an artificial apical plug of MTA or other bioceramic material.
⢠Apexification is most often performed in incisors that lost vitality because of traumatic injury, after carious exposures, and in teeth with anatomic variations such as dens invaginatus with an immature root.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 489Incorrect
ANSWER
ApexificationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠RCT – Later required following apexification once the root end is closed.
⢠DPC – done in cases with minute pulp exposure within short period of time.
⢠IPC – done in cases with deep dentinal caries that doesn’t reach pulp.SYNOPSIS
⢠Apexification is the treatment of choice for non vital teeth with open apex and pulp exposure.
⢠Apexification is a method of treatment for immature permanent teeth in which root growth and development cease due to pulp necrosis.
⢠Its purpose is to induce root end closure with no canal wall thickening or continuous root lengthening.
⢠It can be achieved in two ways
1) As a long-term procedure use calcium hydroxide dressing to allow the formation of a biological hard tissue barrier.
2) As a short-term, more recent procedure, creating an artificial apical plug of MTA or other bioceramic material.
⢠Apexification is most often performed in incisors that lost vitality because of traumatic injury, after carious exposures, and in teeth with anatomic variations such as dens invaginatus with an immature root.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 489 -
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
GIC restoration done for a patient can be polished by?
Correct
ANSWER
All are correctOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Finishing and polishing of GIC is done by the following methods
1. Best surface finish obtained if cement is allowed to set under matrix.
2. Carving the cement external to the cavity margins with sharp knives or scalers.
3. Finest abrasive should be used to minimize tearing.
4. Finishing with rotary instruments should be done at a subsequent visit.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
All are correctOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Finishing and polishing of GIC is done by the following methods
1. Best surface finish obtained if cement is allowed to set under matrix.
2. Carving the cement external to the cavity margins with sharp knives or scalers.
3. Finest abrasive should be used to minimize tearing.
4. Finishing with rotary instruments should be done at a subsequent visit.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental Materials -
Question 119 of 150
119. Question
A 10 year old child comes to your clinic after falling down from stairs. During examination you have found that her teeth shows lateral luxation. Which is the best treatment option?
Correct
ANSWER
Flexible fixationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral luxation is the displacement of the tooth in a direction other than axially.
⢠The periodontal ligament is torn and contusion or fracture of the supporting alveolar bone occurs.
⢠Clinical findings reveal that a tooth is displaced laterally with the crown usually in a palatal or lingual direction and may be locked firmly into this new position. The tooth usually is not mobile or tender to touch.
⢠Radiographic findings reveal an increase in periodontal ligament space and displacement of the apex toward or through the labial bone plate.
Treatment objectives
⢠Primary teeth
– To allow passive or spontaneous re-positioning if there is no occlusal interference.
– When there is occlusal interference, the tooth can be gently repositioned or slightly reduced if the interference is minor.
– When the injury is severe or the tooth is nearing exfoliation, extraction is the treatment of choice.
⢠Permanent teeth
– To reposition as soon as possible and then stabilize the tooth in its anatomically correct position to optimize healing of the periodontal ligament and neurovascular supply while maintaining esthetic and functional integrity.
– Repositioning of the tooth is done with digital pressure and little force. A flexible splint allows functional movement, unlike a rigid splint where the injured teeth are immobilized.
– A displaced tooth may need to be extruded to free itself from the apical lock in the cortical bone plate. Splinting an additional 2 to 4 weeks may be needed with the breakdown of marginal bone.
⢠General prognosis – Primary teeth requiring repositioning have an increased risk of developing pulp necrosis compared to teeth that are left to re-erupt spontaneously.
⢠In mature permanent teeth with closed apices, pulp necrosis, and pulp canal obliteration are common healing complications while progressive root resorption is less likely to occur.REFERENCE
Splinting of teeth following trauma a review and a new splinting recommendation B KahlerIncorrect
ANSWER
Flexible fixationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral luxation is the displacement of the tooth in a direction other than axially.
⢠The periodontal ligament is torn and contusion or fracture of the supporting alveolar bone occurs.
⢠Clinical findings reveal that a tooth is displaced laterally with the crown usually in a palatal or lingual direction and may be locked firmly into this new position. The tooth usually is not mobile or tender to touch.
⢠Radiographic findings reveal an increase in periodontal ligament space and displacement of the apex toward or through the labial bone plate.
Treatment objectives
⢠Primary teeth
– To allow passive or spontaneous re-positioning if there is no occlusal interference.
– When there is occlusal interference, the tooth can be gently repositioned or slightly reduced if the interference is minor.
– When the injury is severe or the tooth is nearing exfoliation, extraction is the treatment of choice.
⢠Permanent teeth
– To reposition as soon as possible and then stabilize the tooth in its anatomically correct position to optimize healing of the periodontal ligament and neurovascular supply while maintaining esthetic and functional integrity.
– Repositioning of the tooth is done with digital pressure and little force. A flexible splint allows functional movement, unlike a rigid splint where the injured teeth are immobilized.
– A displaced tooth may need to be extruded to free itself from the apical lock in the cortical bone plate. Splinting an additional 2 to 4 weeks may be needed with the breakdown of marginal bone.
⢠General prognosis – Primary teeth requiring repositioning have an increased risk of developing pulp necrosis compared to teeth that are left to re-erupt spontaneously.
⢠In mature permanent teeth with closed apices, pulp necrosis, and pulp canal obliteration are common healing complications while progressive root resorption is less likely to occur.REFERENCE
Splinting of teeth following trauma a review and a new splinting recommendation B Kahler -
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
Recommended rate of breathing in a child less than 8 years of age?
Correct
ANSWER
Once every 8 secsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The rate of respiration in different ages is as follows
⢠Newborn- 30-80 per minute
⢠1 year- 20-40 per minute
⢠3 years-20-30 per minute
⢠6 years-16-22 per minute
⢠10 years-16-20 per minute
⢠17 years- 12-20 per minuteREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 92Incorrect
ANSWER
Once every 8 secsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The rate of respiration in different ages is as follows
⢠Newborn- 30-80 per minute
⢠1 year- 20-40 per minute
⢠3 years-20-30 per minute
⢠6 years-16-22 per minute
⢠10 years-16-20 per minute
⢠17 years- 12-20 per minuteREFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 92 -
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
A patient presented with a complaint of a tooth that has pain with sweet and cold that relieves after removal of stimulus . There is no sensitivity to heat and no pain on percussion . Identify the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Irreversible pulpitis – Sensitive to heat and percussion
⢠Acute periodontal disease – Percussion test will be positive
⢠Dentinal hypersensitivity – Short intense pain while having hot or cold food stuffsSYNOPSIS
⢠Pulpitis is an inflammation of the pulp.
⢠It usually happens when thereās an irritation inside a tooth due to things such as grinding or a cavity
⢠There are two types of pulpitis.
– Reversible pulpitis –Ā In this early stage, pulpitis is reversible if treated
– Irreversible pulpitis – Ā In this stage, the inflammation is more advanced and the tooth canāt recover. The pulp tissue will eventually die. This is pulp necrosis.
⢠Symptoms of reversible pulpitis include
– No pain when your dentist taps the tooth.
– No sensitivity to heat.
– Sensitivity to cold or sweets that goes away quickly.
⢠For reversible pulpitis, removal of the the cause can reverse the condition.
⢠Often, this involves the removal of the decay and sealing the tooth with a normal filling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic PracticeIncorrect
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Irreversible pulpitis – Sensitive to heat and percussion
⢠Acute periodontal disease – Percussion test will be positive
⢠Dentinal hypersensitivity – Short intense pain while having hot or cold food stuffsSYNOPSIS
⢠Pulpitis is an inflammation of the pulp.
⢠It usually happens when thereās an irritation inside a tooth due to things such as grinding or a cavity
⢠There are two types of pulpitis.
– Reversible pulpitis –Ā In this early stage, pulpitis is reversible if treated
– Irreversible pulpitis – Ā In this stage, the inflammation is more advanced and the tooth canāt recover. The pulp tissue will eventually die. This is pulp necrosis.
⢠Symptoms of reversible pulpitis include
– No pain when your dentist taps the tooth.
– No sensitivity to heat.
– Sensitivity to cold or sweets that goes away quickly.
⢠For reversible pulpitis, removal of the the cause can reverse the condition.
⢠Often, this involves the removal of the decay and sealing the tooth with a normal filling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practice -
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
A patient reported to dentist with complaint of severe pain. On examination its found a tooth with severe periradicular pain and necrotic pulp. On radiographic examination the findings are broken lamina dura and a circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The periradicular diagnosis is?
Correct
ANSWER
Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitisĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠An acute exacerbation of a chronic periapical lesion is called phoenix abscess.
⢠It is a dental abscess that can occur immediately following root canal treatment.
⢠Another cause is due to untreated necrotic pulp chronic apical periodontitis).
⢠It is also the result of inadequate debridement during the endodontic procedure.
⢠Risk of occurrence of a phoenix abscess is minimized by correct identification and instrumentation of the entire root canal ensuring no missed anatomy.
⢠Clinical Features
– Pain Loss of Vitality
– Tender to Touch
– Mobility.
⢠Radiographically there will be a periapical lesion associated with the tooth.
⢠This lesion is normally existent prior to this episode.
⢠Widened periodontal ligament PDL) space is visible.
⢠For most situations urgent treatment is required to eliminate the pain and swelling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic practiceIncorrect
ANSWER
Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitisĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠An acute exacerbation of a chronic periapical lesion is called phoenix abscess.
⢠It is a dental abscess that can occur immediately following root canal treatment.
⢠Another cause is due to untreated necrotic pulp chronic apical periodontitis).
⢠It is also the result of inadequate debridement during the endodontic procedure.
⢠Risk of occurrence of a phoenix abscess is minimized by correct identification and instrumentation of the entire root canal ensuring no missed anatomy.
⢠Clinical Features
– Pain Loss of Vitality
– Tender to Touch
– Mobility.
⢠Radiographically there will be a periapical lesion associated with the tooth.
⢠This lesion is normally existent prior to this episode.
⢠Widened periodontal ligament PDL) space is visible.
⢠For most situations urgent treatment is required to eliminate the pain and swelling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic practice -
Question 123 of 150
123. Question
A 26-year-old pregnant lady came to your clinic with a chief complaint of pain in relation to the lower right back tooth. On examination, there was a deep carious lesion on 46. You decided to do RCT for the patient. What is the best local anesthesia for pregnant women in the second trimester?
Correct
ANSWER
LidocaineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The second trimester is weeks 14 through 27 in terms of gestational age. The risk of the teratogenic effects of drugs is lower during this period than during the first trimester.
⢠Elective dental treatment has been reported to be relatively safe during this period.
⢠Anesthesia is safer to perform in pregnant women for non-obstetric surgery in the second trimester than in the first or third trimester.Ā
⢠Lidocaine with adrenaline is considered safe in pregnancy.
⢠Vasoconstrictors, mostly epinephrine, are added to lidocaine to reduce the absorption of the local anesthetic, reduce toxicity, and increase the analgesic effects.
⢠Vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine delays the absorption of local anesthetics by the mother, allowing the absorption of lidocaine to gradually occur in the maternal systemic circulation, while also allowing blood levels of lidocaine to gradually increase. The local anesthetic is transferred to the fetus slowly, and its margin of safety is also increased.REFERENCE
Use of local anesthetics for dental treatment during pregnancy, safety for parturient -Journal of Dental Anesthesia and Pain MedicineIncorrect
ANSWER
LidocaineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The second trimester is weeks 14 through 27 in terms of gestational age. The risk of the teratogenic effects of drugs is lower during this period than during the first trimester.
⢠Elective dental treatment has been reported to be relatively safe during this period.
⢠Anesthesia is safer to perform in pregnant women for non-obstetric surgery in the second trimester than in the first or third trimester.Ā
⢠Lidocaine with adrenaline is considered safe in pregnancy.
⢠Vasoconstrictors, mostly epinephrine, are added to lidocaine to reduce the absorption of the local anesthetic, reduce toxicity, and increase the analgesic effects.
⢠Vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine delays the absorption of local anesthetics by the mother, allowing the absorption of lidocaine to gradually occur in the maternal systemic circulation, while also allowing blood levels of lidocaine to gradually increase. The local anesthetic is transferred to the fetus slowly, and its margin of safety is also increased.REFERENCE
Use of local anesthetics for dental treatment during pregnancy, safety for parturient -Journal of Dental Anesthesia and Pain Medicine -
Question 124 of 150
124. Question
Which is the cellular layer that is absent in alveolar mucosa but present in attached gingival mucosa?
Correct
ANSWER
Stratum corneumOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Alveolar mucosaĀ
– The area of tissue beyond the mucogingival junction.
– It seems less firmly attached and redder than the attached gingiva.Ā
– It is non-keratinized and provides a softer and more flexible area for the movement of the cheeks and lips.
⢠Attached gingivaĀ
– This tissue is adjacent to the free gingiva
– It is keratinized and firmly attached to the bone structure.
– It can range from 3-12Ā mm in height.
⢠The keratinized epithelium possesses a stratum corneum layer
⢠The stratum corneum is made up of flattened non-viable, non-nucleated epithelial cells containing keratin which is absent in non-keratinized epitheliumREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Stratum corneumOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Alveolar mucosaĀ
– The area of tissue beyond the mucogingival junction.
– It seems less firmly attached and redder than the attached gingiva.Ā
– It is non-keratinized and provides a softer and more flexible area for the movement of the cheeks and lips.
⢠Attached gingivaĀ
– This tissue is adjacent to the free gingiva
– It is keratinized and firmly attached to the bone structure.
– It can range from 3-12Ā mm in height.
⢠The keratinized epithelium possesses a stratum corneum layer
⢠The stratum corneum is made up of flattened non-viable, non-nucleated epithelial cells containing keratin which is absent in non-keratinized epitheliumREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
In a child who suffered from trauma resulting in complete avulsion, what will be the minimum time within which the tooth should be replanted for the more successful result?
Correct
Answer
Within 20 minutesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Important 2020 IADT guidelines
⢠Immediate replantation – Best prognosis PDL cells are most likely viable when replanted immediately or within approximately 15 minutes.
⢠Extra-oral dry time <60 minutes - PDL cells may still be viable but are compromised. If immediate replantation is not possible, place the tooth promptly in a suitable storage medium such as milk or HBSS, saliva or saline are alternatives.
⢠Extra-oral dry time >60 minutes – PDL cells are likely non-viable, irrespective of whether the tooth was subsequently stored in a medium. Nevertheless, replantation of a permanent tooth is still generally recommended, because it maintains the tooth and alveolar bone and preserves future treatment options.
⢠The 2020 IADT guideline notes that most PDL cells become non-viable after about 30 minutes of extra-alveolar dry time, highlighting the importance of immediate replantation.REFERENCE
Replantation of immature avulsed teeth with extra-oral dry storage – International Journal of Clinical Pediatric DentistryIncorrect
Answer
Within 20 minutesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Important 2020 IADT guidelines
⢠Immediate replantation – Best prognosis PDL cells are most likely viable when replanted immediately or within approximately 15 minutes.
⢠Extra-oral dry time <60 minutes - PDL cells may still be viable but are compromised. If immediate replantation is not possible, place the tooth promptly in a suitable storage medium such as milk or HBSS, saliva or saline are alternatives.
⢠Extra-oral dry time >60 minutes – PDL cells are likely non-viable, irrespective of whether the tooth was subsequently stored in a medium. Nevertheless, replantation of a permanent tooth is still generally recommended, because it maintains the tooth and alveolar bone and preserves future treatment options.
⢠The 2020 IADT guideline notes that most PDL cells become non-viable after about 30 minutes of extra-alveolar dry time, highlighting the importance of immediate replantation.REFERENCE
Replantation of immature avulsed teeth with extra-oral dry storage – International Journal of Clinical Pediatric Dentistry -
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
A patient has swelling and acute pericoronitis. He had the same symptoms 2 months ago and took treatment. How will you manage this time?
Correct
ANSWER
Antibiotics and Extraction of the offending toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Pericoronitis is an inflammation of the soft tissue surrounding the partially erupted or impacted mandibular third molars.
⢠Pericoronitis symptoms range from mild to severe and may include bad breath, pus, and facial swelling.
⢠Management of pericoronitis may be done by the following methods
– Irrigation of the affected area to flush out any food particles, bacteria, or other debris.
– Oral antibiotics can help clear up a pericoronitis infection.
– Use of mouthwash that contains chlorhexidine, a topical antiseptic.
– Some cases may recommend removing the gum flap operculum).
– In case of persistent discomfort, extraction of the offending tooth is associated with a faster clinical and biological resolution of the infection.
⢠Thus, when the causative tooth is non-restorable or impacted, it should be extracted without delay.
⢠The timing of the follow-up appointment after prescribing antibiotics may be a factor in lowering the number of complications and improving the outcomes for patients experiencing pain or discomfortREFERENCE
Pericoronitis – Gloria Kwon, Marc Serra.Incorrect
ANSWER
Antibiotics and Extraction of the offending toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Pericoronitis is an inflammation of the soft tissue surrounding the partially erupted or impacted mandibular third molars.
⢠Pericoronitis symptoms range from mild to severe and may include bad breath, pus, and facial swelling.
⢠Management of pericoronitis may be done by the following methods
– Irrigation of the affected area to flush out any food particles, bacteria, or other debris.
– Oral antibiotics can help clear up a pericoronitis infection.
– Use of mouthwash that contains chlorhexidine, a topical antiseptic.
– Some cases may recommend removing the gum flap operculum).
– In case of persistent discomfort, extraction of the offending tooth is associated with a faster clinical and biological resolution of the infection.
⢠Thus, when the causative tooth is non-restorable or impacted, it should be extracted without delay.
⢠The timing of the follow-up appointment after prescribing antibiotics may be a factor in lowering the number of complications and improving the outcomes for patients experiencing pain or discomfortREFERENCE
Pericoronitis – Gloria Kwon, Marc Serra. -
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
A child patient with past history of chickenpox presented with brownish stains on teeth. At what stage of development the teeth would have been affected?
Correct
ANSWER
AppositionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Initiation – Anodontia, hypodontia etc
⢠Histodifferentiation – Cysts or neoplasm
⢠Morphodifferentiation – Anomalies in morphology of teethSYNOPSIS
⢠Systemic postnatal infection e.g. measles, chicken pox, streptococcal infections, scarlet fever) can cause enamel hypoplasia.
⢠The band-like discoloration on the tooth is visualized where the enamel layer has a variable thickness and becomes extrinsically stained after tooth eruption.
⢠Enamel hypoplasia occurs when the special cells that produce dental enamel are disturbed during a particular stage of enamel formation – theĀ matrix formation stage or apposition stageREFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
AppositionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Initiation – Anodontia, hypodontia etc
⢠Histodifferentiation – Cysts or neoplasm
⢠Morphodifferentiation – Anomalies in morphology of teethSYNOPSIS
⢠Systemic postnatal infection e.g. measles, chicken pox, streptococcal infections, scarlet fever) can cause enamel hypoplasia.
⢠The band-like discoloration on the tooth is visualized where the enamel layer has a variable thickness and becomes extrinsically stained after tooth eruption.
⢠Enamel hypoplasia occurs when the special cells that produce dental enamel are disturbed during a particular stage of enamel formation – theĀ matrix formation stage or apposition stageREFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
A dentist accidentally pushed the mandibular third molar tooth towards the bone while extracting it. It might have fallen into which space?
Correct
ANSWER
Submandibular spaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pterygomandibular space -The pterygomandibular space is a fascial space of the head and neck. It is located between the lateral pterygoid muscle and the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible.
⢠Lateral pharyngeal space -The parapharyngeal space, is a potential space in the head and the neck. It has clinical importance in otolaryngology due to parapharyngeal space tumors and parapharyngeal abscesses developing in this area.
⢠Retropharyngeal space -The retropharyngeal space RPS) is an anatomical region that spans from the base of the skull to the mediastinum. Its location is anterior to the prevertebral muscles and posterior to the pharynx and esophagus.SYNOPSIS
⢠Usually, the impacted third molar tooth is indicated for extraction.
⢠Sometimes, it may displace into the lingual pouch or submandibular space during extraction particularly when the lingual cortex is extremely thin.
⢠It may further traverse into pharyngeal spaces if not managed by some expert.
⢠The intraoral approach under local anesthesia is the simplest and least invasive technique for the removal of displaced roots from the lingual pouch.REFERENCE
Retrieval of mandibular third molar tooth accidentally displaced in submandibular space – Ravinder SolankiIncorrect
ANSWER
Submandibular spaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pterygomandibular space -The pterygomandibular space is a fascial space of the head and neck. It is located between the lateral pterygoid muscle and the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible.
⢠Lateral pharyngeal space -The parapharyngeal space, is a potential space in the head and the neck. It has clinical importance in otolaryngology due to parapharyngeal space tumors and parapharyngeal abscesses developing in this area.
⢠Retropharyngeal space -The retropharyngeal space RPS) is an anatomical region that spans from the base of the skull to the mediastinum. Its location is anterior to the prevertebral muscles and posterior to the pharynx and esophagus.SYNOPSIS
⢠Usually, the impacted third molar tooth is indicated for extraction.
⢠Sometimes, it may displace into the lingual pouch or submandibular space during extraction particularly when the lingual cortex is extremely thin.
⢠It may further traverse into pharyngeal spaces if not managed by some expert.
⢠The intraoral approach under local anesthesia is the simplest and least invasive technique for the removal of displaced roots from the lingual pouch.REFERENCE
Retrieval of mandibular third molar tooth accidentally displaced in submandibular space – Ravinder Solanki -
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
The disadvantage of screw-retained Implant prosthesis lies in its
Correct
ANSWER
PassivityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Implant restorations can be screw-retained or cement retained.
⢠In screw-retained restorations, the fastening screw provides a solid joint between the restoration and the implant abutment, while in cement-retained prostheses the restorative screw is eliminated to enhance esthetics, occlusal stability, and passive fit of the restorations.
⢠The factors that influence the type of fixation of the prostheses to the implants are as follows.
1) Passivity of the framework.
2) Ease of fabrication and cost.
3) Occlusion.
4) Complications.
5) Esthetics.
6) Accessibility.
7) Retention.
8) Retrievability.
9) Cementation.
⢠Advantages of Screw-retained implant restorations
– Predictable retention,
– Retrievability and
– Lack of potentially retained sub-gingival cement.
⢠Disadvantages
– Ā Precise placement of the implant for the optimal and esthetic location of the screw access hole and
– Obtaining passive fit.REFERENCE
Factors influencingthe success of cement versus screw-retained implant restorations A clinical review – Journal of OsseointegrationIncorrect
ANSWER
PassivityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Implant restorations can be screw-retained or cement retained.
⢠In screw-retained restorations, the fastening screw provides a solid joint between the restoration and the implant abutment, while in cement-retained prostheses the restorative screw is eliminated to enhance esthetics, occlusal stability, and passive fit of the restorations.
⢠The factors that influence the type of fixation of the prostheses to the implants are as follows.
1) Passivity of the framework.
2) Ease of fabrication and cost.
3) Occlusion.
4) Complications.
5) Esthetics.
6) Accessibility.
7) Retention.
8) Retrievability.
9) Cementation.
⢠Advantages of Screw-retained implant restorations
– Predictable retention,
– Retrievability and
– Lack of potentially retained sub-gingival cement.
⢠Disadvantages
– Ā Precise placement of the implant for the optimal and esthetic location of the screw access hole and
– Obtaining passive fit.REFERENCE
Factors influencingthe success of cement versus screw-retained implant restorations A clinical review – Journal of Osseointegration -
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
A patient presents with persistent discomfort around an endodontically treated tooth 36). Radiographs show a halo-like radiolucency extending from the apical area to the furcation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Vertical root fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The radiographic halo appearance is a classic sign of a vertical root fracture VRF).
⢠This fracture typically occurs in endodontically treated teeth due to excessive force during obturation or post-placement.
⢠Other signs include isolated deep periodontal pockets and persistent sinus tracts.REFERENCE
Cohen S, Hargreaves KM. Pathways of the Pulp – 11th edition, Elsevier, 2015.Incorrect
ANSWER
Vertical root fractureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The radiographic halo appearance is a classic sign of a vertical root fracture VRF).
⢠This fracture typically occurs in endodontically treated teeth due to excessive force during obturation or post-placement.
⢠Other signs include isolated deep periodontal pockets and persistent sinus tracts.REFERENCE
Cohen S, Hargreaves KM. Pathways of the Pulp – 11th edition, Elsevier, 2015. -
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
A patient presents with a fractured maxillary central incisor. The fracture extends subgingivally and involves the pulp chamber. What is the most significant factor that makes the prognosis poor?
Correct
ANSWER
Subgingival fracture extensionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Subgingival fracture extension compromises the biological width and makes restorability difficult.
⢠It can lead to periodontal complications and poor aesthetics.
⢠Endodontic and restorative procedures may be challenging or impossible without crown lengthening or orthodontic extrusionREFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 4th Edition, Wiley-Blackwell, 2007.Incorrect
ANSWER
Subgingival fracture extensionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Subgingival fracture extension compromises the biological width and makes restorability difficult.
⢠It can lead to periodontal complications and poor aesthetics.
⢠Endodontic and restorative procedures may be challenging or impossible without crown lengthening or orthodontic extrusionREFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 4th Edition, Wiley-Blackwell, 2007. -
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
A 20-year-old patient presents with an ideal molar relationship and a harmonious facial profile. What is the occlusal classification for this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Class II or distocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes distal to the class I position, this is also known as a post-normal relationship and is subdivided into
a – Class II division 1 – Where the maxillary incisors are proclined
b – Class II division 2 – Where the maxillary incisors are retroclined
⢠Class III or Mesiocclusion – The Mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes mesial to the class I position.SYNOPSIS
⢠A Class I occlusion or neutrocclusion is characterized by the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occluding with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar, accompanied by a balanced facial profile.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th Edition, Elsevier, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Class IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Class II or distocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes distal to the class I position, this is also known as a post-normal relationship and is subdivided into
a – Class II division 1 – Where the maxillary incisors are proclined
b – Class II division 2 – Where the maxillary incisors are retroclined
⢠Class III or Mesiocclusion – The Mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes mesial to the class I position.SYNOPSIS
⢠A Class I occlusion or neutrocclusion is characterized by the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occluding with the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar, accompanied by a balanced facial profile.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th Edition, Elsevier, 2019. -
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A 7-year-old child is anxious during the administration of local anesthesia LA). The dentist engages the child in a conversation about their favorite cartoon. What behavioral management technique is being employed?
Correct
ANSWER
DistractionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Tell-show-do – The Tell-Show-Do technique in pediatric dentistry involves explaining a procedure, demonstrating it, and then allowing the child to try it to ease anxiety and build trust.
⢠Positive reinforcement – Positive reinforcement in pedodontics is a behavior management technique that involves rewarding or praising a child for desirable behavior during dental visits to encourage cooperation and create a positive association with dental care.
⢠Modeling – Modeling in pedodontics is a behavior management technique where a child observes another person, such as a cooperative peer or a parent, successfully undergoing a dental procedure to reduce fear and encourage positive behavior during their own treatment.SYNOPSIS
⢠Talking to the child during the procedure helps shift or distract their focus away from the injection, reducing anxiety and discomfort.
⢠This technique is effective in managing pediatric patients.REFERENCE
Wright GZ, Kupietzky A. Behavior Management in Dentistry for Children. 2nd Edition, Wiley-Blackwell, 2014.Incorrect
ANSWER
DistractionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Tell-show-do – The Tell-Show-Do technique in pediatric dentistry involves explaining a procedure, demonstrating it, and then allowing the child to try it to ease anxiety and build trust.
⢠Positive reinforcement – Positive reinforcement in pedodontics is a behavior management technique that involves rewarding or praising a child for desirable behavior during dental visits to encourage cooperation and create a positive association with dental care.
⢠Modeling – Modeling in pedodontics is a behavior management technique where a child observes another person, such as a cooperative peer or a parent, successfully undergoing a dental procedure to reduce fear and encourage positive behavior during their own treatment.SYNOPSIS
⢠Talking to the child during the procedure helps shift or distract their focus away from the injection, reducing anxiety and discomfort.
⢠This technique is effective in managing pediatric patients.REFERENCE
Wright GZ, Kupietzky A. Behavior Management in Dentistry for Children. 2nd Edition, Wiley-Blackwell, 2014. -
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
An elderly patient presents with pinpoint erythema on the palatal mucosa under their denture. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Denture stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Traumatic ulcer – Ulcerated area covered by a yellowish or grayish pseudomembrane.
⢠Erythematous Candidiasis – Diffuse or patchy red areas of the mucosa, often without white plaques.
⢠Urticaria hives) – Raised, red, itchy welts that may vary in size and shape.
Often transient, appearing and disappearing in different areas.SYNOPSIS
⢠Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with poor denture hygiene, continuous denture wearing, and Candida infection.
⢠The pinpoint erythema is indicative of the condition.
⢠Treatment includes improving denture hygiene, antifungal medications, and discontinuing overnight denture wear.REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013.Incorrect
ANSWER
Denture stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Traumatic ulcer – Ulcerated area covered by a yellowish or grayish pseudomembrane.
⢠Erythematous Candidiasis – Diffuse or patchy red areas of the mucosa, often without white plaques.
⢠Urticaria hives) – Raised, red, itchy welts that may vary in size and shape.
Often transient, appearing and disappearing in different areas.SYNOPSIS
⢠Denture stomatitis is commonly associated with poor denture hygiene, continuous denture wearing, and Candida infection.
⢠The pinpoint erythema is indicative of the condition.
⢠Treatment includes improving denture hygiene, antifungal medications, and discontinuing overnight denture wear.REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013. -
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
A patient with HIV and a CD4 count of 150 cells ormm³ presents with oral ulcers unresponsive to topical steroids. What is the next best step?
Correct
ANSWER
Initiate systemic antifungal treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Patients with HIV are prone to fungal infections like oral candidiasis, which may not respond to topical steroids.
⢠Systemic antifungal treatment e.g., fluconazole) is recommended in such cases.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC.Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th Edition, Elsevier, 2015.Incorrect
ANSWER
Initiate systemic antifungal treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Patients with HIV are prone to fungal infections like oral candidiasis, which may not respond to topical steroids.
⢠Systemic antifungal treatment e.g., fluconazole) is recommended in such cases.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC.Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th Edition, Elsevier, 2015. -
Question 136 of 150
136. Question
A patient presents with a missing mandibular first molar 36) and a mesially tilted second molar 37). Why might a prosthetic replacement fail in the long term in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
Difficulty in achieving parallelismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The mesial tilt of 37 can make it challenging to create parallel abutments for fixed prostheses, leading to improper load distribution and eventual failure.
⢠Orthodontic uprighting may be required before prosthetic placement.REFERENCE
Shillingburg HT. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics. 4th Edition, Quintessence Publishing, 2012.Incorrect
ANSWER
Difficulty in achieving parallelismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The mesial tilt of 37 can make it challenging to create parallel abutments for fixed prostheses, leading to improper load distribution and eventual failure.
⢠Orthodontic uprighting may be required before prosthetic placement.REFERENCE
Shillingburg HT. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics. 4th Edition, Quintessence Publishing, 2012. -
Question 137 of 150
137. Question

30-year-old asthmatic patient presents to the dental clinic with a history of recurrent oral blisters. Upon examination, you observe blood-filled bullae on the buccal mucosa. The patient reports frequent use of a corticosteroid inhaler for asthma management. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical presentation?
Correct
ANSWER
Angina Bullosa HemorrhagicaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Oral lichen planus – Oral lichen planus typically presents with white striations and lesions rather than bullae.
⢠Pemphigus vulgaris – Pemphigus Vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering disorder but often involves more extensive oral lesions and systemic symptoms, including a more widespread presentation of lesions.
⢠Herpes simplex virus infection – Herpes simplex virus infection would present with painful vesicles rather than large blood-filled bullae and is usually more acute.SYNOPSIS
⢠Angina Bullosa Hemorrhagica is characterized by the sudden appearance of blood-filled bullae, primarily on the soft palate and buccal mucosa.
⢠The fact that the patient is using a corticosteroid inhaler increases the risk for this condition due to potential mucosal fragility.
⢠The use of corticosteroid inhalers can lead to local immunosuppression and thinning of the mucosal tissues, which can predispose patients to the formation of blood-filled bullae, typical of Angina Bullosa Hemorrhagica.REFERENCE
Shafers Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Angina Bullosa HemorrhagicaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Oral lichen planus – Oral lichen planus typically presents with white striations and lesions rather than bullae.
⢠Pemphigus vulgaris – Pemphigus Vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering disorder but often involves more extensive oral lesions and systemic symptoms, including a more widespread presentation of lesions.
⢠Herpes simplex virus infection – Herpes simplex virus infection would present with painful vesicles rather than large blood-filled bullae and is usually more acute.SYNOPSIS
⢠Angina Bullosa Hemorrhagica is characterized by the sudden appearance of blood-filled bullae, primarily on the soft palate and buccal mucosa.
⢠The fact that the patient is using a corticosteroid inhaler increases the risk for this condition due to potential mucosal fragility.
⢠The use of corticosteroid inhalers can lead to local immunosuppression and thinning of the mucosal tissues, which can predispose patients to the formation of blood-filled bullae, typical of Angina Bullosa Hemorrhagica.REFERENCE
Shafers Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
What is the management to return vascularity of an avulsed tooth for 60 minutes?
Correct
ANSWER
None of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Extra-oral dry time >60 minutes – PDL cells are considered non-viable, and long-term prognosis is poor.
⢠2020 IADT recommends – Do not mechanically remove the necrotic PDL from the root surface. Simply remove gross contamination and debris, then replant.
⢠Replantation is still recommended because it temporarily restores esthetics or function and preserves alveolar bone and future treatment options.
⢠In an immature or open-apex tooth, the goal remains possible pulp revascularisation and continued root development, even when extra-oral time exceeds 60 minutesREFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries.Incorrect
ANSWER
None of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Extra-oral dry time >60 minutes – PDL cells are considered non-viable, and long-term prognosis is poor.
⢠2020 IADT recommends – Do not mechanically remove the necrotic PDL from the root surface. Simply remove gross contamination and debris, then replant.
⢠Replantation is still recommended because it temporarily restores esthetics or function and preserves alveolar bone and future treatment options.
⢠In an immature or open-apex tooth, the goal remains possible pulp revascularisation and continued root development, even when extra-oral time exceeds 60 minutesREFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries. -
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
A patient wearing a new denture produces “S” sounds as “Th.” What is the most likely cause?
Correct
ANSWER
Incorrect positioning of maxillary anterior teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Improper positioning of the maxillary anterior teeth can alter the airflow during speech, leading to distorted pronunciation of sounds like “S.”REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013Incorrect
ANSWER
Incorrect positioning of maxillary anterior teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Improper positioning of the maxillary anterior teeth can alter the airflow during speech, leading to distorted pronunciation of sounds like “S.”REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013 -
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
A 65-year-old edentulous male patient presents with ill-fitting complete maxillary dentures and only anterior mandibular teeth remaining. He complains of poor retention of his upper denture, pain in the premaxillary area, and difficulty chewing. Upon examination, you observe enlarged tuberosities, papillary hyperplasia in the palate, and loss of bone in the premaxillary region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Combination syndromeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Denture stomatitis – Denture stomatitis is an inflammatory condition of the oral mucosa, commonly found under a denture, characterized by redness, swelling, and discomfort. It is often associated with poor denture hygiene, prolonged wearing of dentures, or a fungal infection, primarily caused by Candida albicans.
⢠Ridge resorption – Resorption in denture wearers refers to the gradual loss of alveolar bone in the jaw, particularly under the areas where dentures rest, due to continuous pressure and lack of natural stimulation that comes from teeth. This process can lead to changes in the shape and size of the jawbone, affecting denture fit and stability over timeSYNOPSIS
⢠Combination syndrome occurs in edentulous maxillary arches opposed by natural mandibular anterior teeth.
⢠Key features include
– Resorption of the anterior maxillary ridge.
– Hypertrophy of the maxillary tuberosities.
– Papillary hyperplasia of the hard palate mucosa.
– Extrusion of mandibular anterior teeth.
– Loss of bone from the mandibular posterior ridge due to lack of occlusal support.
⢠The presence of only anterior natural teeth in the mandible concentrates occlusal forces unevenly, leading to these changes.REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013.Incorrect
ANSWER
Combination syndromeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Denture stomatitis – Denture stomatitis is an inflammatory condition of the oral mucosa, commonly found under a denture, characterized by redness, swelling, and discomfort. It is often associated with poor denture hygiene, prolonged wearing of dentures, or a fungal infection, primarily caused by Candida albicans.
⢠Ridge resorption – Resorption in denture wearers refers to the gradual loss of alveolar bone in the jaw, particularly under the areas where dentures rest, due to continuous pressure and lack of natural stimulation that comes from teeth. This process can lead to changes in the shape and size of the jawbone, affecting denture fit and stability over timeSYNOPSIS
⢠Combination syndrome occurs in edentulous maxillary arches opposed by natural mandibular anterior teeth.
⢠Key features include
– Resorption of the anterior maxillary ridge.
– Hypertrophy of the maxillary tuberosities.
– Papillary hyperplasia of the hard palate mucosa.
– Extrusion of mandibular anterior teeth.
– Loss of bone from the mandibular posterior ridge due to lack of occlusal support.
⢠The presence of only anterior natural teeth in the mandible concentrates occlusal forces unevenly, leading to these changes.REFERENCE
Zarb GA, Hobkirk J, Eckert S, Jacob R. Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients.13th Edition, Elsevier, 2013. -
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
A 12-year-old male patient presents with a convex facial profile, retroclined maxillary central incisors, and deep bite. He complains of difficulty biting into hard foods. The molar relationship is such that the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar lies mesial to the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Class II Div IIOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Class I or neutrocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar occludes with the mesiobuccal groove of the lower first molar, discrepancies of up to half a cusp width either way were also included in this category.
⢠Class II or distocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes distal to the class I position, this is also known as a post-normal relationship and subdivided into
a – Class II division 1 – Where the maxillary incisors are proclined
b – Class II division 2 – Where the maxillary incisors are retroclined
⢠Class III or Mesiocclusion – The Mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes mesial to the class I position.SYNOPSIS
⢠In Angle’s Class II division 2 malocclusion,Ā the upper incisors are retroclined, which means they are tipped backward.
⢠The upper incisors hide the lower teeth, creating a deep overbite called supraocclusion.Ā The lateral incisors are often tipped forward, while the central incisors are tipped backward.Ā
⢠Other characteristics of Angle’s Class II division 2 malocclusion include
– A mild retrognathic mandibleĀ
– A forwardly rotated mandibular baseĀ
– A skeletal deep biteĀ
– A lower lip that is slightly behind the E-lineĀ
– A prominent chinĀ
– An increased transverse maxillary widthĀ
– A restricted mandibular arch widthĀREFERENCE
1. Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 6-Page 196.
2.Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2Nd-Edition-Chapter 6-Page 55.Incorrect
ANSWER
Class II Div IIOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Class I or neutrocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the upper first molar occludes with the mesiobuccal groove of the lower first molar, discrepancies of up to half a cusp width either way were also included in this category.
⢠Class II or distocclusion – The mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes distal to the class I position, this is also known as a post-normal relationship and subdivided into
a – Class II division 1 – Where the maxillary incisors are proclined
b – Class II division 2 – Where the maxillary incisors are retroclined
⢠Class III or Mesiocclusion – The Mesiobuccal cusp of the lower first molar occludes mesial to the class I position.SYNOPSIS
⢠In Angle’s Class II division 2 malocclusion,Ā the upper incisors are retroclined, which means they are tipped backward.
⢠The upper incisors hide the lower teeth, creating a deep overbite called supraocclusion.Ā The lateral incisors are often tipped forward, while the central incisors are tipped backward.Ā
⢠Other characteristics of Angle’s Class II division 2 malocclusion include
– A mild retrognathic mandibleĀ
– A forwardly rotated mandibular baseĀ
– A skeletal deep biteĀ
– A lower lip that is slightly behind the E-lineĀ
– A prominent chinĀ
– An increased transverse maxillary widthĀ
– A restricted mandibular arch widthĀREFERENCE
1. Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 6-Page 196.
2.Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2Nd-Edition-Chapter 6-Page 55. -
Question 142 of 150
142. Question
A 50-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, fever, and generalized lymphadenopathy. Blood tests reveal atypical lymphocytosis, and further serological testing confirms a recent Epstein-Barr Virus EBV) infection. The clinician considers the potential EBV-associated diseases while reviewing the patient’s medical history and symptoms. Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with Epstein-Barr Virus EBV)?
Correct
ANSWER
Kaposi SarcomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Kaposi sarcoma is always caused by an infection with a virus called human herpesvirus 8, which is also known as Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus KSHV). The virus, which is in the same family as Epstein-Barr virus.
⢠Hodgkins lymphoma, Burkits lymphoma and Infectious mononucleosis are caused by EBV virus.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Kaposi SarcomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Kaposi sarcoma is always caused by an infection with a virus called human herpesvirus 8, which is also known as Kaposi sarcoma-associated herpesvirus KSHV). The virus, which is in the same family as Epstein-Barr virus.
⢠Hodgkins lymphoma, Burkits lymphoma and Infectious mononucleosis are caused by EBV virus.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
A 4-year-old child presents to the pediatric dental clinic with a fever, irritability, and painful sores in the mouth. The parent reports that the child has not been eating well due to the pain. Upon examination, the dentist observes multiple small vesicles on the lips, gums, and inside the mouth in posterior pharyngeal area, some of which have ruptured to form ulcers. The child also has swollen, tender lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis.
Correct
ANSWER
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The symptoms of fever, irritability, painful oral sores, and swollen lymph nodes are characteristic of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is caused by the herpes simplex virus HSV).
⢠HSV-1 is most commonly responsible for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in children. HSV-2 is typically associated with genital infections.
⢠Management includes antiviral medication such as acyclovir) to reduce the duration and severity of the infection, pain relief analgesics or topical anesthetics), and ensuring the child stays hydrated, as oral intake can be challenging due to pain.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The symptoms of fever, irritability, painful oral sores, and swollen lymph nodes are characteristic of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is caused by the herpes simplex virus HSV).
⢠HSV-1 is most commonly responsible for primary herpetic gingivostomatitis in children. HSV-2 is typically associated with genital infections.
⢠Management includes antiviral medication such as acyclovir) to reduce the duration and severity of the infection, pain relief analgesics or topical anesthetics), and ensuring the child stays hydrated, as oral intake can be challenging due to pain.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
During the training period , the intern dentist is asked to identify multiple carious lesions and asked about the need for various types of cavity preparations and restorations. The senior dentist explains the concept of the C-factor (configuration factor) and its significance in restorative dentistry. Which type of cavity preparation has the highest C-factor?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The C-factor is the ratio of bonded surfaces to unbonded free) surfaces in a cavity preparation.
⢠A higher C-factor indicates a greater risk of polymerization shrinkage stress, which can lead to issues such as marginal leakage or debonding of the restoration.
⢠Class I cavity preparations involve an occlusal surface with multiple walls mesial, distal, buccal, lingual, and pulpal), leading to a high number of bonded surfaces compared to the single unbonded occlusal surface. This results in the highest C-factor among the listed cavity types.
⢠Class II, III, and V cavities have fewer bonded surfaces relative to their unbonded surfaces, resulting in lower C-factors compared to Class I cavities.
⢠Understanding the C-factor is important for choosing the appropriate restorative materials and techniques to minimize shrinkage stress and ensure the longevity of the restoration.
⢠C factor for Class I is 5, Class II is 2, III is 1, Class V is 1.9, Class IV is 0.5, and Class VI is 0.4.REFERENCE
Philips Science of Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
Class IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The C-factor is the ratio of bonded surfaces to unbonded free) surfaces in a cavity preparation.
⢠A higher C-factor indicates a greater risk of polymerization shrinkage stress, which can lead to issues such as marginal leakage or debonding of the restoration.
⢠Class I cavity preparations involve an occlusal surface with multiple walls mesial, distal, buccal, lingual, and pulpal), leading to a high number of bonded surfaces compared to the single unbonded occlusal surface. This results in the highest C-factor among the listed cavity types.
⢠Class II, III, and V cavities have fewer bonded surfaces relative to their unbonded surfaces, resulting in lower C-factors compared to Class I cavities.
⢠Understanding the C-factor is important for choosing the appropriate restorative materials and techniques to minimize shrinkage stress and ensure the longevity of the restoration.
⢠C factor for Class I is 5, Class II is 2, III is 1, Class V is 1.9, Class IV is 0.5, and Class VI is 0.4.REFERENCE
Philips Science of Dental Materials -
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
A 12-year-old child presents to the pediatric clinic with complaints of fever, malaise, and joint pain. The child’s parents report that the symptoms started about two weeks ago. A recent laboratory test shows a positive result for Streptococcus sanguinis. The child also exhibits signs of migratory arthritis, with inflammation and pain moving from one joint to another. An echocardiogram reveals a thickened mitral valve. What is the most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms and findings?
Correct
ANSWER
Rheumatic feverOTHER OPTIONS
⢠SLE – Systemic lupus erythematosus can present with fever and arthritis but usually involves multiple organ systems and specific autoantibodies, which are not mentioned here.
⢠Infective endocarditis – Infective endocarditis can cause heart valve abnormalities and fever but is typically associated with a more severe systemic illness and not migratory arthritis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop after an infection with Streptococcus bacteria.
⢠It commonly presents with fever, malaise, joint pain migratory arthritis), and carditis, which can lead to valvular heart disease, such as a thickened mitral valve.
⢠The Jones criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever include major criteria such as carditis evidenced by the thickened mitral valve) and polyarthritis migratory joint pain), along with a positive streptococcal infection test.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Rheumatic feverOTHER OPTIONS
⢠SLE – Systemic lupus erythematosus can present with fever and arthritis but usually involves multiple organ systems and specific autoantibodies, which are not mentioned here.
⢠Infective endocarditis – Infective endocarditis can cause heart valve abnormalities and fever but is typically associated with a more severe systemic illness and not migratory arthritis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop after an infection with Streptococcus bacteria.
⢠It commonly presents with fever, malaise, joint pain migratory arthritis), and carditis, which can lead to valvular heart disease, such as a thickened mitral valve.
⢠The Jones criteria for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever include major criteria such as carditis evidenced by the thickened mitral valve) and polyarthritis migratory joint pain), along with a positive streptococcal infection test.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
In a Class I distal extension removable partial denture (RPD), where does the support come from?
Correct
ANSWER
The abutment teeth and the residual alveolar ridgeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The distal extension partial denture does not have the advantage of total tooth supported because one or more bases are extensions covering the residual ridge distal to the last abutment, but in this situation, the support comes from both the teeth and the underlying ridge tissues rather than from teeth alone.
⢠This is a composite support, and the prostheses must be fabricated so that the resilient support provided by the edentulous ridge is coordinated with the more stable support offered by the abutment teeth.
⢠The distal extension removable partial denture must depend on the residual ridge for some support, stability, and retention. Indirect retention, to prevent the denture from lifting away from the residual ridge, should also be incorporated in the design.
⢠Factors influencing the support of a distal extension denture base
1- Quality of the residual ridge.
2- Extent of residual ridge coverage by the denture base.
3- Type and accuracy of impression registration.
4- Accuracy of denture base.
5- Design of the partial framework.
6- Total occlusal load applied.REFERENCE
Distal Extension RPD – Journal of ProsthodonticsIncorrect
ANSWER
The abutment teeth and the residual alveolar ridgeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The distal extension partial denture does not have the advantage of total tooth supported because one or more bases are extensions covering the residual ridge distal to the last abutment, but in this situation, the support comes from both the teeth and the underlying ridge tissues rather than from teeth alone.
⢠This is a composite support, and the prostheses must be fabricated so that the resilient support provided by the edentulous ridge is coordinated with the more stable support offered by the abutment teeth.
⢠The distal extension removable partial denture must depend on the residual ridge for some support, stability, and retention. Indirect retention, to prevent the denture from lifting away from the residual ridge, should also be incorporated in the design.
⢠Factors influencing the support of a distal extension denture base
1- Quality of the residual ridge.
2- Extent of residual ridge coverage by the denture base.
3- Type and accuracy of impression registration.
4- Accuracy of denture base.
5- Design of the partial framework.
6- Total occlusal load applied.REFERENCE
Distal Extension RPD – Journal of Prosthodontics -
Question 147 of 150
147. Question
A 3-year-old patient who took an oral analgesic and now has no symptoms is scheduled for an extraction. What is the recommended approach for pain relief during the extraction?
Correct
ANSWER
Use of local anesthesiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠No additional pain relief needed since the patient is asymptomatic – Not providing additional pain relief would result in pain during the procedure, which is not acceptable, especially in a pediatric patient.
⢠Use of general anesthesia – General anesthesia is typically reserved for more extensive procedures or for patients who cannot tolerate local anesthesia due to anxiety or medical conditions. It is not the first-line approach for a routine dental extraction in an otherwise healthy child.
⢠Use of additional oral analgesics – Additional oral analgesics would not be sufficient to manage the acute pain associated with the extraction procedure and are not appropriate as the sole method of pain relief during the procedure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Even though the child is currently asymptomatic due to the oral analgesic, local anesthesia LA) is essential for pain management during the extraction procedure.
⢠LA ensures that the patient experiences no pain during the dental extraction, making the process more comfortable and less traumatic for the child.
⢠Local anesthesia is safe and effective for children and should be used to ensure the child remains comfortable throughout the dental extraction.REFERENCE
Paediatric Dentistry – Arthur.J.NowakIncorrect
ANSWER
Use of local anesthesiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠No additional pain relief needed since the patient is asymptomatic – Not providing additional pain relief would result in pain during the procedure, which is not acceptable, especially in a pediatric patient.
⢠Use of general anesthesia – General anesthesia is typically reserved for more extensive procedures or for patients who cannot tolerate local anesthesia due to anxiety or medical conditions. It is not the first-line approach for a routine dental extraction in an otherwise healthy child.
⢠Use of additional oral analgesics – Additional oral analgesics would not be sufficient to manage the acute pain associated with the extraction procedure and are not appropriate as the sole method of pain relief during the procedure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Even though the child is currently asymptomatic due to the oral analgesic, local anesthesia LA) is essential for pain management during the extraction procedure.
⢠LA ensures that the patient experiences no pain during the dental extraction, making the process more comfortable and less traumatic for the child.
⢠Local anesthesia is safe and effective for children and should be used to ensure the child remains comfortable throughout the dental extraction.REFERENCE
Paediatric Dentistry – Arthur.J.Nowak -
Question 148 of 150
148. Question
A 9-year-old patient presents with a history of trauma to the central incisor area at age 5 and complains of an unerupted central incisor. Upon examination and radiographic imaging, what are the most likely reasons for the unerupted central incisor?
Correct
ANSWER
OdontomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypodontia – Hypodontia refers to the congenital absence of one or more teeth. While hypodontia is a possible reason for a missing tooth, it is less likely in the context of a trauma history. Hypodontia typically presents without a history of trauma and usually affects multiple teeth.
⢠Supernumerary tooth – A supernumerary tooth blocking the eruption path is a possible explanation, but the more direct link to the history of trauma is odontoma.SYNOPSIS
⢠Odontoma is a benign tumor made up of dental tissue.
⢠It is one of the most common reasons for delayed eruption of teeth, particularly in the context of trauma.
⢠The trauma may have contributed to the development of an odontoma, which can physically block the eruption path of the central incisor.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
OdontomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypodontia – Hypodontia refers to the congenital absence of one or more teeth. While hypodontia is a possible reason for a missing tooth, it is less likely in the context of a trauma history. Hypodontia typically presents without a history of trauma and usually affects multiple teeth.
⢠Supernumerary tooth – A supernumerary tooth blocking the eruption path is a possible explanation, but the more direct link to the history of trauma is odontoma.SYNOPSIS
⢠Odontoma is a benign tumor made up of dental tissue.
⢠It is one of the most common reasons for delayed eruption of teeth, particularly in the context of trauma.
⢠The trauma may have contributed to the development of an odontoma, which can physically block the eruption path of the central incisor.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 149 of 150
149. Question
A 6 year old child presented with grossly decayed tooth 36 has to undergo extraction. The patient needs inferior alveolar nerve block for dental procedures. What are the precautions to be taken prior to injection?
Correct
ANSWER
You should give nitrous oxide before the inferior alveolar blockOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recognizes nitrous oxide inhalation as a safe and effective technique to reduce anxiety, produce analgesia, and enhance effective communication between a patient and health care provider.
⢠Each patient was randomly assigned to receive an inhalation regimen of nitrous oxide or oxygen mix or room air or oxygen mix (placebo) five minutes before administration of a conventional IAN block.
⢠Patients receiving nitrous oxide were titrated to a dose of 30-50 percent.
⢠When used in the dental setting, nitrous oxide inhalation serves any of the following goals
– To reduce or eliminate fear and anxiety.
– To enhance communication between the patient and dental team.
– To instill a positive attitude towards dental care.
– To raise the pain reaction threshold.
– To reduce untoward movement.
– To help control a hyperactive gag reflex that can interfere with dental care.
– To decrease patient fatigue and increase operator efficiency for longer appointments.
– To provide an amnesic effect thus creating a more positive outlook towards dental care.
Indications for the use of nitrous oxide include
⢠A fearful or anxious patient.
⢠Certain patients with muscular tone disorders prone to unintentional movement.
⢠A patient whose strong or hypersensitive gag reflex interferes with dental care.
⢠A patient for whom profound local anesthesia or analgesia cannot be obtained.
⢠A cooperative child undergoing a lengthy dental procedure who would benefit from alleviating treatment fatigue.
Contraindications for the use of nitrous oxide may include
⢠Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.
⢠Current upper respiratory tract infections (e.g., cold, cough, tonsillitis), sinusitis, or other conditions (e.g., seasonal allergies) that inhibit nasal breathing.
⢠Recent middle ear disturbance or infection (e.g., acute otitis media).
⢠Recent (within 14 days) ear, nose, and or throat operations.
⢠Raised intraocular pressure (e.g., glaucoma), up to three months post retinal surgery, severe emotional disturbances or drug-related dependencies.
⢠First trimester of pregnancy.
⢠Treatment with bleomycin sulfate.
⢠Untreated cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency.REFERENCE
The Effect Of Nitrous Oxide on the efficacy of the inferior alveolar nerve block in patients with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. William D. Stanley,Incorrect
ANSWER
You should give nitrous oxide before the inferior alveolar blockOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recognizes nitrous oxide inhalation as a safe and effective technique to reduce anxiety, produce analgesia, and enhance effective communication between a patient and health care provider.
⢠Each patient was randomly assigned to receive an inhalation regimen of nitrous oxide or oxygen mix or room air or oxygen mix (placebo) five minutes before administration of a conventional IAN block.
⢠Patients receiving nitrous oxide were titrated to a dose of 30-50 percent.
⢠When used in the dental setting, nitrous oxide inhalation serves any of the following goals
– To reduce or eliminate fear and anxiety.
– To enhance communication between the patient and dental team.
– To instill a positive attitude towards dental care.
– To raise the pain reaction threshold.
– To reduce untoward movement.
– To help control a hyperactive gag reflex that can interfere with dental care.
– To decrease patient fatigue and increase operator efficiency for longer appointments.
– To provide an amnesic effect thus creating a more positive outlook towards dental care.
Indications for the use of nitrous oxide include
⢠A fearful or anxious patient.
⢠Certain patients with muscular tone disorders prone to unintentional movement.
⢠A patient whose strong or hypersensitive gag reflex interferes with dental care.
⢠A patient for whom profound local anesthesia or analgesia cannot be obtained.
⢠A cooperative child undergoing a lengthy dental procedure who would benefit from alleviating treatment fatigue.
Contraindications for the use of nitrous oxide may include
⢠Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.
⢠Current upper respiratory tract infections (e.g., cold, cough, tonsillitis), sinusitis, or other conditions (e.g., seasonal allergies) that inhibit nasal breathing.
⢠Recent middle ear disturbance or infection (e.g., acute otitis media).
⢠Recent (within 14 days) ear, nose, and or throat operations.
⢠Raised intraocular pressure (e.g., glaucoma), up to three months post retinal surgery, severe emotional disturbances or drug-related dependencies.
⢠First trimester of pregnancy.
⢠Treatment with bleomycin sulfate.
⢠Untreated cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency.REFERENCE
The Effect Of Nitrous Oxide on the efficacy of the inferior alveolar nerve block in patients with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. William D. Stanley, -
Question 150 of 150
150. Question
Surgical removal of the primary incisor in child patient will be done in which of the following conditions?
Correct
ANSWER
Primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠External and internal root resorption doesn’t require surgical removal of the primary incisor.SYNOPSIS
⢠Impinged primary tooth over permanent tooth bud should be extracted to avoid causing infection to permanent teeth.
⢠If massive external inflammatory root resorption is detected or if the follicle of the underlying permanent tooth bud is involved in the inflammatory process, the tooth must be extracted as soon as possible.
⢠Leaving such teeth untreated increases the risk of damage to the permanent incisor.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 233Incorrect
ANSWER
Primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠External and internal root resorption doesn’t require surgical removal of the primary incisor.SYNOPSIS
⢠Impinged primary tooth over permanent tooth bud should be extracted to avoid causing infection to permanent teeth.
⢠If massive external inflammatory root resorption is detected or if the follicle of the underlying permanent tooth bud is involved in the inflammatory process, the tooth must be extracted as soon as possible.
⢠Leaving such teeth untreated increases the risk of damage to the permanent incisor.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 233
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