Gulfie Dentists Students
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PERFORMANCE TEST
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Question 1 of 150
1. Question
A 14-year-old adolescent presented for a routine dental examination. Clinical examination revealed bleeding on probing (BOP) with 3ā4 mm clinical attachment loss affecting the maxillary incisors and first molars in both arches. Approximately 20% of the dentition was involved. The patient was otherwise healthy, and radiographic examination demonstrated bone loss inconsistent with the amount of local deposits.
Which is the most appropriate diagnosis according to the 2018 AAP/EFP Classification of Periodontal Diseases?Correct
ANSWER
Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis, Grade COTHER OPTIONS
ā Localized Stage II, Grade B – Grade B indicates moderate progression and does not fit the rapid destruction seen in adolescents.
ā Localized Stage II, Grade C – The characteristic molar-incisor distribution should be identified separately.
ā Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis, Grade B – Adolescents with rapid attachment loss are generally classified as Grade C.SYNOPSIS
ā Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis primarily affects first molars and incisors in young individuals.
ā Grade C indicates rapid disease progression, disproportionate destruction relative to plaque deposits.
ā Localized disease involves <30% of teeth.REFERENCE
Tonetti MS, Greenwell H, Kornman KS. Staging and grading of periodontitis: Framework and proposal of a new classification. J Clin Periodontol. 2018Incorrect
ANSWER
Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis, Grade COTHER OPTIONS
ā Localized Stage II, Grade B – Grade B indicates moderate progression and does not fit the rapid destruction seen in adolescents.
ā Localized Stage II, Grade C – The characteristic molar-incisor distribution should be identified separately.
ā Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis, Grade B – Adolescents with rapid attachment loss are generally classified as Grade C.SYNOPSIS
ā Molar-incisor pattern periodontitis primarily affects first molars and incisors in young individuals.
ā Grade C indicates rapid disease progression, disproportionate destruction relative to plaque deposits.
ā Localized disease involves <30% of teeth.REFERENCE
Tonetti MS, Greenwell H, Kornman KS. Staging and grading of periodontitis: Framework and proposal of a new classification. J Clin Periodontol. 2018 -
Question 2 of 150
2. Question
During the COVID-19 pandemic, an adult patient attended the dental clinic for emergency treatment. The patient reported that they had not received the COVID-19 vaccine but had no symptoms suggestive of infection and successfully passed the clinic’s screening protocol. According to ethical principles and infection control guidelines, what is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Respect the patient’s autonomy and provide treatment using appropriate infection-control precautions.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Refuse treatment because the patient is unvaccinated – Vaccination status alone is not a valid reason to refuse dental treatment.
ā Provide only elective treatment after vaccination – Elective treatment does not require prior vaccination if the patient passes screening.
ā Defer treatment until the patient receives the COVID-19 vaccine – Delaying treatment solely because of vaccination status violates the ethical principle of autonomy.SYNOPSIS
ā Standard precautions should be followed for every patient regardless of vaccination status.
ā COVID-19 vaccination is recommended but not mandatory to receive dental care.
ā Respect for patient autonomy is one of the fundamental ethical principles in dentistry.REFERENCE
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Guidance for Dental Settings.Incorrect
ANSWER
Respect the patient’s autonomy and provide treatment using appropriate infection-control precautions.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Refuse treatment because the patient is unvaccinated – Vaccination status alone is not a valid reason to refuse dental treatment.
ā Provide only elective treatment after vaccination – Elective treatment does not require prior vaccination if the patient passes screening.
ā Defer treatment until the patient receives the COVID-19 vaccine – Delaying treatment solely because of vaccination status violates the ethical principle of autonomy.SYNOPSIS
ā Standard precautions should be followed for every patient regardless of vaccination status.
ā COVID-19 vaccination is recommended but not mandatory to receive dental care.
ā Respect for patient autonomy is one of the fundamental ethical principles in dentistry.REFERENCE
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. Guidance for Dental Settings. -
Question 3 of 150
3. Question
While administering local anesthesia for a Class II composite restoration, the dentist accidentally sustained a needle-stick injury during instrument transfer. Which of the following measures is most effective in preventing this type of occupational injury?
Correct
ANSWER
Keeping the unsheathed needle in the neutral zone until requiredOTHER OPTIONS
ā Using disposable syringes – Disposable syringes reduce cross-contamination but do not prevent sharps injuries.
ā Bending the needle before disposal – Bending needles before disposal increases the risk of accidental injury.
ā Recapping the needle using both hands – Two-handed recapping is contraindicated because it increases needle-stick injuries.SYNOPSIS
ā A neutral zone minimizes direct hand-to-hand transfer of sharps.
ā Use the one-handed scoop technique when recapping needles.
ā Follow standard sharps safety protocols to prevent occupational exposure.REFERENCE
Miller CH, Palenik CJ. Modern Dental Assisting. 14th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Keeping the unsheathed needle in the neutral zone until requiredOTHER OPTIONS
ā Using disposable syringes – Disposable syringes reduce cross-contamination but do not prevent sharps injuries.
ā Bending the needle before disposal – Bending needles before disposal increases the risk of accidental injury.
ā Recapping the needle using both hands – Two-handed recapping is contraindicated because it increases needle-stick injuries.SYNOPSIS
ā A neutral zone minimizes direct hand-to-hand transfer of sharps.
ā Use the one-handed scoop technique when recapping needles.
ā Follow standard sharps safety protocols to prevent occupational exposure.REFERENCE
Miller CH, Palenik CJ. Modern Dental Assisting. 14th Edition. -
Question 4 of 150
4. Question
While administering an inferior alveolar nerve block, a dentist accidentally sustained a needle-stick injury with a contaminated needle. What should be the most appropriate immediate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Report the incident immediately, assess the exposure risk and obtain consent for blood testing.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics – Antibiotics do not prevent transmission of blood-borne viral infections.
ā Review only the patient’s medical history – Reviewing the medical history alone is inadequate after an occupational exposure.
ā Wait for symptoms before taking further action – Delaying management may reduce the effectiveness of post-exposure prophylaxis.SYNOPSIS
ā Wash the injury immediately with soap and water.
ā Report the incident according to institutional protocol.
ā Assess the need for HIV, HBV and HCV post-exposure prophylaxis.REFERENCE
CDC. Updated U.S. Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures.Incorrect
ANSWER
Report the incident immediately, assess the exposure risk and obtain consent for blood testing.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics – Antibiotics do not prevent transmission of blood-borne viral infections.
ā Review only the patient’s medical history – Reviewing the medical history alone is inadequate after an occupational exposure.
ā Wait for symptoms before taking further action – Delaying management may reduce the effectiveness of post-exposure prophylaxis.SYNOPSIS
ā Wash the injury immediately with soap and water.
ā Report the incident according to institutional protocol.
ā Assess the need for HIV, HBV and HCV post-exposure prophylaxis.REFERENCE
CDC. Updated U.S. Public Health Service Guidelines for the Management of Occupational Exposures. -
Question 5 of 150
5. Question

A mandibular first molar requiring root canal treatment showed severely curved mesial roots on the preoperative radiograph. Which procedural mishap is most likely to occur during canal instrumentation?
Correct
ANSWER
Ledge formationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Root perforation – It usually results from improper access or over-instrumentation rather than root curvature alone.
ā Sodium hypochlorite accident – It occur due to irrigant extrusion beyond the apex.
ā Vertical root fractures – They are uncommon during routine canal preparation.SYNOPSIS
ā Curved canals significantly increase the risk of ledge formation.
ā Establishing a glide path and using flexible NiTi files reduce procedural errors.
ā Pre-curved stainless-steel files are recommended during initial negotiation of curved canals.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Ledge formationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Root perforation – It usually results from improper access or over-instrumentation rather than root curvature alone.
ā Sodium hypochlorite accident – It occur due to irrigant extrusion beyond the apex.
ā Vertical root fractures – They are uncommon during routine canal preparation.SYNOPSIS
ā Curved canals significantly increase the risk of ledge formation.
ā Establishing a glide path and using flexible NiTi files reduce procedural errors.
ā Pre-curved stainless-steel files are recommended during initial negotiation of curved canals.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition. -
Question 6 of 150
6. Question

During root canal treatment of a mandibular first molar, a 5-mm endodontic file fractured in the apical third of one canal after complete cleaning and shaping. Attempts to bypass and retrieve the fragment were unsuccessful. The tooth was asymptomatic before treatment. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Obturate the canal up to the level of the separated instrument and review periodically.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Obturate all other canals and leave the fractured canal untreated – Leaving the canal unobturated increases the risk of persistent infection.
ā Proceed immediately with surgical endodontic treatment – Surgical endodontics is indicated only if pathology persists after nonsurgical treatment.
ā Extract the tooth – Extraction is not indicated when the tooth has a favorable prognosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Prognosis depends on the presence or absence of pre-existing infection.
ā Retrieval is not mandatory in every case of instrument separation.
ā Long-term clinical and radiographic follow-up is essential.REFERENCE
American Association of Endodontists. Management of Separated Instruments.
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Obturate the canal up to the level of the separated instrument and review periodically.OTHER OPTIONS
ā Obturate all other canals and leave the fractured canal untreated – Leaving the canal unobturated increases the risk of persistent infection.
ā Proceed immediately with surgical endodontic treatment – Surgical endodontics is indicated only if pathology persists after nonsurgical treatment.
ā Extract the tooth – Extraction is not indicated when the tooth has a favorable prognosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Prognosis depends on the presence or absence of pre-existing infection.
ā Retrieval is not mandatory in every case of instrument separation.
ā Long-term clinical and radiographic follow-up is essential.REFERENCE
American Association of Endodontists. Management of Separated Instruments.
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition. -
Question 7 of 150
7. Question
A mandibular first premolar previously treated with root canal therapy continued to be symptomatic. A postoperative radiograph showed a single-cone obturation, and CBCT revealed untreated canals. What is the maximum number of canals that may be present in a mandibular first premolar?
Correct
ANSWER
FourOTHER OPTIONS
ā Two – Two canals are the most common anatomical variation but are not the maximum reported.
ā Three – Three canals have been reported but are less than the maximum documented anatomySYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular first premolars exhibit considerable anatomical variation.
ā Up to four canals have been reported in the literature.
ā CBCT is useful when complex root canal anatomy is suspected.REFERENCE
Vertucci FJ. Root canal anatomy of the human permanent teeth.Incorrect
ANSWER
FourOTHER OPTIONS
ā Two – Two canals are the most common anatomical variation but are not the maximum reported.
ā Three – Three canals have been reported but are less than the maximum documented anatomySYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular first premolars exhibit considerable anatomical variation.
ā Up to four canals have been reported in the literature.
ā CBCT is useful when complex root canal anatomy is suspected.REFERENCE
Vertucci FJ. Root canal anatomy of the human permanent teeth. -
Question 8 of 150
8. Question

Root canal treatment was initiated on a mandibular first molar. The mesiobuccal, mesiolingual and distal canals were cleaned and shaped. At the next visit, the patient continued to complain of severe pain. A radiograph revealed an untouched Radix Entomolaris. What is the most likely cause of the persistent symptoms?
Correct
ANSWER
Missed additional root canalOTHER OPTION
ā Excessive irrigation pressure – Irrigation pressure alone would not explain untreated anatomy on the radiograph.
ā Poor temporary restoration – Temporary restoration failure is less likely than an untreated canal.SYNOPSIS
ā Radix entomolaris is an additional distolingual root commonly seen in mandibular molars.
ā Missed canals are a common cause of persistent post-treatment disease.
ā Careful radiographic interpretation and CBCT help identify anatomical variations.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Missed additional root canalOTHER OPTION
ā Excessive irrigation pressure – Irrigation pressure alone would not explain untreated anatomy on the radiograph.
ā Poor temporary restoration – Temporary restoration failure is less likely than an untreated canal.SYNOPSIS
ā Radix entomolaris is an additional distolingual root commonly seen in mandibular molars.
ā Missed canals are a common cause of persistent post-treatment disease.
ā Careful radiographic interpretation and CBCT help identify anatomical variations.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition. -
Question 9 of 150
9. Question
During cleaning and shaping, the operator selected a hand instrument with an active cutting tip designed to cut dentin aggressively during the withdrawal stroke. Which instrument was most likely used?
Correct
ANSWER
Hedstrƶm fileOTHER OPTIONS
ā K-file – K-files have a relatively non-cutting tip and are primarily used with watch-winding or filing motions.
ā Reamer – Reamers are designed mainly for rotational enlargement of canals.
ā Barbed broach – Barbed broaches are used to remove pulp tissue rather than shape canals.SYNOPSIS
ā Hedstrƶm files cut efficiently on the withdrawal stroke.
ā They should not be used with continuous rotary motion because of fracture risk.
ā They are more aggressive than K-files during canal preparation.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Hedstrƶm fileOTHER OPTIONS
ā K-file – K-files have a relatively non-cutting tip and are primarily used with watch-winding or filing motions.
ā Reamer – Reamers are designed mainly for rotational enlargement of canals.
ā Barbed broach – Barbed broaches are used to remove pulp tissue rather than shape canals.SYNOPSIS
ā Hedstrƶm files cut efficiently on the withdrawal stroke.
ā They should not be used with continuous rotary motion because of fracture risk.
ā They are more aggressive than K-files during canal preparation.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition. -
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
A 9-year-old child required extraction of a mandibular primary second molar under local anesthesia. What is the ideal patient position to facilitate this procedure?
Correct
ANSWER
Mandibular occlusal plane parallel to the floorOTHER OPTIONS
ā The maxillary occlusal plane is positioned approximately 60° to the floor during maxillary extractions.
ā A 45° inclination compromises operator visibility and access.SYNOPSIS
ā For mandibular extractions, the mandibular occlusal plane should be parallel to the floor.
ā For maxillary extractions, the maxillary occlusal plane should be approximately 60° to the floor.
ā Proper patient positioning improves visibility, access and operator control.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Mandibular occlusal plane parallel to the floorOTHER OPTIONS
ā The maxillary occlusal plane is positioned approximately 60° to the floor during maxillary extractions.
ā A 45° inclination compromises operator visibility and access.SYNOPSIS
ā For mandibular extractions, the mandibular occlusal plane should be parallel to the floor.
ā For maxillary extractions, the maxillary occlusal plane should be approximately 60° to the floor.
ā Proper patient positioning improves visibility, access and operator control.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th Edition. -
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
A 35-year-old patient presents with pain and Grade 2 mobility in a maxillary central incisor. Intraoral examination and radiograph reveal external root resorption without any coronal caries or periapical pathology. What is the definitive tissue engineering-based periodontal management for restoring attachment in this defect?
Correct
ANSWER
Guided tissue regenerationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction – Unnecessary as Grade 2 mobility with localized resorption can be managed conservatively.
ā Root Canal Treatment – Not indicated initially if the pulp is vital and resorption is external periodontal-type.
ā Guided Bone Regeneration – Aims only at bone volume loss (e.g., around implants), not true periodontal attachment (cementum, PDL, bone).SYNOPSIS
ā Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) uses barrier membranes to block epithelial downgrowth, allowing PDL cells and osteoblasts to regenerate lost periodontal structures in external resorption/infrabony defects.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Guided tissue regenerationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction – Unnecessary as Grade 2 mobility with localized resorption can be managed conservatively.
ā Root Canal Treatment – Not indicated initially if the pulp is vital and resorption is external periodontal-type.
ā Guided Bone Regeneration – Aims only at bone volume loss (e.g., around implants), not true periodontal attachment (cementum, PDL, bone).SYNOPSIS
ā Guided Tissue Regeneration (GTR) uses barrier membranes to block epithelial downgrowth, allowing PDL cells and osteoblasts to regenerate lost periodontal structures in external resorption/infrabony defects.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition. -
Question 12 of 150
12. Question
A 28-year-old patient reports with a persistent localized draining sinus tract near a maxillary central incisor. A gutta-percha (GP) point is inserted through the tract, and a radiograph shows the GP tracing directly to the mid-root area of the tooth. Vitality testing shows no response. What is the initial treatment of choice?
Correct
ANSWER
Root Canal TreatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction – Indicated only if there is a vertical root fracture or non-restorable structure.
ā Periodontal Treatment – Perio therapy alone will fail because the lesion is endodontic in origin (primary endo with secondary perio manifestation).
ā Hemisection – Not feasible for single-rooted maxillary central incisors.SYNOPSIS
ā Sinus tract tracing with a GP cone provides a definitive radiographic path to the origin of endodontic infection. Mid-root endodontic pathology requires complete chemo-mechanical debridement and obturation.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp, 12th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Root Canal TreatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction – Indicated only if there is a vertical root fracture or non-restorable structure.
ā Periodontal Treatment – Perio therapy alone will fail because the lesion is endodontic in origin (primary endo with secondary perio manifestation).
ā Hemisection – Not feasible for single-rooted maxillary central incisors.SYNOPSIS
ā Sinus tract tracing with a GP cone provides a definitive radiographic path to the origin of endodontic infection. Mid-root endodontic pathology requires complete chemo-mechanical debridement and obturation.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp, 12th Edition. -
Question 13 of 150
13. Question

A prosthodontist refers a patient back to you after reviewing an obturation radiograph of a maxillary central incisor intended for post-and-core restoration. The radiograph demonstrates a radio-clear gap in the root area within the obturation mass. What does this radiolucent space indicate?
Correct
ANSWER
Void in obturationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Canal split – Extremely rare in maxillary central incisors, which typically possess a single straight canal.
ā Internal resorption – Appears as a ballooning radiolucency of the root canal wall prior to obturation, not inside the GP material itself.
ā Root fracture – Exhibits a radiolucent line crossing the dentin and root surface, often with lateral bone loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Discontinuities or internal clear areas within the radiopaque obturation mass represent incomplete compaction (voids), serving as potential pathways for bacterial recontamination.REFERENCE
Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Void in obturationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Canal split – Extremely rare in maxillary central incisors, which typically possess a single straight canal.
ā Internal resorption – Appears as a ballooning radiolucency of the root canal wall prior to obturation, not inside the GP material itself.
ā Root fracture – Exhibits a radiolucent line crossing the dentin and root surface, often with lateral bone loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Discontinuities or internal clear areas within the radiopaque obturation mass represent incomplete compaction (voids), serving as potential pathways for bacterial recontamination.REFERENCE
Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition. -
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
A psychiatric physician refers a 24-year-old patient who exhibits progressive, bilateral, painless enlargement of the parotid glands. The patient is currently receiving therapy for a psychiatric condition. Under what condition is the patient most likely suffering?
Correct
ANSWER
Eating Disorder (Bulimia Nervosa)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Bipolar Disorder – Does not directly cause sialadenosis or salivary gland hypertrophy.
ā Schizophrenia – Not associated with physical parotid gland enlargement.
ā Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder – Lacks somatic systemic manifestations involving salivary glands.SYNOPSIS
ā Sialadenosis (sialosis) is a non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic, painless bilateral enlargement of parotid glands frequently seen in patients with eating disorders (bulimia nervosa) due to repetitive vomiting, autonomic neuropathy, and nutritional deficiencies.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Eating Disorder (Bulimia Nervosa)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Bipolar Disorder – Does not directly cause sialadenosis or salivary gland hypertrophy.
ā Schizophrenia – Not associated with physical parotid gland enlargement.
ā Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder – Lacks somatic systemic manifestations involving salivary glands.SYNOPSIS
ā Sialadenosis (sialosis) is a non-inflammatory, non-neoplastic, painless bilateral enlargement of parotid glands frequently seen in patients with eating disorders (bulimia nervosa) due to repetitive vomiting, autonomic neuropathy, and nutritional deficiencies.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition. -
Question 15 of 150
15. Question
A 28-year-old pregnant patient in her second trimester presents with mild-to-moderate dental pain from irreversible pulpitis. Which of the following systemic analgesics is safest for pain management in this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
AcetaminophenOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aspirin – Risk of maternal/fetal hemorrhage, premature closure of ductus arteriosus.
ā Tetracycline – Causes permanent enamel discoloration and bone growth inhibition in the fetus.
ā Ibuprofen – NSAIDs in late pregnancy can cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.SYNOPSIS
ā Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) is classified as Category B (FDA) and is the drug of choice for pain relief during all trimesters of pregnancy when used at therapeutic doses.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
AcetaminophenOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aspirin – Risk of maternal/fetal hemorrhage, premature closure of ductus arteriosus.
ā Tetracycline – Causes permanent enamel discoloration and bone growth inhibition in the fetus.
ā Ibuprofen – NSAIDs in late pregnancy can cause premature closure of ductus arteriosus and oligohydramnios.SYNOPSIS
ā Acetaminophen (Paracetamol) is classified as Category B (FDA) and is the drug of choice for pain relief during all trimesters of pregnancy when used at therapeutic doses.REFERENCE
Little and Falace’s Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th Edition. -
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
A 19-year-old male with a confirmed diagnosis of sickle cell anemia requires simple extraction of a non-restorable molar. Which medication/anesthetic consideration is safest to administer during dental treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Local Anesthetic with EpinephrineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Barbiturates – Cause respiratory depression, leading to hypoxia and triggering a sickling crisis.
ā Aspirin – May induce acidosis, which enhances red blood cell sickling.
ā Narcotics – High doses depress respiration, raising arterial CO2 and precipitating a crisis.SYNOPSIS
ā Routine LA with vasoconstrictors (1:100,000 epinephrine) can be safely used in non-crisis sickle cell patients under aspirating techniques. Respiratory depressants must be strictly avoided.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Local Anesthetic with EpinephrineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Barbiturates – Cause respiratory depression, leading to hypoxia and triggering a sickling crisis.
ā Aspirin – May induce acidosis, which enhances red blood cell sickling.
ā Narcotics – High doses depress respiration, raising arterial CO2 and precipitating a crisis.SYNOPSIS
ā Routine LA with vasoconstrictors (1:100,000 epinephrine) can be safely used in non-crisis sickle cell patients under aspirating techniques. Respiratory depressants must be strictly avoided.REFERENCE
Scully’s Medical Problems in Dentistry, 7th Edition. -
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
A 32-year-old female presents for dental treatment. Routine pre-operative coagulation screening reveals: Increased Bleeding Time (BT), Normal Prothrombin Time (PT), Increased Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), and Normal Clotting Time (CT). What is the underlying diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Von Willebrand DiseaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hemophilia A – Characterized by normal Bleeding Time, normal PT, and prolonged aPTT.
ā Thrombocytopenia – Exhibits prolonged BT, but aPTT and PT are strictly normal.
ā Acute Leukemia – Shows pancytopenia and variable coagulation parameters, not isolated vWF/Factor VIII defects.SYNOPSIS
ā Von Willebrand Disease (vWD) affects platelet adhesion (prolonging Bleeding Time) and serves as a carrier for Factor VIII (prolonging aPTT). PT remains normal.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Von Willebrand DiseaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hemophilia A – Characterized by normal Bleeding Time, normal PT, and prolonged aPTT.
ā Thrombocytopenia – Exhibits prolonged BT, but aPTT and PT are strictly normal.
ā Acute Leukemia – Shows pancytopenia and variable coagulation parameters, not isolated vWF/Factor VIII defects.SYNOPSIS
ā Von Willebrand Disease (vWD) affects platelet adhesion (prolonging Bleeding Time) and serves as a carrier for Factor VIII (prolonging aPTT). PT remains normal.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 7th Edition. -
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
Immediately following intraoral administration of 1.8 mL of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine, a patient reports sudden severe palpitations and rapid heart rate. What is the most plausible etiology?
Correct
ANSWER
Intravascular injectionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Vasovagal attack – Characterized by bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, and pallor.
ā Local Anesthetic toxicity – Presents with CNS excitation (slurred speech, tremors) followed by CNS depression.
ā Local Anesthetic allergy – Presents with urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, and pruritus.SYNOPSIS
ā Accidental intravascular deposition of vasoconstrictor-containing local anesthetic produces an immediate systemic epinephrine surge, leading to transient tachycardia, palpitations, and anxiety.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Intravascular injectionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Vasovagal attack – Characterized by bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, and pallor.
ā Local Anesthetic toxicity – Presents with CNS excitation (slurred speech, tremors) followed by CNS depression.
ā Local Anesthetic allergy – Presents with urticaria, angioedema, bronchospasm, and pruritus.SYNOPSIS
ā Accidental intravascular deposition of vasoconstrictor-containing local anesthetic produces an immediate systemic epinephrine surge, leading to transient tachycardia, palpitations, and anxiety.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition. -
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
A healthy 75 kg adult patient requires multiple surgical extractions. What is the Maximum Recommended Dose (MRD) of 2% Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine in milligrams for this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
490 mgOTHER OPTIONS
ā 525 mg – Exceeds the absolute maximum safety threshold defined by AAPD/ADA guidelines for Lidocaine.
ā 300 mg – Underdosed based on maximum weight-calculated allowance.
ā 600 mg – Exceeds safe toxic thresholds for local anesthetics.SYNOPSIS
ā The MRD for Lidocaine is 7.0 mg/kg, up to an absolute maximum ceiling of 500 mg. For a 75 kg patient: 75 kg x 7.0 mg/kg = 525 mg. However, because the absolute cap is 500 mg (or 7.0 mg/kg without exceeding 490ā500 mg under various body-weight guidelines), 490 mg represents the safe non-toxic maximum ceiling.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
490 mgOTHER OPTIONS
ā 525 mg – Exceeds the absolute maximum safety threshold defined by AAPD/ADA guidelines for Lidocaine.
ā 300 mg – Underdosed based on maximum weight-calculated allowance.
ā 600 mg – Exceeds safe toxic thresholds for local anesthetics.SYNOPSIS
ā The MRD for Lidocaine is 7.0 mg/kg, up to an absolute maximum ceiling of 500 mg. For a 75 kg patient: 75 kg x 7.0 mg/kg = 525 mg. However, because the absolute cap is 500 mg (or 7.0 mg/kg without exceeding 490ā500 mg under various body-weight guidelines), 490 mg represents the safe non-toxic maximum ceiling.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition. -
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
During a dental procedure, a patient suddenly experiences palpitations, profuse diaphoresis, midriasis (pupillary dilation), aggressive behavior, and confusion. What clinical emergency is occurring?
Correct
ANSWER
Thyroid Storm / Thyrotoxic CrisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hypothyroidism – Presents with lethargy, cold intolerance, bradycardia, and hypothermia.
ā Vasovagal syncope – Features bradycardia, pallor, hypotension, and loss of consciousness.
ā Hyperventilation Syndrome – Presents with lightheadedness, paresthesia of extremities, and carpopedal spasms without severe aggression/midriasis.SYNOPSIS
ā Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) causes extreme sympathetic hyperactivity: marked tachycardia/palpitations, profuse diaphoresis, dilated pupils, agitation, confusion, and potential psychosis.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Thyroid Storm / Thyrotoxic CrisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hypothyroidism – Presents with lethargy, cold intolerance, bradycardia, and hypothermia.
ā Vasovagal syncope – Features bradycardia, pallor, hypotension, and loss of consciousness.
ā Hyperventilation Syndrome – Presents with lightheadedness, paresthesia of extremities, and carpopedal spasms without severe aggression/midriasis.SYNOPSIS
ā Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm) causes extreme sympathetic hyperactivity: marked tachycardia/palpitations, profuse diaphoresis, dilated pupils, agitation, confusion, and potential psychosis.REFERENCE
Malamed’s Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 7th Edition. -
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
A patient came to your clinic with huge swelling in lower part of face at the inferior border of mandible due to a lower molar abscess. What would be the treatment plan?
Correct
ANSWER
Incision and drainage then antibiotic till subside and extractionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The immediate priority in a severe, localized swelling is to decompress the tissue to relieve pain and remove toxic pus, thus reducing the risk of spread.
ā This is achieved byĀ incision and drainage, often via an extraoral approach for submandibular swelling.
ā Antibiotics are necessary to treat the cellulitis component of the infection, but they cannot penetrate a well-formed abscess, making drainage crucial.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Incision and drainage then antibiotic till subside and extractionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The immediate priority in a severe, localized swelling is to decompress the tissue to relieve pain and remove toxic pus, thus reducing the risk of spread.
ā This is achieved byĀ incision and drainage, often via an extraoral approach for submandibular swelling.
ā Antibiotics are necessary to treat the cellulitis component of the infection, but they cannot penetrate a well-formed abscess, making drainage crucial.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 22 of 150
22. Question
What is the submandibular approach to temporomandibular joint?
Correct
ANSWER
Risdon’s approachOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dingman’s Approach – Primarily a supraorbital or zygomatic approach used for reducing displaced zygomatic arch and body fractures.
ā Blair’s Approach (Inverted Hockey-Stick) – Traditionally used for parotid gland surgery, it is a preauricular approach that extends down and behind the earlobe, which can be modified for extensive TMJ exposure.
ā Thomas Approach – Mentioned in literature as a modification of Blairās incision, sometimes referred to as Roweās extended Blair incision.SYNOPSIS
ā The submandibular approach to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) and mandibular region is commonly known as the Risdon approach.
ā It is an extraoral technique used primarily for mandibular angle and low subcondylar fractures, as well as for some TMJ surgeries.
ā The incision is placed approximately 1.5ā2 cm below the inferior border of the mandible, often within an existing submandibular skin crease.
ā It provides good access to the angle of the mandible, the mandibular body, and the ramus.
ā It provides direct visualization for reduction and fixation, particularly for comminuted fractures or when intraoral access is difficult.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Risdon’s approachOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dingman’s Approach – Primarily a supraorbital or zygomatic approach used for reducing displaced zygomatic arch and body fractures.
ā Blair’s Approach (Inverted Hockey-Stick) – Traditionally used for parotid gland surgery, it is a preauricular approach that extends down and behind the earlobe, which can be modified for extensive TMJ exposure.
ā Thomas Approach – Mentioned in literature as a modification of Blairās incision, sometimes referred to as Roweās extended Blair incision.SYNOPSIS
ā The submandibular approach to the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) and mandibular region is commonly known as the Risdon approach.
ā It is an extraoral technique used primarily for mandibular angle and low subcondylar fractures, as well as for some TMJ surgeries.
ā The incision is placed approximately 1.5ā2 cm below the inferior border of the mandible, often within an existing submandibular skin crease.
ā It provides good access to the angle of the mandible, the mandibular body, and the ramus.
ā It provides direct visualization for reduction and fixation, particularly for comminuted fractures or when intraoral access is difficult.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 23 of 150
23. Question
A patient came to the clinic complains of clicking sound during opening and closing of mouth but there is no facial asymmetry found except when opening. What could be the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Internal derangement with reductionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement without reduction – Typically results in a locked jaw, significantly limited mouth opening, and no click
ā Rheumatoid arthritis – Often presents with crepitus (grating sound), pain, and long-term joint changes, rather than a simple click.
ā MFDS – InĀ MFDS, the primary complaint is usually dull, aching muscle pain and restricted movement rather than a clean, repeatable mechanical click.ĀSYNOPSIS
ā Based on the clinical presentation of a clicking sound during both opening and closing of the mouth (reciprocal clicking) without significant restricted movement or permanent deformity (asymmetry only during movement), the most likely diagnosis is Internal derangement with reduction (specifically anterior disc displacement with reduction).
ā Key findings
– Clicking on opening and closing – This reciprocal clicking indicates that the articular disc is displaced when the mouth is closed, but it relocates (reduces) onto the condyle during opening, and dislocates again upon closing.
– Asymmetry only on opening – The temporary, functional deviation or deflection of the jaw often occurs during the click as the joint momentarily misalignment and then relocates.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Internal derangement with reductionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement without reduction – Typically results in a locked jaw, significantly limited mouth opening, and no click
ā Rheumatoid arthritis – Often presents with crepitus (grating sound), pain, and long-term joint changes, rather than a simple click.
ā MFDS – InĀ MFDS, the primary complaint is usually dull, aching muscle pain and restricted movement rather than a clean, repeatable mechanical click.ĀSYNOPSIS
ā Based on the clinical presentation of a clicking sound during both opening and closing of the mouth (reciprocal clicking) without significant restricted movement or permanent deformity (asymmetry only during movement), the most likely diagnosis is Internal derangement with reduction (specifically anterior disc displacement with reduction).
ā Key findings
– Clicking on opening and closing – This reciprocal clicking indicates that the articular disc is displaced when the mouth is closed, but it relocates (reduces) onto the condyle during opening, and dislocates again upon closing.
– Asymmetry only on opening – The temporary, functional deviation or deflection of the jaw often occurs during the click as the joint momentarily misalignment and then relocates.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 24 of 150
24. Question
Which diagnostic test is best used to check temporomandibular joint movement?
Correct
ANSWER
MRIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Computed Tomography – While CT and cone-beam CT (CBCT) are excellent for evaluating the hard bony tissues (cortical irregularities, osteophytes) of the TMJ, they do not show the soft tissue articular disc.
ā Arthrography – An older, invasive technique that uses contrast to visualize the disc but has largely been replaced by MRI.
ā Traditional Tomography – An older imaging technique used for bone, but largely obsolete due to CT or CBCTSYNOPSIS
ā MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is considered the gold standard and the preferred diagnostic test for evaluating internal derangements, soft tissues, joint effusion, and disc position, providing high-resolution images of the joint in both closed and open-mouth positions.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
MRIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Computed Tomography – While CT and cone-beam CT (CBCT) are excellent for evaluating the hard bony tissues (cortical irregularities, osteophytes) of the TMJ, they do not show the soft tissue articular disc.
ā Arthrography – An older, invasive technique that uses contrast to visualize the disc but has largely been replaced by MRI.
ā Traditional Tomography – An older imaging technique used for bone, but largely obsolete due to CT or CBCTSYNOPSIS
ā MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) is considered the gold standard and the preferred diagnostic test for evaluating internal derangements, soft tissues, joint effusion, and disc position, providing high-resolution images of the joint in both closed and open-mouth positions.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 25 of 150
25. Question
What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient with an interincisal opening of 30 mm before feeling pain and a maximum opening of 44 mm with pain?
Correct
ANSWER
Myofacial painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement of TMJ without reduction – This condition typically presents with a hard-end feel and a severe mechanical restriction, usually limited to approximately 25ā30 mm. Because the disc is permanently displaced and blocking the condyle, the mouth cannot be significantly opened further even with force.
ā Internal derangement of TMJ with reduction – While this involves pain and clicking, it does not typically limit the maximum opening to this extent unless there is an acute locking episode.
ā Subluxation of TMJ – This refers to the joint hypermobility where the condyle moves too far forward (beyond the articular eminence). This results in an excessive opening (often more than 50 mm) or the jaw getting stuck in an open positionSYNOPSIS
ā In cases of myofascial pain, the restriction in opening is caused by muscle tension or spasms rather than a structural blockage within the joint.
ā An initial comfortable opening ofĀ 30 mmĀ followed by a maximum assisted opening ofĀ 44 mmĀ indicates that the joint itself is capable of a near-normal range of motion (normal is typically 40ā55 mm).Ā
ā The 14 mm difference between pain-free and maximum opening strongly suggests a muscular limitation rather than a mechanical one.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Myofacial painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement of TMJ without reduction – This condition typically presents with a hard-end feel and a severe mechanical restriction, usually limited to approximately 25ā30 mm. Because the disc is permanently displaced and blocking the condyle, the mouth cannot be significantly opened further even with force.
ā Internal derangement of TMJ with reduction – While this involves pain and clicking, it does not typically limit the maximum opening to this extent unless there is an acute locking episode.
ā Subluxation of TMJ – This refers to the joint hypermobility where the condyle moves too far forward (beyond the articular eminence). This results in an excessive opening (often more than 50 mm) or the jaw getting stuck in an open positionSYNOPSIS
ā In cases of myofascial pain, the restriction in opening is caused by muscle tension or spasms rather than a structural blockage within the joint.
ā An initial comfortable opening ofĀ 30 mmĀ followed by a maximum assisted opening ofĀ 44 mmĀ indicates that the joint itself is capable of a near-normal range of motion (normal is typically 40ā55 mm).Ā
ā The 14 mm difference between pain-free and maximum opening strongly suggests a muscular limitation rather than a mechanical one.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
Which muscle is responsible for the downward movement of the mandible?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Masseter – This is one of the strongest muscles in the body and is primarily responsible for elevating the mandible (closing the jaw)
ā Temporalis – This fan-shaped muscle elevates and retracts the mandible, pulling it upward and backward to close the mouthSYNOPSIS
ā The lateral pterygoid is the primary muscle of mastication responsible for the depression (downward movement) of the mandible, which opens the mouth
ā While several accessory muscles assist in this action, it is functionally unique among the four main muscles of mastication because it is the only one that actively opens the jaw
ā While the digastric muscle does assist in depressing the mandible, it is considered an accessory (suprahyoid) muscle of mastication rather than the primary muscle responsible for this movement.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Lateral pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Masseter – This is one of the strongest muscles in the body and is primarily responsible for elevating the mandible (closing the jaw)
ā Temporalis – This fan-shaped muscle elevates and retracts the mandible, pulling it upward and backward to close the mouthSYNOPSIS
ā The lateral pterygoid is the primary muscle of mastication responsible for the depression (downward movement) of the mandible, which opens the mouth
ā While several accessory muscles assist in this action, it is functionally unique among the four main muscles of mastication because it is the only one that actively opens the jaw
ā While the digastric muscle does assist in depressing the mandible, it is considered an accessory (suprahyoid) muscle of mastication rather than the primary muscle responsible for this movement.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 27 of 150
27. Question
Masseter muscle extends from lower border of zygomatic arch to lateral border of ramus and angle of the mandible.Is the statement true or false?
Correct
ANSWER
TRUEOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā The masseter muscle is a thick, quadrangular muscle of mastication that originates from the zygomatic arch (lower border and medial surface).
ā It extends inferiorly to insert onto the lateral surface of the ramus and the angle of the mandible.Ā
ā It consists of superficial and deep layers that cover the lateral aspect of the mandible.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
TRUEOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā The masseter muscle is a thick, quadrangular muscle of mastication that originates from the zygomatic arch (lower border and medial surface).
ā It extends inferiorly to insert onto the lateral surface of the ramus and the angle of the mandible.Ā
ā It consists of superficial and deep layers that cover the lateral aspect of the mandible.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
During extraction, a maxillary third molar is displaced into the infratemporal space. What is the best management?
Correct
ANSWER
CT scan and surgical retrieval under GAOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blind removal ā may push tooth further
ā Leave and observe ā risk of infection, trismusSYNOPSIS
ā If a maxillary third molar is accidentally displaced into the infratemporal space (infratemporal fossa), the standard and most reliable management protocol involves
ā Precise Localization – A CT scan (or CBCT) is the imaging modality of choice because traditional radiographs often show overlapping structures that make precise three-dimensional localization difficult.
ā Surgical Retrieval – Surgical removal is generally recommended as soon as possible to prevent complications such as infection, trismus (restricted jaw opening), or migration of the tooth further toward the skull base.
ā General Anesthesia – While retrieval can sometimes be performed under local anesthesia, General Anesthesia is often preferred to ensure patient comfort, provide a bloodless surgical field, and prevent further displacement caused by sudden patient movement.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
CT scan and surgical retrieval under GAOTHER OPTIONS
ā Blind removal ā may push tooth further
ā Leave and observe ā risk of infection, trismusSYNOPSIS
ā If a maxillary third molar is accidentally displaced into the infratemporal space (infratemporal fossa), the standard and most reliable management protocol involves
ā Precise Localization – A CT scan (or CBCT) is the imaging modality of choice because traditional radiographs often show overlapping structures that make precise three-dimensional localization difficult.
ā Surgical Retrieval – Surgical removal is generally recommended as soon as possible to prevent complications such as infection, trismus (restricted jaw opening), or migration of the tooth further toward the skull base.
ā General Anesthesia – While retrieval can sometimes be performed under local anesthesia, General Anesthesia is often preferred to ensure patient comfort, provide a bloodless surgical field, and prevent further displacement caused by sudden patient movement.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
A patient came to your clinic for routine check up and on taking diagnostic x-ray it was found that lower third molar roots are near to the inferior alveolar nerve canal but the patient is asymptomatic. What will be the management?
Correct
ANSWER
ObservationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Surgical extraction – not indicated in asymptomatic cases due to high risk of inferior alveolar nerve injury
ā Resection – not relevant for impacted third molars
ā Enucleation – indicated for cysts or tumors, not for asymptomatic impactionSYNOPSIS
ā Asymptomatic impacted third molars so conservative management preferred
ā Close proximity to inferior alveolar nerve leads to high risk of paresthesia if extracted
ā Periodic clinical and radiographic follow-up is recommendedREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
ObservationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Surgical extraction – not indicated in asymptomatic cases due to high risk of inferior alveolar nerve injury
ā Resection – not relevant for impacted third molars
ā Enucleation – indicated for cysts or tumors, not for asymptomatic impactionSYNOPSIS
ā Asymptomatic impacted third molars so conservative management preferred
ā Close proximity to inferior alveolar nerve leads to high risk of paresthesia if extracted
ā Periodic clinical and radiographic follow-up is recommendedREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 30 of 150
30. Question
A patient presents with a retained root stump requiring surgical removal using a four-corner (envelope) flap. The procedure involves flap elevation in the oral cavity, which contains normal flora. Under which wound classification does this procedure fall?
Correct
ANSWER
Clean-contaminatedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dirty infected – Used when there is active infection with pus
ā Contaminated – Refers to traumatic or heavily contaminated woundsSYNOPSIS
ā Oral cavity procedures are considered clean-contaminated
ā Presence of normal oral flora makes it non-sterile and no active infection – makes it clean contaminated.
ā Surgical flap procedures fall under this category.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Clean-contaminatedOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dirty infected – Used when there is active infection with pus
ā Contaminated – Refers to traumatic or heavily contaminated woundsSYNOPSIS
ā Oral cavity procedures are considered clean-contaminated
ā Presence of normal oral flora makes it non-sterile and no active infection – makes it clean contaminated.
ā Surgical flap procedures fall under this category.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th Edition -
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
A 34-year-old patient presents with neck discomfort and pain when turning their head from side to side. Clinical examination rules out cervical spine disc pathology and identifies muscle tenderness along the anterior and lateral neck regions. Which muscle is primarily responsible for side-to-side head rotation?
Correct
ANSWER
SternocleidomastoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Platysma – A superficial muscle of facial expression that depresses the mandible and lower lip; it does not rotate the head.
ā Trapezius – Assists mainly in head extension and shoulder elevation/scapular retraction.
ā Splenius Capitis – Functions primarily in head extension and lateral flexion, but Sternocleidomastoid is the primary prime mover for contralateral rotation.SYNOPSIS
ā Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) unilaterally contracts to rotate the head to the opposite side and flex the neck laterally.
ā Cervical strain or myofascial pain syndrome involving SCM presents as pain during head turning.
ā Platysma is a superficial subcutaneous muscle that plays no significant structural role in joint/head movement.
REFERENCE
BD Chaurasia’s Human Anatomy, Vol. 3: Head and Neck, 8th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
SternocleidomastoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Platysma – A superficial muscle of facial expression that depresses the mandible and lower lip; it does not rotate the head.
ā Trapezius – Assists mainly in head extension and shoulder elevation/scapular retraction.
ā Splenius Capitis – Functions primarily in head extension and lateral flexion, but Sternocleidomastoid is the primary prime mover for contralateral rotation.SYNOPSIS
ā Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) unilaterally contracts to rotate the head to the opposite side and flex the neck laterally.
ā Cervical strain or myofascial pain syndrome involving SCM presents as pain during head turning.
ā Platysma is a superficial subcutaneous muscle that plays no significant structural role in joint/head movement.
REFERENCE
BD Chaurasia’s Human Anatomy, Vol. 3: Head and Neck, 8th Edition. -
Question 32 of 150
32. Question
A 52-year-old patient presents to the dental clinic complaining of sudden, severe, sharp, electric shock-like pain of short duration. The pain radiates near the angle of the mandible and towards the ear/tonsillar region, triggered during swallowing and talking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Glossopharyngeal neuralgiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Atypical facial pain – Continuous, dull, aching pain that does not follow a specific anatomical nerve distribution.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia – Causes sharp, electric pain along V1, V2, or V3 branches (e.g., cheek, jaw, lips), but typically does not radiate to the posterior tongue, tonsillar fossa, or angle of mandible/ear upon swallowing.
ā Temporal arteritis – Characterized by throbbing temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and elevated ESR in elderly individuals.SYNOPSIS
ā Glossopharyngeal neuralgia involves cranial nerve IX and manifests as paroxysmal, severe, lancinating pain in the tonsillar pillar, base of tongue, angle of mandible, and ear.
ā Swallowing, chewing, talking, or yawning frequently acts as the trigger mechanism.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia involves CN V regions, whereas CN IX distribution accounts for ear and angle of mandible/oropharyngeal pain.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
Glossopharyngeal neuralgiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Atypical facial pain – Continuous, dull, aching pain that does not follow a specific anatomical nerve distribution.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia – Causes sharp, electric pain along V1, V2, or V3 branches (e.g., cheek, jaw, lips), but typically does not radiate to the posterior tongue, tonsillar fossa, or angle of mandible/ear upon swallowing.
ā Temporal arteritis – Characterized by throbbing temporal headache, scalp tenderness, and elevated ESR in elderly individuals.SYNOPSIS
ā Glossopharyngeal neuralgia involves cranial nerve IX and manifests as paroxysmal, severe, lancinating pain in the tonsillar pillar, base of tongue, angle of mandible, and ear.
ā Swallowing, chewing, talking, or yawning frequently acts as the trigger mechanism.
ā Trigeminal neuralgia involves CN V regions, whereas CN IX distribution accounts for ear and angle of mandible/oropharyngeal pain.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016. -
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
During a routine panoramic radiographic examination of an asymptomatic 45-year-old male, a well-demarcated radiolucency with a characteristic concavity below the inferior alveolar canal near the angle of the mandible is identified. The cortex remains intact, and teeth are vital. What is the standard initial management?
Correct
ANSWER
Follow upOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excision – Unnecessary surgical morbidity for a benign anatomical anatomical variant (Stafne defect).
ā Incision – Surgical intervention is non-indicated as no true pathological tissue exists.
ā FNAC – Unnecessary invasive procedure for an asymptomatic, pathognomonic developmental anatomical concavity.SYNOPSIS
ā The scenario describes a Stafne defect (static bone cavity), caused by ectopic submandibular salivary gland tissue indenting the lingual cortex below the inferior alveolar canal.
ā Classic radiographic features below the mandibular canal near the angle are diagnostic.
ā As it is a non-pathologic developmental defect, conservative observation and regular follow-up monitoring are standard.REFERENCE
White and Pharoah’s Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation. 8th ed. Elsevier; 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Follow upOTHER OPTIONS
ā Excision – Unnecessary surgical morbidity for a benign anatomical anatomical variant (Stafne defect).
ā Incision – Surgical intervention is non-indicated as no true pathological tissue exists.
ā FNAC – Unnecessary invasive procedure for an asymptomatic, pathognomonic developmental anatomical concavity.SYNOPSIS
ā The scenario describes a Stafne defect (static bone cavity), caused by ectopic submandibular salivary gland tissue indenting the lingual cortex below the inferior alveolar canal.
ā Classic radiographic features below the mandibular canal near the angle are diagnostic.
ā As it is a non-pathologic developmental defect, conservative observation and regular follow-up monitoring are standard.REFERENCE
White and Pharoah’s Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation. 8th ed. Elsevier; 2019. -
Question 34 of 150
34. Question

An asymptomatic 38-year-old female presents for a routine check-up. Intraoral examination reveals an incidental finding on the posterolateral border of the tongue: a well-circumscribed erythematous area bordered by a slightly elevated yellowish-white ribbon-like margin. The patient denies any burning sensation or systemic conditions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Erythema migransOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lichen planus – Characterized by Wickham’s striae (reticular pattern) or erosive lesions, often presenting with symptoms and bilateral buccal mucosa predilection.
ā Candidiasis – Pseudomembranous form wipes off leaving a raw surface; erythematous form is typically symptomatic with burning.
ā Erythroleukoplakia – Represents a premalignant lesion displaying mixed red and white areas, usually non-migratory and fixed.SYNOPSIS
ā Erythema migrans (Geographic tongue / Benign migratory glossitis) presents as depapillated erythematous patches with cream-colored raised borders.
ā It frequently occurs on the dorsum and lateral borders of the tongue and is often asymptomatic.
ā Lesions display a classic migratory pattern over time.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
Erythema migransOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lichen planus – Characterized by Wickham’s striae (reticular pattern) or erosive lesions, often presenting with symptoms and bilateral buccal mucosa predilection.
ā Candidiasis – Pseudomembranous form wipes off leaving a raw surface; erythematous form is typically symptomatic with burning.
ā Erythroleukoplakia – Represents a premalignant lesion displaying mixed red and white areas, usually non-migratory and fixed.SYNOPSIS
ā Erythema migrans (Geographic tongue / Benign migratory glossitis) presents as depapillated erythematous patches with cream-colored raised borders.
ā It frequently occurs on the dorsum and lateral borders of the tongue and is often asymptomatic.
ā Lesions display a classic migratory pattern over time.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016. -
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
A 50-year-old male undergoing a root canal procedure suddenly experiences severe chest tightness and distress, pushing away the dental operator and suction tip. The dentist recognizes angina pectoris and immediately administers sublingual nitroglycerin spray. What is the most common immediate adverse effect expected from this medication?
Correct
ANSWER
Throbbing headache and hypotensionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Xerostomia – Associated with anticholinergics and antihistamines, not acute sublingual nitrates.
ā Metallic taste – Common side effect of metronidazole or chlorhexidine, not nitroglycerin.
ā Gingival hyperplasia – Associated with calcium channel blockers (e.g., nifedipine), not acute vasodilators.SYNOPSIS
ā Sublingual nitroglycerin acts as a potent systemic venodilator releasing nitric oxide.
ā Rapid cerebral vasodilation frequently leads to transient throbbing headache and orthostatic hypotension/reflex tachycardia.
ā Dentists must monitor blood pressure prior to and after administration.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office. 7th ed. Mosby; 2014.Incorrect
ANSWER
Throbbing headache and hypotensionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Xerostomia – Associated with anticholinergics and antihistamines, not acute sublingual nitrates.
ā Metallic taste – Common side effect of metronidazole or chlorhexidine, not nitroglycerin.
ā Gingival hyperplasia – Associated with calcium channel blockers (e.g., nifedipine), not acute vasodilators.SYNOPSIS
ā Sublingual nitroglycerin acts as a potent systemic venodilator releasing nitric oxide.
ā Rapid cerebral vasodilation frequently leads to transient throbbing headache and orthostatic hypotension/reflex tachycardia.
ā Dentists must monitor blood pressure prior to and after administration.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office. 7th ed. Mosby; 2014. -
Question 36 of 150
36. Question

A 22-year-old patient presents with painful clustered fluid-filled vesicles on the vermilion border of the lower lip that ruptured to form honey-colored crusted lesions. History reveals previous episodes following sun exposure. What is the causative pathogen?
Correct
ANSWER
HSVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lactobacillus – Commensal oral or gastrointestinal bacterium, non-pathogenic for lip vesicular lesions.
ā Candidiasis – Fungal infection presenting as white curd-like plaques or erythematous patches, not fluid-filled neurotropic vesicles.
ā Streptococcus – Causes impetigo (bullous/non-bullous crusted lesions) or pharyngitis, but non-vesicular recurrent labial clusters.SYNOPSIS
ā Herpes labialis is caused by Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1), which resides latent in the trigeminal ganglion.
ā Streptococcal impetigo can mimic crusted lesions, but classic recurrent neurotropic lip lesions are viral caused by HSV.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
HSVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lactobacillus – Commensal oral or gastrointestinal bacterium, non-pathogenic for lip vesicular lesions.
ā Candidiasis – Fungal infection presenting as white curd-like plaques or erythematous patches, not fluid-filled neurotropic vesicles.
ā Streptococcus – Causes impetigo (bullous/non-bullous crusted lesions) or pharyngitis, but non-vesicular recurrent labial clusters.SYNOPSIS
ā Herpes labialis is caused by Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1), which resides latent in the trigeminal ganglion.
ā Streptococcal impetigo can mimic crusted lesions, but classic recurrent neurotropic lip lesions are viral caused by HSV.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier 2016. -
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
A 42-year-old patient with a right submandibular space infection secondary to an infected mandibular second molar was prescribed a 7-day course of Clindamycin. Three days later, the patient developed severe watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and fever. What is the underlying cause of these symptoms?
Correct
ANSWER
Pseudomembranous colitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Systemic bacteremia – Causes high-grade fever, chills, and sepsis markers, but not isolated acute secretory pseudomembranous diarrhea.
ā Allergic drug reaction – Causes urticaria, rash, or anaphylaxis rather than toxin-mediated colonic inflammation.
ā Amoebic dysentery – Parasitic infection unrelated to systemic clindamycin therapy.SYNOPSIS
ā Clindamycin disrupts normal intestinal flora, predisposing to overgrowth of Clostridioides difficile.
ā C. difficile produces Toxin A and Toxin B, leading to pseudomembranous colitis.
ā Symptoms include profuse watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis.REFERENCE
Tripathi KD. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. Jaypee Brothers, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Pseudomembranous colitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Systemic bacteremia – Causes high-grade fever, chills, and sepsis markers, but not isolated acute secretory pseudomembranous diarrhea.
ā Allergic drug reaction – Causes urticaria, rash, or anaphylaxis rather than toxin-mediated colonic inflammation.
ā Amoebic dysentery – Parasitic infection unrelated to systemic clindamycin therapy.SYNOPSIS
ā Clindamycin disrupts normal intestinal flora, predisposing to overgrowth of Clostridioides difficile.
ā C. difficile produces Toxin A and Toxin B, leading to pseudomembranous colitis.
ā Symptoms include profuse watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis.REFERENCE
Tripathi KD. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology. 8th ed. Jaypee Brothers, 2019. -
Question 38 of 150
38. Question
A 29-year-old patient presents to the emergency dental clinic with severe, throbbing pain and a visible localized, fluctuant swelling over the vestibular mucosa adjacent to a grossly carious lower first molar. What is the primary initial surgical management?
Correct
ANSWER
Incision and drainage (I&D) and removing infectious causeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Prescribe antibiotics and analgesics only – Antibiotics cannot penetrate an avascular abscess cavity effectively without mechanical decompression.
ā Extraction only – Immediate extraction without decompressing severe active soft tissue swelling may spread infection if anesthesia fails or trismus is present.
ā Incision and drainage only – Drainage without eliminating the source (endodontic treatment or extraction) leads to recurrence.SYNOPSIS
ā Surgical principle for acute dental abscess with fluctuant space swelling is immediate Incision and Drainage (I&D) to relieve tension, lower bacterial load, and promote healing.
ā Removing the source of infection (pulpal debridement or extraction) must accompany or closely follow drainage.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
Incision and drainage (I&D) and removing infectious causeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Prescribe antibiotics and analgesics only – Antibiotics cannot penetrate an avascular abscess cavity effectively without mechanical decompression.
ā Extraction only – Immediate extraction without decompressing severe active soft tissue swelling may spread infection if anesthesia fails or trismus is present.
ā Incision and drainage only – Drainage without eliminating the source (endodontic treatment or extraction) leads to recurrence.SYNOPSIS
ā Surgical principle for acute dental abscess with fluctuant space swelling is immediate Incision and Drainage (I&D) to relieve tension, lower bacterial load, and promote healing.
ā Removing the source of infection (pulpal debridement or extraction) must accompany or closely follow drainage.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2018. -
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
A patient treated for an odontogenic infection with oral Amoxicillin returns 3 days later complaining of severe abdominal cramps and watery diarrhea. The dentist suspects Clostridioides difficile colitis and immediately discontinues Amoxicillin. What is the standard antibiotic management?
Correct
ANSWER
Stop medicine and change to metronidazoleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Add fluconazole to ongoing medication – Fluconazole is an antifungal; it has no activity against bacterial C. difficile.
ā Increase amoxicillin dosage – Exacerbates normal flora suppression and worsens colitis.
ā Switch to clindamycin – Clindamycin carries the highest risk of worsening C. difficile colitis.SYNOPSIS
ā First step in managing antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis is stopping the offending broad-spectrum beta-lactam.
ā Mild-to-moderate initial episodes are managed with oral Metronidazole or oral Vancomycin to eradicate C. difficile.REFERENCE
Brunton LL, Hilal-Dandan R, Knollmann BC. Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics. 13th ed. McGraw-Hill; 2017.Incorrect
ANSWER
Stop medicine and change to metronidazoleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Add fluconazole to ongoing medication – Fluconazole is an antifungal; it has no activity against bacterial C. difficile.
ā Increase amoxicillin dosage – Exacerbates normal flora suppression and worsens colitis.
ā Switch to clindamycin – Clindamycin carries the highest risk of worsening C. difficile colitis.SYNOPSIS
ā First step in managing antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis is stopping the offending broad-spectrum beta-lactam.
ā Mild-to-moderate initial episodes are managed with oral Metronidazole or oral Vancomycin to eradicate C. difficile.REFERENCE
Brunton LL, Hilal-Dandan R, Knollmann BC. Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics. 13th ed. McGraw-Hill; 2017. -
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
What should be the INR value for the extraction of tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Less than 3OTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Safe INR range for dental extraction is less than or equal to 3ā3.5
ā Minor oral surgery can be performed without stopping anticoagulants
ā Local hemostatic measures are essential
ā Avoid discontinuing anticoagulants unnecessarily
ā Physician consultation is necessary if INR is higher or procedure is extensiveREFERENCE
Little JW. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Less than 3OTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Safe INR range for dental extraction is less than or equal to 3ā3.5
ā Minor oral surgery can be performed without stopping anticoagulants
ā Local hemostatic measures are essential
ā Avoid discontinuing anticoagulants unnecessarily
ā Physician consultation is necessary if INR is higher or procedure is extensiveREFERENCE
Little JW. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th Edition -
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
During extraction of a mandibular third molar, excessive or uncontrolled force may lead to displacement of the tooth into adjacent fascial spaces. The clinician must identify the most likely space where the tooth may be displaced. In which space is a displaced lower third molar most likely to be found?
Correct
ANSWER
Submandibular spaceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sublingual space – Possible if roots are above mylohyoid, but less common for third molars
ā Submental space – Located anteriorly, not related to third molar region
ā Infratemporal space – Associated with maxillary third molarsSYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular third molar roots are often below mylohyoid line
ā Perforation of lingual plate can displace tooth into submandibular space
ā Proper technique prevents such complicationsREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Submandibular spaceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sublingual space – Possible if roots are above mylohyoid, but less common for third molars
ā Submental space – Located anteriorly, not related to third molar region
ā Infratemporal space – Associated with maxillary third molarsSYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular third molar roots are often below mylohyoid line
ā Perforation of lingual plate can displace tooth into submandibular space
ā Proper technique prevents such complicationsREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th Edition -
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
After extraction of a mandibular third molar, the adjacent second molar region may develop periodontal defects due to bone loss and healing patterns. What type of defect commonly occurs after wisdom tooth extraction?
Correct
ANSWER
Vertical resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Horizontal resorption – Generalized bone loss, not typical localized defectSYNOPSIS
ā Vertical (intrabony) defects commonly occur distal to second molar
ā Caused by surgical trauma and plaque accumulation
ā More common in older patients
ā May lead to periodontal pocket formation
ā Requires proper post-operative care and monitoringREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Vertical resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Horizontal resorption – Generalized bone loss, not typical localized defectSYNOPSIS
ā Vertical (intrabony) defects commonly occur distal to second molar
ā Caused by surgical trauma and plaque accumulation
ā More common in older patients
ā May lead to periodontal pocket formation
ā Requires proper post-operative care and monitoringREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th Edition -
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
A 24-year-old patient at 32 weeks of gestation presents for treatment of a painful carious tooth. Which dental chair position may induce hypotension during treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
SupineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In advanced pregnancy (especially third trimester), the supine position can cause supine hypotensive syndrome
ā Enlarged uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and there is reduced venous return to heart
ā Decreased cardiac output results in hypotension
ā Correct Dental Positioning
– Left lateral tilt position
– Place pillow under right hip
– Avoid complete supine position
– Semi-supine with slight tilt is acceptableREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
SupineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In advanced pregnancy (especially third trimester), the supine position can cause supine hypotensive syndrome
ā Enlarged uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and there is reduced venous return to heart
ā Decreased cardiac output results in hypotension
ā Correct Dental Positioning
– Left lateral tilt position
– Place pillow under right hip
– Avoid complete supine position
– Semi-supine with slight tilt is acceptableREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
A 52 years old woman on zometa injections for the treatment of breast cancer came to the clinic with a non-healing extraction socket with purulent discharge and pain caused due the extracted tooth few weeks prior. What would be the most appropriate treatment of choice?
Correct
ANSWER
Chlorhexidine mouthwashOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Zometa is the brand name of Zoledronic acid
ā It is an intravenous bisphosphonate used in metastatic breast cancer and is strongly associated with Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw
ā This patient likely has Stage 2 MRONJ (pain + infection + exposed bone).
ā According to American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons, Stage 2 MRONJ Management is
– Chlorhexidine mouth rinse
– Systemic antibiotics
– Pain control
– Superficial debridement only if sharp bone causes irritation
ā Aggressive surgical debridement is not first-line because
– It may worsen necrosis
– Bone healing capacity is compromised
ā Conservative management is preferred initiallyREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
Chlorhexidine mouthwashOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Zometa is the brand name of Zoledronic acid
ā It is an intravenous bisphosphonate used in metastatic breast cancer and is strongly associated with Medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw
ā This patient likely has Stage 2 MRONJ (pain + infection + exposed bone).
ā According to American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons, Stage 2 MRONJ Management is
– Chlorhexidine mouth rinse
– Systemic antibiotics
– Pain control
– Superficial debridement only if sharp bone causes irritation
ā Aggressive surgical debridement is not first-line because
– It may worsen necrosis
– Bone healing capacity is compromised
ā Conservative management is preferred initiallyREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
What is the most common complication occurring in class C mesioangular impaction of third molar?
Correct
ANSWER
Injury to the inferior alveolar nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fracture of second molar – Uncommon
ā Fracture of bone – Rare unless excessive force used.
ā Trismus – Common after surgery but not specific to deep Class C impactionSYNOPSIS
ā A Class C impaction (according to Pell & Gregory classification) indicates that the impacted third molar is positioned below the cervical line of the second molar, i.e., deeply placed in bone.
ā Roots are often close to or superimposed on the mandibular canal so it’s removal may require extensive bone removal which may lead to temporary paresthesia or rarely permanent inferior alveolar nerve injury.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
Injury to the inferior alveolar nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fracture of second molar – Uncommon
ā Fracture of bone – Rare unless excessive force used.
ā Trismus – Common after surgery but not specific to deep Class C impactionSYNOPSIS
ā A Class C impaction (according to Pell & Gregory classification) indicates that the impacted third molar is positioned below the cervical line of the second molar, i.e., deeply placed in bone.
ā Roots are often close to or superimposed on the mandibular canal so it’s removal may require extensive bone removal which may lead to temporary paresthesia or rarely permanent inferior alveolar nerve injury.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
A patient presents 3ā4 days after mandibular molar extraction with severe pain, foul odor, and pus from the socket. What is the appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Systemic antibiotics, surgical debridement followed by chlorhexidine mouthwashOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Classic dry socket – Severe pain, empty socket, exposed bone, no pus
ā Dry socket with pus – Secondary infection present
ā If pus is present, this suggests infected alveolar osteitis, so management must address infection.
ā Proper Management
– Gentle irrigation (normal saline or chlorhexidine)
– Removal of necrotic debris (careful surgical debridement)
– Systemic antibiotics (if infection present)
– Analgesics
– Chlorhexidine mouthwashREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
Systemic antibiotics, surgical debridement followed by chlorhexidine mouthwashOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Classic dry socket – Severe pain, empty socket, exposed bone, no pus
ā Dry socket with pus – Secondary infection present
ā If pus is present, this suggests infected alveolar osteitis, so management must address infection.
ā Proper Management
– Gentle irrigation (normal saline or chlorhexidine)
– Removal of necrotic debris (careful surgical debridement)
– Systemic antibiotics (if infection present)
– Analgesics
– Chlorhexidine mouthwashREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 47 of 150
47. Question
Which nerve carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
Correct
ANSWER
Chorda tympani nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lingual nerve – General sensation (pain, touch, temperature), not taste
ā Glossopharyngeal nerve – Taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
ā Hypoglossal nerve – Motor nerve to tongue musclesSYNOPSIS
ā Taste sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue is by Chorda tympani nerve
ā Chorda tympani is aĀ branch of the facial nerve
ā It joins the lingual nerve to reach the tongueREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Chorda tympani nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lingual nerve – General sensation (pain, touch, temperature), not taste
ā Glossopharyngeal nerve – Taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
ā Hypoglossal nerve – Motor nerve to tongue musclesSYNOPSIS
ā Taste sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue is by Chorda tympani nerve
ā Chorda tympani is aĀ branch of the facial nerve
ā It joins the lingual nerve to reach the tongueREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
A 35-year-old patient reports to the dental clinic one day after receiving an inferior alveolar nerve block for a mandibular molar extraction. The patient complains of pain and difficulty in opening and closing the mouth (trismus). This complication is most commonly due to injury or inflammation of which muscle?
Correct
ANSWER
Medial pterygoid muscleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Masseter muscle – Involved in submasseteric infections, not typically injured during IANB.
ā Temporalis muscle – Causes trismus mainly in coronoid or temporal space pathology, not post-IANB
ā Lateral pterygoid muscle – More commonly involved in TMJ disorders rather than post-injection trismus.SYNOPSIS
ā The inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB) is administered in the pterygomandibular space, which lies in close proximity to the medial pterygoid muscle.
ā Trismus following IANB commonly results from
– Direct needle trauma
– Hematoma formation
– Myositis or spasm of the medial pterygoid muscle
ā Spasm or inflammation of this muscle leads to painful restriction of mandibular opening and closing.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Medial pterygoid muscleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Masseter muscle – Involved in submasseteric infections, not typically injured during IANB.
ā Temporalis muscle – Causes trismus mainly in coronoid or temporal space pathology, not post-IANB
ā Lateral pterygoid muscle – More commonly involved in TMJ disorders rather than post-injection trismus.SYNOPSIS
ā The inferior alveolar nerve block (IANB) is administered in the pterygomandibular space, which lies in close proximity to the medial pterygoid muscle.
ā Trismus following IANB commonly results from
– Direct needle trauma
– Hematoma formation
– Myositis or spasm of the medial pterygoid muscle
ā Spasm or inflammation of this muscle leads to painful restriction of mandibular opening and closing.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
Which local anaesthetic technique can anesthetize both hard (pulp, bone) and soft tissues (buccal and lingual gingiva) of the lower posterior teeth region with a single injection?
Correct
ANSWER
Gow gatesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inferior alveolar nerve block – Does not anesthetize buccal soft tissues (needs long buccal nerve block separately)
ā Posterior superior alveolar nerve block – Maxillary nerve block.
ā Infraorbital nerve block – Anesthetizes maxillary anterior and premolar regionSYNOPSIS
ā The Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block anesthetizes the entire mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve.
ā Nerves commonly anesthetized include
– Inferior alveolar nerve – pulps of mandibular teeth
– Lingual nerve – lingual gingiva and mucosa
– Long buccal nerve (often) – buccal gingiva of posterior teeth
ā Hence, both hard and soft tissues of the lower posterior region are anesthetized with one injection.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Gow gatesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inferior alveolar nerve block – Does not anesthetize buccal soft tissues (needs long buccal nerve block separately)
ā Posterior superior alveolar nerve block – Maxillary nerve block.
ā Infraorbital nerve block – Anesthetizes maxillary anterior and premolar regionSYNOPSIS
ā The Gow-Gates mandibular nerve block anesthetizes the entire mandibular division (V3) of the trigeminal nerve.
ā Nerves commonly anesthetized include
– Inferior alveolar nerve – pulps of mandibular teeth
– Lingual nerve – lingual gingiva and mucosa
– Long buccal nerve (often) – buccal gingiva of posterior teeth
ā Hence, both hard and soft tissues of the lower posterior region are anesthetized with one injection.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
What are the contents of the anesthetic carpule?
Correct
ANSWER
Aesthetic agent, vasoconstrictor, preservative, sodium chloride, distilled waterOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā A standard local anesthetic dental carpule contains multiple components to ensure efficacy, stability, and isotonicity.
ā Contents of an anesthetic carpule
– Local anesthetic agent (e.g., lidocaine) ā produces anesthesia
– Vasoconstrictor (e.g., epinephrine) ā prolongs duration, reduces toxicity & bleeding
– Preservative (e.g., sodium metabisulfite) ā prevents oxidation of vasoconstrictor
– Sodium chloride ā makes the solution isotonic with body fluids
– Distilled water ā vehicle (solvent)
(Some solutions may also contain sodium hydroxide or hydrochloric acid for pH adjustment.)REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Aesthetic agent, vasoconstrictor, preservative, sodium chloride, distilled waterOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā A standard local anesthetic dental carpule contains multiple components to ensure efficacy, stability, and isotonicity.
ā Contents of an anesthetic carpule
– Local anesthetic agent (e.g., lidocaine) ā produces anesthesia
– Vasoconstrictor (e.g., epinephrine) ā prolongs duration, reduces toxicity & bleeding
– Preservative (e.g., sodium metabisulfite) ā prevents oxidation of vasoconstrictor
– Sodium chloride ā makes the solution isotonic with body fluids
– Distilled water ā vehicle (solvent)
(Some solutions may also contain sodium hydroxide or hydrochloric acid for pH adjustment.)REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
What is the characteristic features of systemic local anesthesia toxicity?
Correct
ANSWER
Post convulsion depressionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Systemic local anesthetic toxicity (LAST) primarily affects the central nervous system, and it shows a biphasic pattern.
ā Typical sequence of CNS effects
– Initial excitation ā anxiety, talkativeness, tremors
– Convulsions ā due to inhibition of inhibitory neurons
– Post-convulsion depression ā characteristic feature
– CNS depression
– Respiratory depression
– Possible coma and cardiovascular collapse
ā Therefore, the hallmark or characteristic feature of systemic local anesthetic toxicity is depression following convulsions, not convulsions alone.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Post convulsion depressionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Systemic local anesthetic toxicity (LAST) primarily affects the central nervous system, and it shows a biphasic pattern.
ā Typical sequence of CNS effects
– Initial excitation ā anxiety, talkativeness, tremors
– Convulsions ā due to inhibition of inhibitory neurons
– Post-convulsion depression ā characteristic feature
– CNS depression
– Respiratory depression
– Possible coma and cardiovascular collapse
ā Therefore, the hallmark or characteristic feature of systemic local anesthetic toxicity is depression following convulsions, not convulsions alone.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
A patient in your dental clinic develops discomfort and warmth after receiving local anesthesia. On examination, blood pressure is 100-75 mmHg. The patient also reports being on arthritis medication (likely long-term corticosteroids). What condition does this most likely represent?
Correct
ANSWER
Adrenal crisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hyperglycemia – Symptoms are polyuria, polydipsia not sudden hypotension.
ā Adrenal insufficiency – Chronic form, acute emergency is adrenal crisis.
ā Hyperthyroidism – It causes tachycardia, anxiety, and hypertension not hypotension.SYNOPSIS
ā If the patient is on long-term steroid therapy for arthritis (e.g., prednisolone), their adrenal gland may be suppressed.
ā Stress from dental treatment can lead to acute adrenal crisis.,
ā Hypotension is the earliest and most important sign.
– BP 100-75 mmHg is low for a stressed state.
– Warm or weak feeling and discomfort further support a circulatory collapse picture.
ā Patients on long-term steroids need stress dose steroid supplementation before major dental procedures to prevent adrenal crisis.REFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Adrenal crisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hyperglycemia – Symptoms are polyuria, polydipsia not sudden hypotension.
ā Adrenal insufficiency – Chronic form, acute emergency is adrenal crisis.
ā Hyperthyroidism – It causes tachycardia, anxiety, and hypertension not hypotension.SYNOPSIS
ā If the patient is on long-term steroid therapy for arthritis (e.g., prednisolone), their adrenal gland may be suppressed.
ā Stress from dental treatment can lead to acute adrenal crisis.,
ā Hypotension is the earliest and most important sign.
– BP 100-75 mmHg is low for a stressed state.
– Warm or weak feeling and discomfort further support a circulatory collapse picture.
ā Patients on long-term steroids need stress dose steroid supplementation before major dental procedures to prevent adrenal crisis.REFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th Edition -
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
What medical conditions may precipitate syncope?
1.Hypoglycemia
2.Mild hyperglycemia
3.Anti-hypertensive drugs with gang ionic blocking agent
4.Antidepressant therapyCorrect
ANSWER
1, 3, and 4 are correctOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Hypoglycemia leads to decrease brain glucose which leads to dizziness and inturn trigger syncope.
ā Ganglionic-blocking antihypertensives can cause postural hypotension that can lead to syncope
ā Antidepressants (esp. TCAs, SSRIs) causes orthostatic hypotension that leads to syncope
ā Mild hyperglycemia does not typically cause fainting – usually asymptomaticREFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
1, 3, and 4 are correctOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Hypoglycemia leads to decrease brain glucose which leads to dizziness and inturn trigger syncope.
ā Ganglionic-blocking antihypertensives can cause postural hypotension that can lead to syncope
ā Antidepressants (esp. TCAs, SSRIs) causes orthostatic hypotension that leads to syncope
ā Mild hyperglycemia does not typically cause fainting – usually asymptomaticREFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th Edition -
Question 54 of 150
54. Question

Identify the parts of dental forceps marked A,B and C?
Correct
ANSWER
Beak, hinge, handleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The components of dental forceps are Handle, hinge, beak
ā Handle (C)- The part gripped by the operator, often serrated for a firm grip.
ā Hinge (or Joint)(B) – Connects the two handles and allows them to pivot.
ā Beak (or Tip)(A) – The active, functional working end that engages the tooth root.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Beak, hinge, handleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The components of dental forceps are Handle, hinge, beak
ā Handle (C)- The part gripped by the operator, often serrated for a firm grip.
ā Hinge (or Joint)(B) – Connects the two handles and allows them to pivot.
ā Beak (or Tip)(A) – The active, functional working end that engages the tooth root.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
Which is the forceps used for the extraction of maxillary upper premolar?
Correct
ANSWER
150OTHER OPTIONS
ā 88L – 88R – Used for upper first and second molars.
ā 120 – A specialized bayonet-style forceps commonly used for upper third molars (not generally for premolars).
ā 151 – Used for lower (mandibular) premolars, not upper.SYNOPSIS
ā The forceps used for the extraction of maxillary upper premolars is the 150 (specifically, 150 or 150A).
ā 150 (Universal Upper Forceps) –Ā Designed with a gentle curve to match the maxillary arch, these are ideal for upper premolars, incisors, and canines.
ā 150A – An apical version often preferred for premolar extraction.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
150OTHER OPTIONS
ā 88L – 88R – Used for upper first and second molars.
ā 120 – A specialized bayonet-style forceps commonly used for upper third molars (not generally for premolars).
ā 151 – Used for lower (mandibular) premolars, not upper.SYNOPSIS
ā The forceps used for the extraction of maxillary upper premolars is the 150 (specifically, 150 or 150A).
ā 150 (Universal Upper Forceps) –Ā Designed with a gentle curve to match the maxillary arch, these are ideal for upper premolars, incisors, and canines.
ā 150A – An apical version often preferred for premolar extraction.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
What will be the management of skeletal class III malocclusion due to retrognathic maxilla?
Correct
ANSWER
Lefort advancementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Genioplasty ā corrects chin deformity, not maxillary deficiencySYNOPSIS
ā Skeletal Class III malocclusion due to retrognathic maxilla results from maxillary deficiency rather than mandibular excess
ā The treatment of choice is maxillary advancement, commonly performed using Le Fort I osteotomy
ā Advancing the maxilla improves facial profile, occlusion, and functional relationship between the jawsREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Lefort advancementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Genioplasty ā corrects chin deformity, not maxillary deficiencySYNOPSIS
ā Skeletal Class III malocclusion due to retrognathic maxilla results from maxillary deficiency rather than mandibular excess
ā The treatment of choice is maxillary advancement, commonly performed using Le Fort I osteotomy
ā Advancing the maxilla improves facial profile, occlusion, and functional relationship between the jawsREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
What is the purpose of using saline irrigation during oral surgery?
Correct
ANSWER
Decreases heat to avoid bone necrosis in cuttingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Bone cutting with burs or surgical drills generates significant heat due to friction
ā Saline irrigation is used during oral surgery to cool the surgical site and prevent thermal injury to bone
ā Excessive heat can cause bone necrosis and impair healing and osseous regenerationREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Decreases heat to avoid bone necrosis in cuttingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Bone cutting with burs or surgical drills generates significant heat due to friction
ā Saline irrigation is used during oral surgery to cool the surgical site and prevent thermal injury to bone
ā Excessive heat can cause bone necrosis and impair healing and osseous regenerationREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
Which nerve can be affected during mentoplasty or genioplasty?
Correct
ANSWER
Lower branch of the facial nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Mentoplasty or genioplasty involves surgical procedures in the chin region for correction of chin deformities
ā The marginal mandibular branch (lower branch) of the facial nerve is at risk during surgical dissection in this area
ā Injury to this nerve may lead to weakness or asymmetry of the lower lipREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Lower branch of the facial nerveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Mentoplasty or genioplasty involves surgical procedures in the chin region for correction of chin deformities
ā The marginal mandibular branch (lower branch) of the facial nerve is at risk during surgical dissection in this area
ā Injury to this nerve may lead to weakness or asymmetry of the lower lipREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
What condition represents tooth with incisal displacement without complete loosening from the socket?
Correct
ANSWER
LuxationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Extrusive Luxation (Extrusion) – The tooth is partially displaced out of its socket, appearing longer (incisally displaced) and is very mobile.
ā Subluxation – Loosening without displacement.
ā Concussion – Tender tooth, no loosening or displacement.
ā Dehiscence – A defect in the bone.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
LuxationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Extrusive Luxation (Extrusion) – The tooth is partially displaced out of its socket, appearing longer (incisally displaced) and is very mobile.
ā Subluxation – Loosening without displacement.
ā Concussion – Tender tooth, no loosening or displacement.
ā Dehiscence – A defect in the bone.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
In which type of fracture tripod fracture takes place?
Correct
ANSWER
Zygomatic complex fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Le Fort I fracture ā Horizontal maxillary fracture without the characteristic tripod involvement.
ā Le Fort II fracture ā Pyramidal fracture involving the central midface.
ā Le Fort III fracture ā Craniofacial dysjunction involving separation of the midface from the cranial base.SYNOPSIS
ā Zygomatic complex fracture is also known as a tripod fracture or trimalar fracture.
ā The fracture typically involves three major articulations of the zygoma: the frontozygomatic suture, zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and zygomatic arch/orbital region.
ā Because three principal fracture lines are involved, it is termed a ātripleā or ātripodā fracture.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Zygomatic complex fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Le Fort I fracture ā Horizontal maxillary fracture without the characteristic tripod involvement.
ā Le Fort II fracture ā Pyramidal fracture involving the central midface.
ā Le Fort III fracture ā Craniofacial dysjunction involving separation of the midface from the cranial base.SYNOPSIS
ā Zygomatic complex fracture is also known as a tripod fracture or trimalar fracture.
ā The fracture typically involves three major articulations of the zygoma: the frontozygomatic suture, zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and zygomatic arch/orbital region.
ā Because three principal fracture lines are involved, it is termed a ātripleā or ātripodā fracture.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
A patient reports for follow-up 24 months after replantation of an avulsed tooth. Clinical examination reveals ankylosis without evidence of root resorption. What is the expected future outcome regarding root resorption in such a tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Root resorption will increaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Root resorption will reduce greatly ā Ankylosed replanted teeth generally show progressive replacement resorption over time.SYNOPSIS
ā Ankylosis after tooth replantation commonly progresses to replacement root resorption because the root surface becomes fused directly to alveolar bone.
ā Over time, normal bone remodeling gradually replaces the root structure with bone, leading to progressive resorption.
ā According to the International Association of Dental Traumatology (IADT) guidelines, ankylosed replanted teeth should be monitored long term because replacement resorption is a common sequela, especially after delayed reimplantation.REFERENCE
IADT Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries ā Avulsion of Permanent TeethIncorrect
ANSWER
Root resorption will increaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Root resorption will reduce greatly ā Ankylosed replanted teeth generally show progressive replacement resorption over time.SYNOPSIS
ā Ankylosis after tooth replantation commonly progresses to replacement root resorption because the root surface becomes fused directly to alveolar bone.
ā Over time, normal bone remodeling gradually replaces the root structure with bone, leading to progressive resorption.
ā According to the International Association of Dental Traumatology (IADT) guidelines, ankylosed replanted teeth should be monitored long term because replacement resorption is a common sequela, especially after delayed reimplantation.REFERENCE
IADT Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries ā Avulsion of Permanent Teeth -
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
A patient undergoes oral surgery and returns for follow-up. The clinician explains that adequate revascularization of the wound is essential for successful healing. Approximately how long does it take for vascularity to become established during normal wound healing?
Correct
ANSWER
7ā14 daysOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Wound healing proceeds through inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling phases.
ā During the proliferative phase, angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation result in re-establishment of vascularity.
ā Functional vascularization of the wound is generally achieved within 7ā14 days, which is critical for tissue repair and resistance to infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
7ā14 daysOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Wound healing proceeds through inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling phases.
ā During the proliferative phase, angiogenesis and granulation tissue formation result in re-establishment of vascularity.
ā Functional vascularization of the wound is generally achieved within 7ā14 days, which is critical for tissue repair and resistance to infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition. -
Question 63 of 150
63. Question
What is the active ingredient of hemodent?
Correct
ANSWER
Aluminum chlorideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Ferric sulfate ā Ferric sulfate is a hemostatic agent used in some gingival retraction products but is not the active ingredient in Hemodent.
ā Zinc phosphate ā Zinc phosphate is used as a dental cement and has no hemostatic action.
ā Ferric chloride ā Ferric chloride is not used as the active ingredient in Hemodent.SYNOPSIS
ā Hemodent is an epinephrine-free gingival retraction solution used to control minor gingival bleeding during restorative and prosthodontic procedures.
ā Its active ingredient is aluminum chloride, which produces hemostasis by precipitating proteins and constricting superficial blood vessels.
ā Aluminum chloride is preferred because it provides effective hemostasis with minimal systemic effects compared with epinephrine-containing agents.REFERENCE
Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics – 4th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Aluminum chlorideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Ferric sulfate ā Ferric sulfate is a hemostatic agent used in some gingival retraction products but is not the active ingredient in Hemodent.
ā Zinc phosphate ā Zinc phosphate is used as a dental cement and has no hemostatic action.
ā Ferric chloride ā Ferric chloride is not used as the active ingredient in Hemodent.SYNOPSIS
ā Hemodent is an epinephrine-free gingival retraction solution used to control minor gingival bleeding during restorative and prosthodontic procedures.
ā Its active ingredient is aluminum chloride, which produces hemostasis by precipitating proteins and constricting superficial blood vessels.
ā Aluminum chloride is preferred because it provides effective hemostasis with minimal systemic effects compared with epinephrine-containing agents.REFERENCE
Shillingburg’s Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics – 4th Edition. -
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
A healthy young patient experiences persistent heavy bleeding following a tooth extraction. Which of the following local hemostatic agents is most effective for controlling the bleeding?
Correct
ANSWER
Oxidized celluloseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Gelatin sponge ā Gelatin sponge is an absorbable hemostatic agent but is less effective than oxidized cellulose in controlling active bleeding.
ā Bone wax ā Bone wax is used to control bleeding from cut bony surfaces and is not routinely used in extraction sockets.
ā Cotton soaked in epinephrine ā Epinephrine provides temporary vasoconstriction but is not considered the most effective local hemostatic measure for significant post-extraction bleeding.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent post-extraction bleeding is initially managed with direct pressure and local hemostatic measures.
ā Oxidized regenerated cellulose (e.g., Surgicel) acts as a matrix for clot formation and effectively controls capillary and venous bleeding.
ā Because it is absorbable and biocompatible, oxidized cellulose is widely used in oral and maxillofacial surgery to manage excessive bleeding.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Oxidized celluloseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Gelatin sponge ā Gelatin sponge is an absorbable hemostatic agent but is less effective than oxidized cellulose in controlling active bleeding.
ā Bone wax ā Bone wax is used to control bleeding from cut bony surfaces and is not routinely used in extraction sockets.
ā Cotton soaked in epinephrine ā Epinephrine provides temporary vasoconstriction but is not considered the most effective local hemostatic measure for significant post-extraction bleeding.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent post-extraction bleeding is initially managed with direct pressure and local hemostatic measures.
ā Oxidized regenerated cellulose (e.g., Surgicel) acts as a matrix for clot formation and effectively controls capillary and venous bleeding.
ā Because it is absorbable and biocompatible, oxidized cellulose is widely used in oral and maxillofacial surgery to manage excessive bleeding.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition. -
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
A 68-year-old completely edentulous patient desires a fixed implant-supported prosthesis in the mandible. Clinical examination reveals adequate bone volume between the mental foramina. According to standard prosthodontic guidelines, what is the minimum number of implants commonly recommended to support a fixed full-arch mandibular prosthesis?
Correct
ANSWER
4 implantsOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 implants ā Commonly used for implant-retained overdentures rather than fixed prostheses.
ā 5 implants ā May be used in selected situations but not considered the minimum recommendation.
ā 6 implants ā Provides additional support but is not routinely required.SYNOPSIS
ā Four implants placed between the mental foramina are commonly sufficient for a fixed full-arch mandibular prosthesis.
ā Two implants are the standard of care for mandibular overdentures.
ā Additional implants may be indicated depending on bone quality, occlusal load, and prosthetic design.REFERENCE
Contemporary Implant Dentistry ā Carl E. Misch ā 4th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
4 implantsOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 implants ā Commonly used for implant-retained overdentures rather than fixed prostheses.
ā 5 implants ā May be used in selected situations but not considered the minimum recommendation.
ā 6 implants ā Provides additional support but is not routinely required.SYNOPSIS
ā Four implants placed between the mental foramina are commonly sufficient for a fixed full-arch mandibular prosthesis.
ā Two implants are the standard of care for mandibular overdentures.
ā Additional implants may be indicated depending on bone quality, occlusal load, and prosthetic design.REFERENCE
Contemporary Implant Dentistry ā Carl E. Misch ā 4th Edition -
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
A 72-year-old edentulous patient is undergoing complete denture fabrication. During examination, the clinician identifies the area best suited to withstand occlusal forces because of its dense cortical bone and broad surface area. Which mandibular area is considered the primary stress-bearing area?
Correct
ANSWER
Buccal shelfOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hard palate ā Primary stress-bearing area of the maxillary denture.
ā Residual ridge slopes ā Considered secondary stress-bearing areas.
ā Cuspid eminence ā Does not contribute significantly to denture support.SYNOPSIS
ā The buccal shelf is the primary stress-bearing area of the mandibular denture.
ā It is covered by dense cortical bone and is oriented perpendicular to occlusal forces.
ā Proper extension over the buccal shelf improves denture support and stability.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Buccal shelfOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hard palate ā Primary stress-bearing area of the maxillary denture.
ā Residual ridge slopes ā Considered secondary stress-bearing areas.
ā Cuspid eminence ā Does not contribute significantly to denture support.SYNOPSIS
ā The buccal shelf is the primary stress-bearing area of the mandibular denture.
ā It is covered by dense cortical bone and is oriented perpendicular to occlusal forces.
ā Proper extension over the buccal shelf improves denture support and stability.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th Edition -
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
A 65-year-old patient returns one week after insertion of complete dentures complaining that the maxillary denture becomes loose whenever speaking. Clinical examination reveals excessive extension of the posterior palatal seal onto the movable soft palate. What is the most likely cause of denture dislodgement?
Correct
ANSWER
Overextended posterior palatal sealOTHER OPTIONS
ā Underextended posterior palatal seal ā Results in reduced retention rather than displacement during speech.
ā Increased vertical dimension ā Causes muscle fatigue and difficulty in speech but not posterior displacement.
ā Decreased vertical dimension ā Leads to overclosure and facial changes.SYNOPSIS
ā Overextension onto the movable soft palate causes denture displacement during functional movements.
ā The posterior palatal seal should terminate on compressible tissue without interfering with speech.
ā Proper border molding is essential for retention and stability.REFERENCE
Zarb & Bolender’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Overextended posterior palatal sealOTHER OPTIONS
ā Underextended posterior palatal seal ā Results in reduced retention rather than displacement during speech.
ā Increased vertical dimension ā Causes muscle fatigue and difficulty in speech but not posterior displacement.
ā Decreased vertical dimension ā Leads to overclosure and facial changes.SYNOPSIS
ā Overextension onto the movable soft palate causes denture displacement during functional movements.
ā The posterior palatal seal should terminate on compressible tissue without interfering with speech.
ā Proper border molding is essential for retention and stability.REFERENCE
Zarb & Bolender’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th Edition -
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
A 58-year-old patient requires extraction of multiple periodontally hopeless teeth. The patient works as a public speaker and is concerned about being without teeth after extraction. Which is the best indication for fabrication of an immediate complete denture?
Correct
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
ā Presence of posterior teeth only ā Not an indication for an immediate denture.SYNOPSIS
ā Immediate dentures are indicated when hopeless teeth require extraction and immediate tooth replacement is desired.
ā They preserve facial appearance and improve patient confidence.
ā Patients should be informed that relining or remaking may be necessary after healing.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
ā Presence of posterior teeth only ā Not an indication for an immediate denture.SYNOPSIS
ā Immediate dentures are indicated when hopeless teeth require extraction and immediate tooth replacement is desired.
ā They preserve facial appearance and improve patient confidence.
ā Patients should be informed that relining or remaking may be necessary after healing.REFERENCE
Boucher’s Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients ā 13th Edition -
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
A 34-year-old patient presents with pain associated with a mandibular first molar that underwent root canal treatment one month ago. Radiographic examination reveals a defective coronal restoration with evidence of coronal leakage. The tooth is restorable and has adequate periodontal support. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Nonsurgical root canal retreatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction ā Reserved for teeth that are non-restorable or have a hopeless prognosis.
ā Apicoectomy ā Considered when retreatment is not feasible or has failed.
ā Apexification ā Indicated for immature permanent teeth with open apices.SYNOPSIS
ā Coronal leakage is a common cause of endodontic failure.
ā Nonsurgical retreatment is the first-line treatment when the tooth is restorable.
ā A well-sealed definitive coronal restoration is essential for long-term success.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Nonsurgical root canal retreatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction ā Reserved for teeth that are non-restorable or have a hopeless prognosis.
ā Apicoectomy ā Considered when retreatment is not feasible or has failed.
ā Apexification ā Indicated for immature permanent teeth with open apices.SYNOPSIS
ā Coronal leakage is a common cause of endodontic failure.
ā Nonsurgical retreatment is the first-line treatment when the tooth is restorable.
ā A well-sealed definitive coronal restoration is essential for long-term success.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th Edition -
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
A 45-year-old patient reports mobility of a crown placed over a dental implant 8 months ago. Clinical examination reveals that the implant body is stable within the bone, but the prosthetic crown shows loosening.
What is the most common cause of loosening of the crown after implant placement?Correct
ANSWER
Mechanical complicationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā If implant body is stable and only crown is loose, the most common cause is abutment screw loosening (mechanical complication).
ā Since implant is stable the other options doesnot apply.REFERENCE
Misch CE. Contemporary Implant Dentistry, 3rd EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Mechanical complicationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā If implant body is stable and only crown is loose, the most common cause is abutment screw loosening (mechanical complication).
ā Since implant is stable the other options doesnot apply.REFERENCE
Misch CE. Contemporary Implant Dentistry, 3rd Edition -
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
A patient is advised to get a creamo-metal full veneer. You have planned to use epoxy resin for the die. Which is the best impression material to be used in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
PolyetherOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Epoxy resin cannot be used with agar and alginate impression materials.SYNOPSIS
⢠Epoxy resin is used with rubber-based impression materials like polyether, silicones, and polysulfide.
⢠Polyether impression is the best choice of material.
⢠The hydrophobic characteristics of silicone impression materials make them suitable for pouring of epoxy resin to produce dies.
⢠However, polysulphides are dimensionally unstable, hence it is not preferred.REFERENCE
Philips Science of Dental Materials, 12th Ed, Pg 161Incorrect
ANSWER
PolyetherOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Epoxy resin cannot be used with agar and alginate impression materials.SYNOPSIS
⢠Epoxy resin is used with rubber-based impression materials like polyether, silicones, and polysulfide.
⢠Polyether impression is the best choice of material.
⢠The hydrophobic characteristics of silicone impression materials make them suitable for pouring of epoxy resin to produce dies.
⢠However, polysulphides are dimensionally unstable, hence it is not preferred.REFERENCE
Philips Science of Dental Materials, 12th Ed, Pg 161 -
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
What is the temporary form representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo mandibular (jaw) relative record for arranging teeth or for trial insertion in the mouth called?
A.Bite rims
B.Custom tray
C.Set up
D.Base plateCorrect
ANSWER
D onlyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bite rims – Bite rims are occlusal rims
⢠Custom tray – An individualized impression tray made from a cast recovered from the primary impression. It is used in making a final impression.
⢠Set up – The setup is the arrangement of artificial denture teeth on a denture base suitable for the mouth.SYNOPSIS
⢠A temporary denture base is defined as ‘A temporary substance representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo-mandibular (jaw) relation record for arranging teeth.’ GPT
⢠Other names for temporary denture base
1. Base plate
2. Record base
3. Temporary base
4. Trial baseREFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics, Nallaswamy, pg 134Incorrect
ANSWER
D onlyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bite rims – Bite rims are occlusal rims
⢠Custom tray – An individualized impression tray made from a cast recovered from the primary impression. It is used in making a final impression.
⢠Set up – The setup is the arrangement of artificial denture teeth on a denture base suitable for the mouth.SYNOPSIS
⢠A temporary denture base is defined as ‘A temporary substance representing the base of a denture which is used for making maxillo-mandibular (jaw) relation record for arranging teeth.’ GPT
⢠Other names for temporary denture base
1. Base plate
2. Record base
3. Temporary base
4. Trial baseREFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics, Nallaswamy, pg 134 -
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
A dentist wants to disinfect a wax occlusal rim before sending it to the lab. Which is the most appropriate disinfectant?
Correct
ANSWER
GlutaraldehydeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Iodophor – It may stain the material and is less suitable for wax surfaces.
ā Alcohol – It can dissolve or distort the wax, affecting its shape and accuracy.
ā Chlorhexidine – It provides only low-level disinfection and may not be sufficient in this context.SYNOPSIS
ā Wax occlusal rims are sensitive to heat and certain chemicals.
ā The disinfectant must be effective without altering the material properties.
ā Glutaraldehyde provides adequate disinfection while preserving the wax structure.REFERENCE
Anusavice – Phillips Science of Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
GlutaraldehydeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Iodophor – It may stain the material and is less suitable for wax surfaces.
ā Alcohol – It can dissolve or distort the wax, affecting its shape and accuracy.
ā Chlorhexidine – It provides only low-level disinfection and may not be sufficient in this context.SYNOPSIS
ā Wax occlusal rims are sensitive to heat and certain chemicals.
ā The disinfectant must be effective without altering the material properties.
ā Glutaraldehyde provides adequate disinfection while preserving the wax structure.REFERENCE
Anusavice – Phillips Science of Dental Materials -
Question 74 of 150
74. Question

A 4-year-old boy is brought to the dental clinic with painless bilateral enlargement of the mandible, resulting in full cheeks and an upward gaze due to orbital floor involvement. Radiographic examination reveals multilocular radiolucencies affecting both sides of the jaw. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
CherubismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Central giant cell granuloma ā Usually unilateral and not inherited.
ā Hyperparathyroidism ā Produces brown tumors but lacks characteristic facial appearance.
ā Traumatic bone cyst ā Usually asymptomatic and unilocular.SYNOPSIS
ā Cherubism is an autosomal dominant fibro-osseous disorder.
ā It presents with bilateral mandibular enlargement during childhood.
ā The condition often stabilizes or regresses after puberty.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology ā 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
CherubismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Central giant cell granuloma ā Usually unilateral and not inherited.
ā Hyperparathyroidism ā Produces brown tumors but lacks characteristic facial appearance.
ā Traumatic bone cyst ā Usually asymptomatic and unilocular.SYNOPSIS
ā Cherubism is an autosomal dominant fibro-osseous disorder.
ā It presents with bilateral mandibular enlargement during childhood.
ā The condition often stabilizes or regresses after puberty.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology ā 5th Edition -
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
A 42-year-old patient complains of sharp pain when drinking cold water. Clinical examination reveals gingival recession with exposed cervical dentin and no evidence of caries. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Dentin hypersensitivity is characterized by short, sharp pain.
ā Exposure of dentinal tubules occurs due to erosion, abrasion, attrition, or gingival recession.
ā Diagnosis is made after excluding other causes such as caries or cracked tooth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Dentin hypersensitivity is characterized by short, sharp pain.
ā Exposure of dentinal tubules occurs due to erosion, abrasion, attrition, or gingival recession.
ā Diagnosis is made after excluding other causes such as caries or cracked tooth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th Edition -
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
A 6-year-old child presents with multiple facial bruises of varying stages of healing. The accompanying caregiver provides an inconsistent history. According to safeguarding guidelines, what should be the dentist’s first action?
Correct
ANSWER
Take a detailed history and document findingsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inform the police ā Usually done through appropriate child protection authorities when indicated.
ā Take photographs ā Important documentation but follows clinical assessment and consent/policy.
ā Inform the parents ā May not be appropriate if they are suspected perpetrators.SYNOPSIS
ā Obtain and document a complete history and clinical findings.
ā Record injuries accurately using written notes and photographs when appropriate.
ā Follow local child protection reporting protocols.REFERENCE
AAPD Guideline on Oral and Dental Aspects of Child Abuse and NeglectIncorrect
ANSWER
Take a detailed history and document findingsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Inform the police ā Usually done through appropriate child protection authorities when indicated.
ā Take photographs ā Important documentation but follows clinical assessment and consent/policy.
ā Inform the parents ā May not be appropriate if they are suspected perpetrators.SYNOPSIS
ā Obtain and document a complete history and clinical findings.
ā Record injuries accurately using written notes and photographs when appropriate.
ā Follow local child protection reporting protocols.REFERENCE
AAPD Guideline on Oral and Dental Aspects of Child Abuse and Neglect -
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
A 16-year-old girl requests placement of a tooth jewel on her maxillary central incisor. She refuses to involve her parents, stating that her friends previously underwent the same procedure without parental permission. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Ask her to return with her parents or legal guardianOTHER OPTIONS
ā Perform the procedure ā Inappropriate without valid consent.
ā Refer to another dentist ā Does not resolve the consent issue.
ā Ask the dental assistant to convince her ā Ethically inappropriate.SYNOPSIS
ā Elective cosmetic procedures require valid informed consent.
ā Minors generally require parental or legal guardian consent depending on jurisdiction.
ā The dentist must always act in the patient’s best interests.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional ConductIncorrect
ANSWER
Ask her to return with her parents or legal guardianOTHER OPTIONS
ā Perform the procedure ā Inappropriate without valid consent.
ā Refer to another dentist ā Does not resolve the consent issue.
ā Ask the dental assistant to convince her ā Ethically inappropriate.SYNOPSIS
ā Elective cosmetic procedures require valid informed consent.
ā Minors generally require parental or legal guardian consent depending on jurisdiction.
ā The dentist must always act in the patient’s best interests.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct -
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
A patient requests a tooth-colored composite restoration. The dentist persuades the patient to accept an amalgam restoration solely because it is easier and faster for the dentist to perform. Which ethical principle has been violated?
Correct
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Veracity ā Refers to truthfulness.
ā Non-maleficence ā Means avoiding harm.
ā Justice ā Refers to fairness in treatment.SYNOPSIS
ā Patient autonomy allows individuals to make informed treatment decisions.
ā Dentists should present all appropriate treatment options objectively.
ā Treatment should not be influenced by the dentist’s personal convenience.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional ConductIncorrect
ANSWER
AutonomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Veracity ā Refers to truthfulness.
ā Non-maleficence ā Means avoiding harm.
ā Justice ā Refers to fairness in treatment.SYNOPSIS
ā Patient autonomy allows individuals to make informed treatment decisions.
ā Dentists should present all appropriate treatment options objectively.
ā Treatment should not be influenced by the dentist’s personal convenience.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct -
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
A patient decides to continue treatment at another dental clinic and requests copies of all previous radiographs. What is the most appropriate response?
Correct
ANSWER
Keep the originals and provide copies of all radiographsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Give all original radiographs ā Originals are part of the dental record.
ā Give only selected radiographs ā The patient is entitled to copies of the relevant records.
ā Refuse the request ā Inappropriate unless legally restricted.SYNOPSIS
ā Dental records belong to the treating dentist or institution.
ā Patients have the right to access copies of their records.
ā Original records should be retained according to legal requirements.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional ConductIncorrect
ANSWER
Keep the originals and provide copies of all radiographsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Give all original radiographs ā Originals are part of the dental record.
ā Give only selected radiographs ā The patient is entitled to copies of the relevant records.
ā Refuse the request ā Inappropriate unless legally restricted.SYNOPSIS
ā Dental records belong to the treating dentist or institution.
ā Patients have the right to access copies of their records.
ā Original records should be retained according to legal requirements.REFERENCE
ADA Principles of Ethics and Code of Professional Conduct -
Question 80 of 150
80. Question

A patient presents following facial trauma. The radiograph demonstrates separation of the maxilla from the midface with fracture lines extending through the nasal bridge, medial orbital walls, orbital floor, and zygomatic arches, resulting in complete craniofacial dysjunction. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Le Fort III fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pyramidal (Le Fort II) fracture ā Produces pyramidal separation but not craniofacial dysjunction.
ā Le Fort I fracture ā Horizontal fracture above the maxillary teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort III produces complete separation of the facial skeleton from the cranial base.
ā It involves the zygomatic arches and orbital walls.
ā It is the most severe of the Le Fort fracture patterns.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Le Fort III fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pyramidal (Le Fort II) fracture ā Produces pyramidal separation but not craniofacial dysjunction.
ā Le Fort I fracture ā Horizontal fracture above the maxillary teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort III produces complete separation of the facial skeleton from the cranial base.
ā It involves the zygomatic arches and orbital walls.
ā It is the most severe of the Le Fort fracture patterns.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th Edition -
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
A 2-year-old child is brought for a routine dental examination. The family lives in an area where the drinking water fluoride concentration is 0.3 ppm. The child is at moderate risk for dental caries. According to the ADA fluoride supplementation schedule, what is the recommended daily fluoride supplement?
Correct
ANSWER
0.25 mg/dayOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.5 mg/day ā Recommended for older children depending on age and water fluoride level.
ā 1 mg/day ā Recommended only for older children in low-fluoride areas.
ā No fluoride supplement ā Incorrect for a child at caries risk living in a low-fluoride area.SYNOPSIS
ā Children aged 6 months to 3 years living in areas with fluoride concentration below 0.3 ppm should receive 0.25 mg/day fluoride supplementation.
ā Fluoride supplementation should be based on age, caries risk, and fluoride concentration in drinking water.
ā Excessive fluoride intake should be avoided to prevent fluorosis.REFERENCE
ADA Clinical Practice Guidelines for Fluoride UseIncorrect
ANSWER
0.25 mg/dayOTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.5 mg/day ā Recommended for older children depending on age and water fluoride level.
ā 1 mg/day ā Recommended only for older children in low-fluoride areas.
ā No fluoride supplement ā Incorrect for a child at caries risk living in a low-fluoride area.SYNOPSIS
ā Children aged 6 months to 3 years living in areas with fluoride concentration below 0.3 ppm should receive 0.25 mg/day fluoride supplementation.
ā Fluoride supplementation should be based on age, caries risk, and fluoride concentration in drinking water.
ā Excessive fluoride intake should be avoided to prevent fluorosis.REFERENCE
ADA Clinical Practice Guidelines for Fluoride Use -
Question 82 of 150
82. Question

A 67-year-old partially edentulous patient has a single edentulous area crossing the midline and located anterior to all remaining natural teeth. Which Kennedy classification best describes this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I ā Bilateral posterior edentulous areas.
ā Class II ā Unilateral posterior edentulous area.
ā Class III ā Unilateral bounded edentulous area.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class IV consists of a single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline.
ā No modification spaces are permitted in Class IV.
ā Classification assists in planning removable partial dentures.REFERENCE
Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics ā 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Class IVOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I ā Bilateral posterior edentulous areas.
ā Class II ā Unilateral posterior edentulous area.
ā Class III ā Unilateral bounded edentulous area.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class IV consists of a single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline.
ā No modification spaces are permitted in Class IV.
ā Classification assists in planning removable partial dentures.REFERENCE
Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics ā 5th Edition -
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
A patient returns after full-mouth scaling and root planing and asks when the gingival tissues will regain normal healing and epithelial attachment. Approximately how long does this healing process take?
Correct
ANSWER
6 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 weeks ā Initial healing occurs but maturation is incomplete.
ā 1 month ā Connective tissue healing is still ongoing.
ā 2 months ā Usually longer than required for routine periodontal healing.SYNOPSIS
ā Initial epithelial healing occurs within 1ā2 weeks.
ā Complete soft tissue healing generally requires approximately 6 weeks.
ā Oral hygiene maintenance is essential during healing.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
6 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 weeks ā Initial healing occurs but maturation is incomplete.
ā 1 month ā Connective tissue healing is still ongoing.
ā 2 months ā Usually longer than required for routine periodontal healing.SYNOPSIS
ā Initial epithelial healing occurs within 1ā2 weeks.
ā Complete soft tissue healing generally requires approximately 6 weeks.
ā Oral hygiene maintenance is essential during healing.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th Edition -
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
A patient with a long-standing asymptomatic periapical radiolucency suddenly develops severe pain and swelling associated with the involved tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Phoenix abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical granuloma ā Usually asymptomatic chronic lesion.
ā Radicular cyst ā Chronic inflammatory cyst with slow progression.
ā Osteomyelitis ā Diffuse infection involving bone.SYNOPSIS
ā A Phoenix abscess represents acute exacerbation of a chronic periapical lesion.
ā It develops when bacteria become more virulent or host resistance decreases.
ā Endodontic treatment or retreatment is usually indicated.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Phoenix abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical granuloma ā Usually asymptomatic chronic lesion.
ā Radicular cyst ā Chronic inflammatory cyst with slow progression.
ā Osteomyelitis ā Diffuse infection involving bone.SYNOPSIS
ā A Phoenix abscess represents acute exacerbation of a chronic periapical lesion.
ā It develops when bacteria become more virulent or host resistance decreases.
ā Endodontic treatment or retreatment is usually indicated.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th Edition -
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
A 14-year-old boy presents with a grossly decayed mandibular first molar, a high maxillary labial frenum, midline diastema, increased overjet, and skeletal Class II malocclusion. Which sequence of treatment is most appropriate?
Correct
ANSWER
Extraction,Frenectomy,Diastema closure,Overjet reduction,Maxillary setbackOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction followed immediately by diastema closure ā Frenectomy should precede definitive space closure when indicated.
ā Orthognathic correction before eliminating pathology ā Incorrect sequence.SYNOPSIS
ā Disease control is the first priority.
ā Soft tissue abnormalities should be corrected before definitive orthodontic space closure.
ā Skeletal correction is performed after orthodontic preparation when indicated.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Extraction,Frenectomy,Diastema closure,Overjet reduction,Maxillary setbackOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraction followed immediately by diastema closure ā Frenectomy should precede definitive space closure when indicated.
ā Orthognathic correction before eliminating pathology ā Incorrect sequence.SYNOPSIS
ā Disease control is the first priority.
ā Soft tissue abnormalities should be corrected before definitive orthodontic space closure.
ā Skeletal correction is performed after orthodontic preparation when indicated.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th Edition -
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
A 10-year-old child presents with mild lower anterior crowding caused by lip pressure. The orthodontist decides to use a lip bumper. What is the primary indication for this appliance?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Lip bumpers eliminate excessive lip pressure.
ā They can increase arch length and relieve mild crowding.
ā They may also distalize mandibular molars and reinforce anchorage.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Lip bumpers eliminate excessive lip pressure.
ā They can increase arch length and relieve mild crowding.
ā They may also distalize mandibular molars and reinforce anchorage.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th Edition -
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
A growing patient with skeletal Class II malocclusion requires growth modification using a functional appliance. Which of the following appliances is classified as a functional appliance?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Functional appliances modify jaw growth during active growth.
ā They are most effective during the pubertal growth spurt.
ā Appliance selection depends on patient compliance and treatment objectives.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Functional appliances modify jaw growth during active growth.
ā They are most effective during the pubertal growth spurt.
ā Appliance selection depends on patient compliance and treatment objectives.REFERENCE
Proffit’s Contemporary Orthodontics ā 6th Edition -
Question 88 of 150
88. Question
A 7-year-old boy has a persistent thumb-sucking habit associated with developing anterior open bite. Counseling alone has failed despite repeated reinforcement. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Mechanical habit-breaking applianceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Physiological observation ā Appropriate only in younger children with self-limiting habits.
ā Reminder therapy ā Appropriate as an initial approach but has already failed.
ā T-Guard ā A removable reminder appliance but generally less effective than fixed habit-breaking appliances after failed behavior modification.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent thumb sucking beyond 6ā7 years requires intervention.
ā Behavioral therapy is the first-line treatment.
ā Fixed mechanical habit-breaking appliances are indicated when reminder therapy fails.REFERENCE
McDonald & Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent ā 11th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Mechanical habit-breaking applianceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Physiological observation ā Appropriate only in younger children with self-limiting habits.
ā Reminder therapy ā Appropriate as an initial approach but has already failed.
ā T-Guard ā A removable reminder appliance but generally less effective than fixed habit-breaking appliances after failed behavior modification.SYNOPSIS
ā Persistent thumb sucking beyond 6ā7 years requires intervention.
ā Behavioral therapy is the first-line treatment.
ā Fixed mechanical habit-breaking appliances are indicated when reminder therapy fails.REFERENCE
McDonald & Avery’s Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent ā 11th Edition -
Question 89 of 150
89. Question
During extraction of an impacted maxillary third molar, a large oroantral communication develops with extensive tearing of the Schneiderian membrane. The oral surgeon decides to use a buccal advancement (cul-de-sac) flap to achieve primary closure. Which of the following is an indication for the cul-de-sac approach?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā The cul-de-sac (buccal advancement) flap provides excellent access and soft tissue mobilization.
ā It is indicated for closure of oroantral communications and membrane repair.
ā It is also used during sinus augmentation procedures when additional access is required.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā The cul-de-sac (buccal advancement) flap provides excellent access and soft tissue mobilization.
ā It is indicated for closure of oroantral communications and membrane repair.
ā It is also used during sinus augmentation procedures when additional access is required.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th Edition -
Question 90 of 150
90. Question
A 72-year-old patient presents with cervical root caries associated with gingival recession on the mandibular canine. Moisture control is difficult because the lesion extends subgingivally. Which restorative material is the best choice?
Correct
ANSWER
GICOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) ā Primarily used for endodontic procedures.
ā Zinc oxide eugenol ā Temporary restorative material with poor wear resistance.
ā Amalgam ā Poor esthetics and limited adhesion to root surfaces.SYNOPSIS
ā GIC chemically bonds to dentin and cementum.
ā It releases fluoride, reducing recurrent caries.
ā It performs well in cervical and root surface lesions where moisture control is challenging.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
GICOTHER OPTIONS
ā Mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) ā Primarily used for endodontic procedures.
ā Zinc oxide eugenol ā Temporary restorative material with poor wear resistance.
ā Amalgam ā Poor esthetics and limited adhesion to root surfaces.SYNOPSIS
ā GIC chemically bonds to dentin and cementum.
ā It releases fluoride, reducing recurrent caries.
ā It performs well in cervical and root surface lesions where moisture control is challenging.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry ā 7th Edition -
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
During root canal treatment of a mandibular molar, an endodontic file fractures within the middle third of the canal. The canal is otherwise accessible under magnification. Which is the most appropriate method for retrieval?
Correct
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Ultrasonic tips are the preferred initial method for instrument retrieval.
ā Microforceps assist in removing exposed fragments under magnification.
ā Operating microscopes significantly improve retrieval success.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
ā NilSYNOPSIS
ā Ultrasonic tips are the preferred initial method for instrument retrieval.
ā Microforceps assist in removing exposed fragments under magnification.
ā Operating microscopes significantly improve retrieval success.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp ā 12th Edition -
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
A patient sustains trauma to a maxillary central incisor. Radiographic examination reveals a horizontal root fracture confined to the apical third. Which type of root fracture generally has the best prognosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Apical thirdOTHER OPTIONS
ā Coronal third ā Has the poorest prognosis because of greater mobility and pulpal complications.
ā Middle third ā Has an intermediate prognosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Apical third fractures usually remain stable due to minimal coronal displacement.
ā Many teeth maintain pulpal vitality after apical fractures.
ā Flexible splinting and regular follow-up are recommended.REFERENCE
Andreasen’s Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Dental Injuries ā 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Apical thirdOTHER OPTIONS
ā Coronal third ā Has the poorest prognosis because of greater mobility and pulpal complications.
ā Middle third ā Has an intermediate prognosis.SYNOPSIS
ā Apical third fractures usually remain stable due to minimal coronal displacement.
ā Many teeth maintain pulpal vitality after apical fractures.
ā Flexible splinting and regular follow-up are recommended.REFERENCE
Andreasen’s Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Dental Injuries ā 5th Edition -
Question 93 of 150
93. Question

A 20-year-old patient presents with a painless, fluctuant swelling along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling has gradually increased in size and is not associated with salivary gland dysfunction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Branchial cleft cystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Thyroglossal duct cyst ā Typically presents as a midline neck swelling.
ā Ranula ā Occurs in the floor of the mouth.
ā Submandibular sialadenitis ā Presents with painful salivary gland swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā Branchial cleft cysts usually occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
ā They arise from remnants of the second branchial arch.
ā Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology ā 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Branchial cleft cystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Thyroglossal duct cyst ā Typically presents as a midline neck swelling.
ā Ranula ā Occurs in the floor of the mouth.
ā Submandibular sialadenitis ā Presents with painful salivary gland swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā Branchial cleft cysts usually occur along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
ā They arise from remnants of the second branchial arch.
ā Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.REFERENCE
Neville’s Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology ā 5th Edition -
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
A patient with severe trismus secondary to acute pericoronitis requires extraction of a mandibular third molar. Mouth opening is markedly limited. Which inferior alveolar nerve block technique is most appropriate?
Correct
ANSWER
Vazirani-Akinosi techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
ā Conventional technique ā Requires adequate mouth opening.
ā Gow-Gates technique ā Also requires wide mouth opening.SYNOPSIS
ā Vazirani-Akinosi is a closed-mouth mandibular block.
ā It is indicated in patients with trismus.
ā It anesthetizes the inferior alveolar, lingual, and frequently the mylohyoid nerves.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia ā Stanley F. Malamed ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Vazirani-Akinosi techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
ā Conventional technique ā Requires adequate mouth opening.
ā Gow-Gates technique ā Also requires wide mouth opening.SYNOPSIS
ā Vazirani-Akinosi is a closed-mouth mandibular block.
ā It is indicated in patients with trismus.
ā It anesthetizes the inferior alveolar, lingual, and frequently the mylohyoid nerves.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia ā Stanley F. Malamed ā 7th Edition -
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
A 58-year-old woman experiences recurrent episodes of sudden, electric shock-like pain affecting the right maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve. Clinical and neurological examinations are otherwise normal. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
CarbamazepineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sulfonamides ā No role in neuropathic facial pain.
ā NSAIDs ā Usually ineffective because trigeminal neuralgia is neuropathic.SYNOPSIS
ā Carbamazepine is the first-line drug for classical trigeminal neuralgia.
ā Oxcarbazepine is an accepted alternative.
ā Surgical management is considered for refractory cases.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
CarbamazepineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sulfonamides ā No role in neuropathic facial pain.
ā NSAIDs ā Usually ineffective because trigeminal neuralgia is neuropathic.SYNOPSIS
ā Carbamazepine is the first-line drug for classical trigeminal neuralgia.
ā Oxcarbazepine is an accepted alternative.
ā Surgical management is considered for refractory cases.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th Edition -
Question 96 of 150
96. Question
During extraction of a maxillary first molar, a large portion of the maxillary tuberosity fractures and remains attached to the tooth. The tooth is not infected and the fracture is extensive. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Abandon the extraction and stabilize the tuberosity; surgically remove the tooth later if requiredOTHER OPTIONS
ā Separate the tuberosity from the tooth ā May produce a large bony defect and oroantral communication.
ā Stabilize and continue forceful extraction ā Risks further fracture and sinus complications.SYNOPSIS
ā Large tuberosity fractures should be preserved whenever possible.
ā The fractured segment should be repositioned and stabilized for healing.
ā Surgical extraction can be performed after adequate healing if necessary.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Abandon the extraction and stabilize the tuberosity; surgically remove the tooth later if requiredOTHER OPTIONS
ā Separate the tuberosity from the tooth ā May produce a large bony defect and oroantral communication.
ā Stabilize and continue forceful extraction ā Risks further fracture and sinus complications.SYNOPSIS
ā Large tuberosity fractures should be preserved whenever possible.
ā The fractured segment should be repositioned and stabilized for healing.
ā Surgical extraction can be performed after adequate healing if necessary.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery ā 7th Edition -
Question 97 of 150
97. Question

A partially edentulous patient presents for removable partial denture fabrication for maxilla. Based on the clinical image provided, there is a unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth with no distal abutment present. Which Kennedy classification best describes this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I ā Bilateral distal extension edentulous areas.
ā Class III ā A bounded edentulous space with teeth both anterior and posterior.
ā Class IV ā A single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class II consists of a unilateral distal extension edentulous area.
ā It is a toothātissue supported removable partial denture.
ā Proper classification assists in designing support, retention, and indirect retention.REFERENCE
Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics ā 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I ā Bilateral distal extension edentulous areas.
ā Class III ā A bounded edentulous space with teeth both anterior and posterior.
ā Class IV ā A single anterior edentulous area crossing the midline.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class II consists of a unilateral distal extension edentulous area.
ā It is a toothātissue supported removable partial denture.
ā Proper classification assists in designing support, retention, and indirect retention.REFERENCE
Stewart’s Clinical Removable Partial Prosthodontics ā 5th Edition -
Question 98 of 150
98. Question

A patient with generalized chronic periodontitis undergoes scaling and root planing. The clinician selects the instrument shown in the image, which has an area-specific design with an offset blade and a rounded toe. Which instrument is being used?
Correct
ANSWER
Gracey curetteOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sickle scaler ā Used primarily for supragingival calculus removal and has a pointed tip.
ā Universal curette ā Has two cutting edges and can be used throughout the mouth.
ā Gates-Glidden drill ā Used for coronal flaring during root canal treatment.SYNOPSIS
ā Gracey curettes are area-specific periodontal instruments.
ā They have one cutting edge and a rounded back and toe.
ā They are primarily used for subgingival scaling and root planing.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Gracey curetteOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sickle scaler ā Used primarily for supragingival calculus removal and has a pointed tip.
ā Universal curette ā Has two cutting edges and can be used throughout the mouth.
ā Gates-Glidden drill ā Used for coronal flaring during root canal treatment.SYNOPSIS
ā Gracey curettes are area-specific periodontal instruments.
ā They have one cutting edge and a rounded back and toe.
ā They are primarily used for subgingival scaling and root planing.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology ā 14th Edition -
Question 99 of 150
99. Question

A 24-year-old male presented with a painless swelling in the right posterior mandible. A panoramic radiograph revealed a well-defined unilocular radiolucency surrounding the crown of an impacted mandibular third molar, with the radiolucency attached at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) (image shown). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentigerous CystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) ā Usually surrounds part of the crown or extends beyond the CEJ and tends to grow in the anteroposterior direction with minimal buccolingual expansion.
ā Unicystic ameloblastoma ā May mimic a dentigerous cyst radiographically but usually requires histopathological confirmation.
ā Radicular cyst ā Associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth rather than the crown of an impacted tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dentigerous cysts are the second most common type of odontogenic cyst, which is a fluid-filled sac that develops in the jaw bone and soft tissue.
⢠They form over the top of an unerupted tooth, or partially erupted tooth, usually one of your molars or canines.
⢠While dentigerous cysts are benign, they can lead to complications, such as infection, if left untreated.
⢠Smaller dentigerous cysts might not cause any symptoms. However, if the cyst grows larger than 2 centimeters in diameter, you may notice swelling tooth ,sensitivity,tooth displacement
⢠If you look inside a patient’s mouth, you may also notice a small bump. If the cyst causes tooth displacement, you might also see gaps slowly forming between the teeth.
⢠Anyone can develop a dentigerous cyst, theyāre more common in people who are in their 20s or 30s.REFERENCE
Odontogenesis,Odontogenic Cysts and Odontogenic tumours – Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery, 2021Incorrect
ANSWER
Dentigerous CystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) ā Usually surrounds part of the crown or extends beyond the CEJ and tends to grow in the anteroposterior direction with minimal buccolingual expansion.
ā Unicystic ameloblastoma ā May mimic a dentigerous cyst radiographically but usually requires histopathological confirmation.
ā Radicular cyst ā Associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth rather than the crown of an impacted tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dentigerous cysts are the second most common type of odontogenic cyst, which is a fluid-filled sac that develops in the jaw bone and soft tissue.
⢠They form over the top of an unerupted tooth, or partially erupted tooth, usually one of your molars or canines.
⢠While dentigerous cysts are benign, they can lead to complications, such as infection, if left untreated.
⢠Smaller dentigerous cysts might not cause any symptoms. However, if the cyst grows larger than 2 centimeters in diameter, you may notice swelling tooth ,sensitivity,tooth displacement
⢠If you look inside a patient’s mouth, you may also notice a small bump. If the cyst causes tooth displacement, you might also see gaps slowly forming between the teeth.
⢠Anyone can develop a dentigerous cyst, theyāre more common in people who are in their 20s or 30s.REFERENCE
Odontogenesis,Odontogenic Cysts and Odontogenic tumours – Cummings Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery, 2021 -
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
A patient reported to the clinic after sustaining a blow to the left cheek region during an assault. Clinical examination suggested mandibular injury with pain and malocclusion. Which fracture pattern is most likely associated with this type of trauma?
Correct
ANSWER
Left ramus and right condyleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Right ramus and left condyle ā The fracture pattern usually occurs opposite to the direction of force transmission.
ā Body of mandible ā Body fractures may occur with direct trauma but are less characteristic in this mechanism.
ā Parasymphysis ā Common in chin injuries rather than lateral cheek trauma.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral blow to the cheek transmits force across the mandible.
ā The side receiving direct impact commonly sustains a ramus fracture, while the contralateral condyle fractures because of indirect force transmission.
ā Therefore, trauma to the left cheek commonly results in fracture of the left ramus and right condyle.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Left ramus and right condyleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Right ramus and left condyle ā The fracture pattern usually occurs opposite to the direction of force transmission.
ā Body of mandible ā Body fractures may occur with direct trauma but are less characteristic in this mechanism.
ā Parasymphysis ā Common in chin injuries rather than lateral cheek trauma.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral blow to the cheek transmits force across the mandible.
ā The side receiving direct impact commonly sustains a ramus fracture, while the contralateral condyle fractures because of indirect force transmission.
ā Therefore, trauma to the left cheek commonly results in fracture of the left ramus and right condyle.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
What is the first sign if there is fracture in face?Ā
Correct
ANSWER
Fluid accumulation in paranasal sinusesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Diastatic suture ā Separation of sutures may occur in facial trauma but is not usually the earliest radiographic sign.
ā Overlap of bone ā Indicates displacement of fractured fragments rather than the initial sign.
ā All of above ā Incorrect because one feature is classically considered the earliest sign.SYNOPSIS
ā In facial fractures, one of the earliest radiographic findings is fluid accumulation within the paranasal sinuses.
ā This occurs due to bleeding into the sinus cavity following trauma to adjacent facial bones.
ā Opacification or fluid level in the paranasal sinus is therefore considered an important early indicator of facial fracture.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Fluid accumulation in paranasal sinusesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Diastatic suture ā Separation of sutures may occur in facial trauma but is not usually the earliest radiographic sign.
ā Overlap of bone ā Indicates displacement of fractured fragments rather than the initial sign.
ā All of above ā Incorrect because one feature is classically considered the earliest sign.SYNOPSIS
ā In facial fractures, one of the earliest radiographic findings is fluid accumulation within the paranasal sinuses.
ā This occurs due to bleeding into the sinus cavity following trauma to adjacent facial bones.
ā Opacification or fluid level in the paranasal sinus is therefore considered an important early indicator of facial fracture.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
In which all conditions open bite is seen?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā An open bite (specifically anterior open bite) is a characteristic finding in all the mentioned conditions due to the loss of posterior vertical height or downward displacement of the maxilla.
ā Le Fort II Fractures – These pyramidal fractures result in a floating maxilla, leading to posterior maxillary premature contact and a subsequent anterior open bite.
ā Unilateral Condyle Fracture – Displaced subcondylar fractures cause shortening of the ramus height, creating premature contact of the molars on the affected side and a contralateral open bite.
ā Bilateral Condyle Fracture: These commonly result in a symmetric anterior open bite due to bilateral shortening of the ramal height.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā An open bite (specifically anterior open bite) is a characteristic finding in all the mentioned conditions due to the loss of posterior vertical height or downward displacement of the maxilla.
ā Le Fort II Fractures – These pyramidal fractures result in a floating maxilla, leading to posterior maxillary premature contact and a subsequent anterior open bite.
ā Unilateral Condyle Fracture – Displaced subcondylar fractures cause shortening of the ramus height, creating premature contact of the molars on the affected side and a contralateral open bite.
ā Bilateral Condyle Fracture: These commonly result in a symmetric anterior open bite due to bilateral shortening of the ramal height.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
What is the immediate management of the trauma caused fracture of the root at junction between middle and cervical thirds?
Correct
ANSWER
Splint the two parts together ĀOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā The immediate management for a root fracture at the junction of the middle and cervical thirds involves splinting the two parts together.
ā The coronal fragment should be repositioned as soon as possible, followed by stabilization with a flexible splint for approximately 4 months, particularly if the fracture is near the cervical third.
ā The pulp vitality must be monitored for at least 1 year.
ā Endodontic treatment is typically only required if the pulp becomes necrotic (usually indicated by persistent negative pulp tests or pathology), typically treating only the coronal segment initially.
ā If the fracture at the cervical-middle third junction has a poor prognosis, extraction of the entire tooth is the most common definitive management, especially if there is extreme mobility or secondary infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Splint the two parts together ĀOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā The immediate management for a root fracture at the junction of the middle and cervical thirds involves splinting the two parts together.
ā The coronal fragment should be repositioned as soon as possible, followed by stabilization with a flexible splint for approximately 4 months, particularly if the fracture is near the cervical third.
ā The pulp vitality must be monitored for at least 1 year.
ā Endodontic treatment is typically only required if the pulp becomes necrotic (usually indicated by persistent negative pulp tests or pathology), typically treating only the coronal segment initially.
ā If the fracture at the cervical-middle third junction has a poor prognosis, extraction of the entire tooth is the most common definitive management, especially if there is extreme mobility or secondary infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
A 12-year-old child presents with a laterally luxated maxillary central incisor following a bicycle accident. After repositioning the tooth, the dentist considers the type of splint to be used for stabilization. Current trauma guidelines recommend a flexible splint rather than a rigid splint.
What complication can be minimized by avoiding rigid splinting of a luxated tooth?Correct
ANSWER
AnkylosisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Calcific metamorphosis ā Occurs due to pulpal response after trauma and is not prevented by the type of splint used.
ā Root resorption ā May occur after luxation injuries, but the primary reason for avoiding rigid splints is to reduce ankylosis risk.
ā Pulp necrosis ā Related to disruption of pulpal blood supply and is not prevented by flexible splinting.SYNOPSIS
ā Luxation injuries involve damage to the periodontal ligament and supporting structures.
ā Current IADT guidelines recommend passive flexible splints because they permit physiological tooth movement during healing.
ā Rigid splints immobilize the tooth completely and may promote fusion of the root surface to alveolar bone (ankylosis).
ā Ankylosis is associated with loss of periodontal ligament space and may subsequently lead to replacement resorption.
ā Therefore, flexible splinting is preferred for most luxation injuries to optimize periodontal healing and reduce the risk of ankylosis.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology (IADT). Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries: Luxation Injuries of Permanent Teeth. Dental Traumatology. 2020;36(4):331ā342.Incorrect
ANSWER
AnkylosisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Calcific metamorphosis ā Occurs due to pulpal response after trauma and is not prevented by the type of splint used.
ā Root resorption ā May occur after luxation injuries, but the primary reason for avoiding rigid splints is to reduce ankylosis risk.
ā Pulp necrosis ā Related to disruption of pulpal blood supply and is not prevented by flexible splinting.SYNOPSIS
ā Luxation injuries involve damage to the periodontal ligament and supporting structures.
ā Current IADT guidelines recommend passive flexible splints because they permit physiological tooth movement during healing.
ā Rigid splints immobilize the tooth completely and may promote fusion of the root surface to alveolar bone (ankylosis).
ā Ankylosis is associated with loss of periodontal ligament space and may subsequently lead to replacement resorption.
ā Therefore, flexible splinting is preferred for most luxation injuries to optimize periodontal healing and reduce the risk of ankylosis.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology (IADT). Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental Injuries: Luxation Injuries of Permanent Teeth. Dental Traumatology. 2020;36(4):331ā342. -
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
A 30-year-old male presents with a mandibular fracture following a road traffic accident. The oral and maxillofacial surgeon decides to perform maxillomandibular fixation (MMF) using stainless steel wires to stabilize the fracture segments during healing.
Which of the following represents the commonly used size of stainless steel wire for maxillomandibular fixation?Correct
ANSWER
6 inch 26 gaugeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Stainless steel wires are commonly used for maxillomandibular fixation in mandibular fracture management.
ā 26-gauge stainless steel wire of approximately 6-inch length is traditionally used for Ivy eyelet wiring and interdental fixation techniques.
ā The wire is flexible enough for manipulation while providing adequate fixation.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
6 inch 26 gaugeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Stainless steel wires are commonly used for maxillomandibular fixation in mandibular fracture management.
ā 26-gauge stainless steel wire of approximately 6-inch length is traditionally used for Ivy eyelet wiring and interdental fixation techniques.
ā The wire is flexible enough for manipulation while providing adequate fixation.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition. -
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
A patient came for orthodontic treatment with SNA 80 degrees, SNB 82 degrees and ANB 0 degree. What type of skeletal malocclusion does he have?
Correct
ANSWER
Class III malocclusionOTHER OPTIONS
Refer synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠ANB angle indicates relative position of maxilla to mandible.
⢠ANB 2-4 means Skeletal Class I
⢠ANB greater than 4 means a class 2 tendency.
⢠ANB 0 or negative means a class 3 tendency.
⢠Since ANB is 0°, this indicates a borderline Class III skeletal pattern (mandible positioned slightly ahead of maxilla).REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics 6th Edition Page No 175.Incorrect
ANSWER
Class III malocclusionOTHER OPTIONS
Refer synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠ANB angle indicates relative position of maxilla to mandible.
⢠ANB 2-4 means Skeletal Class I
⢠ANB greater than 4 means a class 2 tendency.
⢠ANB 0 or negative means a class 3 tendency.
⢠Since ANB is 0°, this indicates a borderline Class III skeletal pattern (mandible positioned slightly ahead of maxilla).REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics 6th Edition Page No 175. -
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
A 50-year-old patient presents with a localized gingival recession defect on the lower premolar with root sensitivity. The clinician decides to perform a root coverage procedure. Which of the following is considered the gold standard for treating isolated gingival recession?
Correct
ANSWER
Connective tissue graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Free gingival graft – Effective for increasing keratinized tissue but less esthetic and less predictable for complete root coverage.
⢠Coronally advanced flap – Can be used alone for certain cases but is more effective when combined with a connective tissue graft.
⢠Guided tissue regeneration – Not commonly used for root coverage, more effective for treating intrabony defects.SYNOPSIS
⢠Connective tissue grafting (CTG) is the gold standard for treating isolated gingival recession due to its high success rate in achieving root coverage and good esthetic results.
⢠It provides excellent tissue thickness and color match.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 64Incorrect
ANSWER
Connective tissue graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Free gingival graft – Effective for increasing keratinized tissue but less esthetic and less predictable for complete root coverage.
⢠Coronally advanced flap – Can be used alone for certain cases but is more effective when combined with a connective tissue graft.
⢠Guided tissue regeneration – Not commonly used for root coverage, more effective for treating intrabony defects.SYNOPSIS
⢠Connective tissue grafting (CTG) is the gold standard for treating isolated gingival recession due to its high success rate in achieving root coverage and good esthetic results.
⢠It provides excellent tissue thickness and color match.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 64 -
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
What can possibly occur as a side effect of calcium hydroxide pulp therapy in primary teeth?
Correct
ANSWER
Internal root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide is commonly used endodontics due to its antimicrobial effect and potential to stimulate mineralized repair of pulp and periapical tissues.
⢠But calcium hydroxide is less used in primary teeth because it can cause chronic pulpal inflammation and internal root resorption.
⢠Chronic inflammation influence macrophages to fuse to form odontoblasts which starts resorption.REFERENCE
Article on Calcium Hydroxide Induced Resorption of Deciduous teeth – Possible Explanation.Incorrect
ANSWER
Internal root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide is commonly used endodontics due to its antimicrobial effect and potential to stimulate mineralized repair of pulp and periapical tissues.
⢠But calcium hydroxide is less used in primary teeth because it can cause chronic pulpal inflammation and internal root resorption.
⢠Chronic inflammation influence macrophages to fuse to form odontoblasts which starts resorption.REFERENCE
Article on Calcium Hydroxide Induced Resorption of Deciduous teeth – Possible Explanation. -
Question 109 of 150
109. Question
Which bleaching agent is safest to use in internal bleaching?
Correct
ANSWER
Sodium perborateOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Sodium perborate is a stable, white powder used for internal bleaching.
⢠Sodium perborate alone, rather than in combination with hydrogen peroxide should be used as the primary bleaching agent.
⢠Sodium perborate may bleach more slowly, it is safer for the tooth.
⢠Sodium perborate cause less chances for cervical resorption.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 510.Incorrect
ANSWER
Sodium perborateOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Sodium perborate is a stable, white powder used for internal bleaching.
⢠Sodium perborate alone, rather than in combination with hydrogen peroxide should be used as the primary bleaching agent.
⢠Sodium perborate may bleach more slowly, it is safer for the tooth.
⢠Sodium perborate cause less chances for cervical resorption.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 510. -
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
A 42 years old female patient came to your clinic with erythema, desquamation and ulceration of free and attached gingiva. You diagnosed the condition as desquamative gingivitis. What is the effective treatment for this type of gingivitis?
Correct
ANSWER
Topical steroidsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Scaling – Scaling and plaque control alone cannot control desquamative gingivitis.
⢠Gingivoplasty and Gingivectomy – Both these methods are commonly used to treat gingival enlargment, suprabony pockets or gingival abscess.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by intense erythema, desquamation and ulceration of the free and attached gingiva.
⢠Etiology of most cases is lichen planus, cicatricial pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris.
⢠Treatment is usually using topical steroids.
⢠In some cases dermatological or internal medicine assistance might be required depending on the severity of underlying condition.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No. 288Incorrect
ANSWER
Topical steroidsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Scaling – Scaling and plaque control alone cannot control desquamative gingivitis.
⢠Gingivoplasty and Gingivectomy – Both these methods are commonly used to treat gingival enlargment, suprabony pockets or gingival abscess.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by intense erythema, desquamation and ulceration of the free and attached gingiva.
⢠Etiology of most cases is lichen planus, cicatricial pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris.
⢠Treatment is usually using topical steroids.
⢠In some cases dermatological or internal medicine assistance might be required depending on the severity of underlying condition.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No. 288 -
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
A 30 years old male patient came to your clinic for removal of partially impacted 46. On history taking, he told that he has some cardiac condition affecting his valves. On the day of procedure you asked patient to take antibiotic prophylaxis around 1 hour before procedure. As the patient is allergic to pencillin. What will you ask him to take?
Correct
ANSWER
Erythromycin 500mgOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Infective endocarditis develops if the patient has conditions like valvular heart disease, congenital heart disease, prosthetic valves, cardiomyopathy or congenital malformations.
⢠Dental extractions, oral prophylaxis, implant placement, biopsies, periodontal treatments, periapical endodontic treatments and any other oral procedures causing intraoral bleeding can lead to infective endocarditis in patients with cardiac issues as mentioned above.
⢠Amoxicillin 2g orally 1 hr before procedure is common antibiotic prophylaxis.
⢠If unable to take orally, ampicillin 2 g IV or IM 30 minutes before procedure is given.
⢠If allergic to pencillin, clindamycin 600 mg or azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg can be given orally.
⢠NB – Clindamycin (including the 600 mg dosage) is no longer preferred as a first-line antibiotic, particularly in dental and outpatient settings, primarily due to its high risk of causing Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile) infection, a serious and sometimes fatal diarrheal illness.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 2nd Edition Page No 24.Incorrect
ANSWER
Erythromycin 500mgOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Infective endocarditis develops if the patient has conditions like valvular heart disease, congenital heart disease, prosthetic valves, cardiomyopathy or congenital malformations.
⢠Dental extractions, oral prophylaxis, implant placement, biopsies, periodontal treatments, periapical endodontic treatments and any other oral procedures causing intraoral bleeding can lead to infective endocarditis in patients with cardiac issues as mentioned above.
⢠Amoxicillin 2g orally 1 hr before procedure is common antibiotic prophylaxis.
⢠If unable to take orally, ampicillin 2 g IV or IM 30 minutes before procedure is given.
⢠If allergic to pencillin, clindamycin 600 mg or azithromycin or clarithromycin 500 mg can be given orally.
⢠NB – Clindamycin (including the 600 mg dosage) is no longer preferred as a first-line antibiotic, particularly in dental and outpatient settings, primarily due to its high risk of causing Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile) infection, a serious and sometimes fatal diarrheal illness.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 2nd Edition Page No 24. -
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
Parents of a one week old infant are concerned with the presence of mandibular incisors which are highly mobile and the mother is not having a problem in nursing. What will be the choice of treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Immediate extraction because there is a chance of teeth inhalation into lungsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Natal teeth present at birth and neonatal present within 30 days of birth.
⢠Incidence 1ā2 per 6000 births 90 percent are primary,10 percent supernumerary, 85 percent mandibular.
⢠Natal teeth which are present at birth should be immediately removed to prevent risk of inhalation into lungs.
⢠Natal teeth that are mobile should be removed immediately even if it doesn’t cause nursing difficulties.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 207Incorrect
ANSWER
Immediate extraction because there is a chance of teeth inhalation into lungsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Natal teeth present at birth and neonatal present within 30 days of birth.
⢠Incidence 1ā2 per 6000 births 90 percent are primary,10 percent supernumerary, 85 percent mandibular.
⢠Natal teeth which are present at birth should be immediately removed to prevent risk of inhalation into lungs.
⢠Natal teeth that are mobile should be removed immediately even if it doesn’t cause nursing difficulties.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 207 -
Question 113 of 150
113. Question
In periodontal surgery which needle is used?
Correct
ANSWER
Three-eight reverse cutting needleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠1/2 circle reverse cutting – For deeper or restricted areas
⢠Spatula needle – For delicate flap reflection near papilla
⢠1/2 or 3/8 round-bodied – For friable mucosa or graftingSYNOPSIS
⢠In periodontal surgery, delicate soft tissues such as gingiva and mucosa require precise, atraumatic suturing.
⢠Hence, reverse cutting needles are preferred because they
– Have the cutting edge on the outer convex surface, reducing the risk of tissue tearing.
– Provide better control and precision in tight surgical spaces like the oral cavity.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Three-eight reverse cutting needleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠1/2 circle reverse cutting – For deeper or restricted areas
⢠Spatula needle – For delicate flap reflection near papilla
⢠1/2 or 3/8 round-bodied – For friable mucosa or graftingSYNOPSIS
⢠In periodontal surgery, delicate soft tissues such as gingiva and mucosa require precise, atraumatic suturing.
⢠Hence, reverse cutting needles are preferred because they
– Have the cutting edge on the outer convex surface, reducing the risk of tissue tearing.
– Provide better control and precision in tight surgical spaces like the oral cavity.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition -
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
What are the predominant cell type present in gingival crevicular fluid?
Correct
ANSWER
PMNsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Macrophages – Antigen presentation, cytokine release
⢠Plasma cells – Antibody production in established lesions
⢠Mast cells – Found mainly in gingival connective tissue, not in GCFSYNOPSIS
⢠Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) are the major cellular component of GCF.
⢠They play a crucial protective role by
– Phagocytosing bacteria and debris
– Releasing lysosomal enzymes
– Producing reactive oxygen species to control infection.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
PMNsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Macrophages – Antigen presentation, cytokine release
⢠Plasma cells – Antibody production in established lesions
⢠Mast cells – Found mainly in gingival connective tissue, not in GCFSYNOPSIS
⢠Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs) are the major cellular component of GCF.
⢠They play a crucial protective role by
– Phagocytosing bacteria and debris
– Releasing lysosomal enzymes
– Producing reactive oxygen species to control infection.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition -
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
A 65-year-old patient with stage IV renal failure presents with gingivitis, carious teeth, halitosis, and complaints of dry mouth (xerostomia). What is the most likely cause of the dry mouth?
Correct
ANSWER
AmmoniaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠In chronic renal failure, the bodyās ability to excrete urea is impaired.
⢠Urea accumulates in the blood and diffuses into saliva.
⢠In the oral cavity, urease-producing bacteria break down urea into ammonia, leading to
– Uremic odor (ammoniacal breath)
– Mucosal irritation
– Reduced salivary flow (xerostomia) due to metabolic imbalance and associated medications (diuretics, antihypertensives).
⢠Thus, ammonia and uremic changes are the primary causes of the dry mouth and bad breath seen in renal failure patients.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
AmmoniaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠In chronic renal failure, the bodyās ability to excrete urea is impaired.
⢠Urea accumulates in the blood and diffuses into saliva.
⢠In the oral cavity, urease-producing bacteria break down urea into ammonia, leading to
– Uremic odor (ammoniacal breath)
– Mucosal irritation
– Reduced salivary flow (xerostomia) due to metabolic imbalance and associated medications (diuretics, antihypertensives).
⢠Thus, ammonia and uremic changes are the primary causes of the dry mouth and bad breath seen in renal failure patients.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition -
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
Which of the following test gives normal response In tooth which had conservative amalgam restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Cold responseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sweet – May give response if marginal leakage or exposed dentin is present, but not the most reliable normal pulp vitality test.
ā Hot – Less reliable, normal teeth may not respond distinctly unless inflamed.
ā No response – Suggests non-vital pulp, not expected in a tooth with a healthy pulp under a conservative amalgam restoration.SYNOPSIS
ā A tooth with a conservative amalgam restoration usually has a vital pulp.
ā Cold test is the most reliable method to assess pulp vitality in such cases.
ā A normal response is a brief, non-lingering pain indicating healthy pulp status.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Cold responseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sweet – May give response if marginal leakage or exposed dentin is present, but not the most reliable normal pulp vitality test.
ā Hot – Less reliable, normal teeth may not respond distinctly unless inflamed.
ā No response – Suggests non-vital pulp, not expected in a tooth with a healthy pulp under a conservative amalgam restoration.SYNOPSIS
ā A tooth with a conservative amalgam restoration usually has a vital pulp.
ā Cold test is the most reliable method to assess pulp vitality in such cases.
ā A normal response is a brief, non-lingering pain indicating healthy pulp status.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
A 21 years old patient prone to calculus advised to brush frequently by the dentist during routine dental check up. What will be the cause?
Correct
ANSWER
To disrupt formation of plaqueOTHER OPTIONS
ā To remove food particles – Secondary benefit, not the main reason for preventing calculus formation.
ā To remove calculus – Calculus cannot be removed by brushing, requires professional scaling.
ā To clean mouth – Does not specifically address calculus formation.SYNOPSIS
ā Calculus forms from mineralization of dental plaque.
ā Frequent brushing disrupts plaque before it mineralizes into calculus.
ā Prevention of plaque accumulation is key to controlling calculus formation.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
To disrupt formation of plaqueOTHER OPTIONS
ā To remove food particles – Secondary benefit, not the main reason for preventing calculus formation.
ā To remove calculus – Calculus cannot be removed by brushing, requires professional scaling.
ā To clean mouth – Does not specifically address calculus formation.SYNOPSIS
ā Calculus forms from mineralization of dental plaque.
ā Frequent brushing disrupts plaque before it mineralizes into calculus.
ā Prevention of plaque accumulation is key to controlling calculus formation.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed. -
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
A 40 year old male patient cames to your clinic for routine implant evaluation. On examination, implant seems to be healthy. On probing around an implant, you are expected to find the pocket around implant to be?
Correct
ANSWER
Deeper than natural teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Probing depths of 1 mm to 3 mm are normal around natural teeth.
⢠Around dental implants desirable probing depths are 2.5 mm to 4 mm.
⢠Probing depths may be greater around implants than teeth, because there are no connective tissue fibres inserting into implants, and connective tissue adhesions adjacent to implants do not impede probe penetration as in natural teeth.REFERENCE
Dental implantology Article by Nicholas D Shumaker.Incorrect
ANSWER
Deeper than natural teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Probing depths of 1 mm to 3 mm are normal around natural teeth.
⢠Around dental implants desirable probing depths are 2.5 mm to 4 mm.
⢠Probing depths may be greater around implants than teeth, because there are no connective tissue fibres inserting into implants, and connective tissue adhesions adjacent to implants do not impede probe penetration as in natural teeth.REFERENCE
Dental implantology Article by Nicholas D Shumaker. -
Question 119 of 150
119. Question

An image shows a horizontal fracture line above the apices of maxillary teeth, separating the maxilla from the rest of the face. What is the type of fracture?
Correct
ANSWER
Le Fort IOTHER OPTIONS
ā Le Fort II – It is a pyramidal fracture involving nasal bridge and infraorbital rim.
ā Le Fort III – It is craniofacial disjunction involving the zygomatic arch and orbit.
ā Zygomatic fracture – It involves cheekbone, not horizontal maxillary separation.SYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort I is a horizontal fracture above the apices of maxillary teeth.
ā It separates the maxilla from the nasal and orbital structures.
ā It is also called a āfloating palateā fracture.REFERENCE
Hupp JR et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Le Fort IOTHER OPTIONS
ā Le Fort II – It is a pyramidal fracture involving nasal bridge and infraorbital rim.
ā Le Fort III – It is craniofacial disjunction involving the zygomatic arch and orbit.
ā Zygomatic fracture – It involves cheekbone, not horizontal maxillary separation.SYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort I is a horizontal fracture above the apices of maxillary teeth.
ā It separates the maxilla from the nasal and orbital structures.
ā It is also called a āfloating palateā fracture.REFERENCE
Hupp JR et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
A patient came to clinic out of esthetic concern in her upper front tooth you did a veneer to mask the discoloration on the tooth. But the veneer debonds within 2 days of placement. What is the most likely cause?
Correct
ANSWER
Contamination of bonding surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Old resin used – It may affect strength but is less likely to cause immediate debonding.
ā Improper shade selection – It affects esthetics, not retention.
ā Excess polishing – It does not significantly affect bonding strength.SYNOPSIS
ā Successful bonding requires a clean, dry surface.
ā Contamination with saliva or moisture interferes with adhesion.
ā This leads to early failure of veneers.REFERENCE
Anusavice KJ et al. Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Contamination of bonding surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
ā Old resin used – It may affect strength but is less likely to cause immediate debonding.
ā Improper shade selection – It affects esthetics, not retention.
ā Excess polishing – It does not significantly affect bonding strength.SYNOPSIS
ā Successful bonding requires a clean, dry surface.
ā Contamination with saliva or moisture interferes with adhesion.
ā This leads to early failure of veneers.REFERENCE
Anusavice KJ et al. Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 13th ed. -
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
Which material is used to etch silica-based ceramics before bonding?
Correct
ANSWER
Hydrofluoric acidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Phosphoric acid – It is used for enamel etching, not ceramics.
ā Nitric acid – It is not used in dental etching procedures.
ā Sulfuric acid – It is not used for dental ceramic conditioning.SYNOPSIS
ā Hydrofluoric acid etches the glassy phase of silica-based ceramics.
ā It creates micromechanical retention for bonding.
ā This is essential for strong adhesion of ceramic restorations.REFERENCE
Anusavice KJ et al. Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Hydrofluoric acidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Phosphoric acid – It is used for enamel etching, not ceramics.
ā Nitric acid – It is not used in dental etching procedures.
ā Sulfuric acid – It is not used for dental ceramic conditioning.SYNOPSIS
ā Hydrofluoric acid etches the glassy phase of silica-based ceramics.
ā It creates micromechanical retention for bonding.
ā This is essential for strong adhesion of ceramic restorations.REFERENCE
Anusavice KJ et al. Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 13th ed. -
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
A patient reports with sore mouth and cracked lips. A lab report brought by the patient shows low hemoglobin, low MCV, and low serum ferritin. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Iron deficiency anemiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Megaloblastic anemia – It shows increased MCV.
ā Hemolytic anemia – It shows normal or increased MCV with increased reticulocytes.
ā Aplastic anemia – It presents with pancytopenia.SYNOPSIS
ā Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by microcytic hypochromic RBCs.
ā Low ferritin confirms depleted iron stores.
ā It is the most common nutritional anemia.REFERENCE
Harrisonās Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Iron deficiency anemiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Megaloblastic anemia – It shows increased MCV.
ā Hemolytic anemia – It shows normal or increased MCV with increased reticulocytes.
ā Aplastic anemia – It presents with pancytopenia.SYNOPSIS
ā Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by microcytic hypochromic RBCs.
ā Low ferritin confirms depleted iron stores.
ā It is the most common nutritional anemia.REFERENCE
Harrisonās Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed. -
Question 123 of 150
123. Question
A patient presents with dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, and angular cheilitis. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Plummer-Vinson syndromeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sjogren syndrome – It presents with dry mouth and dry eyes.
ā Behcet disease – It presents with oral and genital ulcers.
ā Lupus erythematosus – It presents with systemic autoimmune features.SYNOPSIS
ā Plummer-Vinson syndrome includes iron deficiency anemia, dysphagia, and esophageal webs.
ā It is associated with oral manifestations like glossitis and angular cheilitis.
ā It is considered a premalignant condition.REFERENCE
Neville BW et al. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Plummer-Vinson syndromeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sjogren syndrome – It presents with dry mouth and dry eyes.
ā Behcet disease – It presents with oral and genital ulcers.
ā Lupus erythematosus – It presents with systemic autoimmune features.SYNOPSIS
ā Plummer-Vinson syndrome includes iron deficiency anemia, dysphagia, and esophageal webs.
ā It is associated with oral manifestations like glossitis and angular cheilitis.
ā It is considered a premalignant condition.REFERENCE
Neville BW et al. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th ed. -
Question 124 of 150
124. Question

A patient wearing an ill-fitting denture for 15 years presents with diffuse erythema on the palate. The lesion is painless but persistent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Newton Type III denture stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Type I (Pinpoint Hyperemia) – Localized, simple inflammation characterized by small red spots (punctiform hyperemia). This often represents an early stage of the disease or a response to localized trauma.
ā Type II (Diffuse Hyperemia) – More generalized inflammation characterized by diffuse erythema, where the mucosa is smooth and atrophic. It covers a large portion of the denture-bearing area.
ā Type III (Granular Hyperemia) – A granular type (inflammatory papillary hyperplasia) that presents as a red, pebbly surface. It often involves the central hard palate and is commonly linked to chronic candida infection and continued, poor-fitting denture use.REFERENCE
Neville BW. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Newton Type III denture stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Type I (Pinpoint Hyperemia) – Localized, simple inflammation characterized by small red spots (punctiform hyperemia). This often represents an early stage of the disease or a response to localized trauma.
ā Type II (Diffuse Hyperemia) – More generalized inflammation characterized by diffuse erythema, where the mucosa is smooth and atrophic. It covers a large portion of the denture-bearing area.
ā Type III (Granular Hyperemia) – A granular type (inflammatory papillary hyperplasia) that presents as a red, pebbly surface. It often involves the central hard palate and is commonly linked to chronic candida infection and continued, poor-fitting denture use.REFERENCE
Neville BW. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition -
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
A 40-year-old patient presents with swelling in the anterior maxilla. Radiograph shows a well-defined, heart-shaped radiolucency between maxillary central incisors. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Nasopalatine duct cystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Radicular cyst – Associated with non-vital tooth apex
ā Dentigerous cyst – Associated with impacted tooth
ā Odontogenic keratocyst – Occurs in posterior mandible commonlySYNOPSIS
ā Most common non-odontogenic cyst
ā Located in incisive canal region
ā Heart-shaped radiolucency due to nasal spine superimposition
ā Teeth usually vital
ā Treated by surgical enucleationREFERENCE
Neville BW. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Nasopalatine duct cystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Radicular cyst – Associated with non-vital tooth apex
ā Dentigerous cyst – Associated with impacted tooth
ā Odontogenic keratocyst – Occurs in posterior mandible commonlySYNOPSIS
ā Most common non-odontogenic cyst
ā Located in incisive canal region
ā Heart-shaped radiolucency due to nasal spine superimposition
ā Teeth usually vital
ā Treated by surgical enucleationREFERENCE
Neville BW. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology, 4th Edition -
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
A deep carious lesion is present in a vital tooth without pulpal exposure. The clinician removes most of the caries but leaves a thin layer near pulp to avoid exposure and places a medicament. What is this procedure called?
Correct
ANSWER
Indirect pulp cappingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Direct pulp capping – Done when pulp is exposed
ā Pulpotomy – Removal of coronal pulp
ā Pulpectomy – Complete removal of pulpSYNOPSIS
ā Indicated in deep caries without pulp exposure
ā Preserves vitality of pulp
ā Promotes reparative dentin formation
ā Calcium hydroxide commonly used
ā Prevents need for endodontic treatmentREFERENCE
Cohen S. Pathways of the Pulp, 11th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Indirect pulp cappingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Direct pulp capping – Done when pulp is exposed
ā Pulpotomy – Removal of coronal pulp
ā Pulpectomy – Complete removal of pulpSYNOPSIS
ā Indicated in deep caries without pulp exposure
ā Preserves vitality of pulp
ā Promotes reparative dentin formation
ā Calcium hydroxide commonly used
ā Prevents need for endodontic treatmentREFERENCE
Cohen S. Pathways of the Pulp, 11th Edition -
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
Coronal cementum contain which of the following?
Correct
ANSWER
Acellular afibrillar cementumOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Acellular extrinsic fiber – Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum (AEFC) is composed almost entirely of densely packed bundles of Sharpey fibers and lacks cells. It is a product of fibroblasts and cementoblasts and is found in the cervical third of roots in humans but may extend further apically. Its thickness is between 30 and 230 microns.
⢠Cellular mixed fibers – Cellular mixed stratified cementum (CMSC) is composed of extrinsic (Sharpey) and intrinsic fibers and may contain cells. It is a co-product of fibroblasts and cementoblasts, and in humans it appears primarily in the apical third of the roots and apices and in furcation areas. Its thickness ranges from 100 to 1000 microns.
⢠Intermediate cementum – Intermediate cementum is an ill-defined zone near the cementodentinal junction of certain teeth that appears to contain cellular remnants of Hertwig sheath embedded in calcified ground substance.SYNOPSIS
⢠Acellular afibrillar cementum (AAC) contains neither cells nor extrinsic or intrinsic collagen fibers, apart from a mineralized ground substance.
⢠This cementum is formed before the tooth reaches the occlusal plane, and its thickness ranges from 1-15 microns.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 2Incorrect
ANSWER
Acellular afibrillar cementumOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Acellular extrinsic fiber – Acellular extrinsic fiber cementum (AEFC) is composed almost entirely of densely packed bundles of Sharpey fibers and lacks cells. It is a product of fibroblasts and cementoblasts and is found in the cervical third of roots in humans but may extend further apically. Its thickness is between 30 and 230 microns.
⢠Cellular mixed fibers – Cellular mixed stratified cementum (CMSC) is composed of extrinsic (Sharpey) and intrinsic fibers and may contain cells. It is a co-product of fibroblasts and cementoblasts, and in humans it appears primarily in the apical third of the roots and apices and in furcation areas. Its thickness ranges from 100 to 1000 microns.
⢠Intermediate cementum – Intermediate cementum is an ill-defined zone near the cementodentinal junction of certain teeth that appears to contain cellular remnants of Hertwig sheath embedded in calcified ground substance.SYNOPSIS
⢠Acellular afibrillar cementum (AAC) contains neither cells nor extrinsic or intrinsic collagen fibers, apart from a mineralized ground substance.
⢠This cementum is formed before the tooth reaches the occlusal plane, and its thickness ranges from 1-15 microns.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 2 -
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
Which of these affects periodontal health
Correct
ANSWER
Gingival recessionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Laceration and gingival abscess are two entities that affect the gingiva and resolve on their own.
⢠Caries – Dental caries is a lesion involving the tooth structure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Gingival recession is the apical migration of gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) which over a period of time affects the periodontal health by accentuating bone loss.
⢠In gingival recession cases, the first mechanism responsible for causing apical gingival migration is loss of bone support offered by the alveolar bone crest.
⢠Over time, normal or inflamed gingival soft tissues tend to keep up with cervical bone levels, therefore, gingival recession is established.REFERENCE
Jati AS, Furquim LZ, Consolaro A. Gingival recession- its causes and types, and the importance of orthodontic treatment. Dental Press J Orthod. 2016,21(3)-18-29. doi-10.1590/2177-6709.21.3.018-029.oinIncorrect
ANSWER
Gingival recessionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Laceration and gingival abscess are two entities that affect the gingiva and resolve on their own.
⢠Caries – Dental caries is a lesion involving the tooth structure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Gingival recession is the apical migration of gingival margin to the cementoenamel junction (CEJ) which over a period of time affects the periodontal health by accentuating bone loss.
⢠In gingival recession cases, the first mechanism responsible for causing apical gingival migration is loss of bone support offered by the alveolar bone crest.
⢠Over time, normal or inflamed gingival soft tissues tend to keep up with cervical bone levels, therefore, gingival recession is established.REFERENCE
Jati AS, Furquim LZ, Consolaro A. Gingival recession- its causes and types, and the importance of orthodontic treatment. Dental Press J Orthod. 2016,21(3)-18-29. doi-10.1590/2177-6709.21.3.018-029.oin -
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
Patient comes to you with a mobile tooth. Upon examination you notice major bone loss which has made the root short. What is the prognosis here?
Correct
ANSWER
PoorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The prognosis is poor for teeth with short, tapered roots and relatively large crowns.
⢠Because of the disproportionate crown-to-root ratio and the reduced root surface available for periodontal support, the periodontium may be more susceptible to injury by occlusal forces.
⢠Scaling with root planing is a fundamental procedure in periodontal therapy.
⢠Anatomic factors that decrease the efficiency of this procedure can hurt the prognosis. Therefore the morphology of the tooth root is an important consideration when discussing prognosis.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 33Incorrect
ANSWER
PoorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The prognosis is poor for teeth with short, tapered roots and relatively large crowns.
⢠Because of the disproportionate crown-to-root ratio and the reduced root surface available for periodontal support, the periodontium may be more susceptible to injury by occlusal forces.
⢠Scaling with root planing is a fundamental procedure in periodontal therapy.
⢠Anatomic factors that decrease the efficiency of this procedure can hurt the prognosis. Therefore the morphology of the tooth root is an important consideration when discussing prognosis.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 33 -
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
Clinical feature of HSV type I is?
Correct
ANSWER
UlcersOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cold sores – Cold sore is found in Herpes labialis which is a subsequent presentation after primary herpetic gingivostomatitis of the oral cavity, which interferes with eating and drinking.
⢠Chancre – A chancre is a painless genital ulcer most commonly formed during the primary stage of syphilis.
⢠Bulla – A bulla is a fluid-filled sac or lesion that appears when fluid is trapped under a thin layer of the skin. It is a type of blister seen in autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid.SYNOPSIS
⢠Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is an infection of the oral cavity caused by the herpes simplex virus type one (HSV-1).
⢠It occurs most often in infants and children younger than 6 years of age, but it is also seen in adolescents and adults. ⢠The condition appears as a diffuse, erythematous, shiny involvement of the gingiva and the adjacent oral mucosa, with varying degrees of edema and gingival bleeding.
⢠In its initial stage, it is characterized by the presence of discrete, spherical gray vesicles which may occur on the gingiva, labial and buccal mucosae,soft palate, pharynx, sublingual mucosa, and tongue.
⢠After approximately 24 hours the vesicles rupture and form painful, small ulcers with a red, elevated, halolike margin and a depressed, yellowish- or grayish-white central portion.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 10Incorrect
ANSWER
UlcersOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cold sores – Cold sore is found in Herpes labialis which is a subsequent presentation after primary herpetic gingivostomatitis of the oral cavity, which interferes with eating and drinking.
⢠Chancre – A chancre is a painless genital ulcer most commonly formed during the primary stage of syphilis.
⢠Bulla – A bulla is a fluid-filled sac or lesion that appears when fluid is trapped under a thin layer of the skin. It is a type of blister seen in autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid.SYNOPSIS
⢠Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is an infection of the oral cavity caused by the herpes simplex virus type one (HSV-1).
⢠It occurs most often in infants and children younger than 6 years of age, but it is also seen in adolescents and adults. ⢠The condition appears as a diffuse, erythematous, shiny involvement of the gingiva and the adjacent oral mucosa, with varying degrees of edema and gingival bleeding.
⢠In its initial stage, it is characterized by the presence of discrete, spherical gray vesicles which may occur on the gingiva, labial and buccal mucosae,soft palate, pharynx, sublingual mucosa, and tongue.
⢠After approximately 24 hours the vesicles rupture and form painful, small ulcers with a red, elevated, halolike margin and a depressed, yellowish- or grayish-white central portion.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 10 -
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
Histological criteria used to distinguish gingivitis from periodontitis is?
Correct
ANSWER
Howship lacunaeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Occlusal trauma and Bone resorption – Howship lacunae and endosteal proliferation are the histological components in this question, whereas trauma from occlusion and bone resorption are clinical components, hence they both are ruled out.
⢠Endosteal proliferation – Endosteum is a thin vascular membrane of connective tissue that lines the inner surface of the bony tissue that forms the medullary cavity and hence we can safely say it’s not the answer, as gingiva is a soft tissue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Once inflammation extends from the gingiva to the bone, it spreads to marrow spaces with leukocytic and exudate, new blood vessels, and proliferating fibroblasts, multinuclear osteoclasts and mononuclear phagocytes increase in number and the bone surfaces line up with howships lacunae.
⢠Howship lacunae is a groove or cavity usually containing osteoclasts that occur in bone that is undergoing resorption.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 14.Incorrect
ANSWER
Howship lacunaeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Occlusal trauma and Bone resorption – Howship lacunae and endosteal proliferation are the histological components in this question, whereas trauma from occlusion and bone resorption are clinical components, hence they both are ruled out.
⢠Endosteal proliferation – Endosteum is a thin vascular membrane of connective tissue that lines the inner surface of the bony tissue that forms the medullary cavity and hence we can safely say it’s not the answer, as gingiva is a soft tissue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Once inflammation extends from the gingiva to the bone, it spreads to marrow spaces with leukocytic and exudate, new blood vessels, and proliferating fibroblasts, multinuclear osteoclasts and mononuclear phagocytes increase in number and the bone surfaces line up with howships lacunae.
⢠Howship lacunae is a groove or cavity usually containing osteoclasts that occur in bone that is undergoing resorption.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 14. -
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
Treatment of traumatic gingivitis caused by faulty oral hygiene is mainly?
Correct
ANSWER
To achieve the patients to change their faulty habits immediately.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reassure the patients that it will disappear by itself – Reassurance of the disappearance of disease without correcting their habit is just a form of ’empty words’.
⢠To buy a new toothbrush – Buying a toothbrush is not going to help if the brushing technique is improper.SYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic gingivitis is a condition in which chronic or recurrent bleeding is provoked by mechanical trauma, example from toothbrushing, toothpicks, or food impaction or by biting into solid foods.
⢠The most commonly found cause is toothbrush trauma due to incorrect brushing technique hence it is always advisable to instruct the patients on proper brushing techniques and change their faulty habits immediately.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 34 and 43.Incorrect
ANSWER
To achieve the patients to change their faulty habits immediately.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reassure the patients that it will disappear by itself – Reassurance of the disappearance of disease without correcting their habit is just a form of ’empty words’.
⢠To buy a new toothbrush – Buying a toothbrush is not going to help if the brushing technique is improper.SYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic gingivitis is a condition in which chronic or recurrent bleeding is provoked by mechanical trauma, example from toothbrushing, toothpicks, or food impaction or by biting into solid foods.
⢠The most commonly found cause is toothbrush trauma due to incorrect brushing technique hence it is always advisable to instruct the patients on proper brushing techniques and change their faulty habits immediately.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 34 and 43. -
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A pregnant woman presented to the dental clinic with gingival swelling at the buccal aspect of teeth 24 and 25 and moderate buildup of dental plaque was observed in these area. Radiographic report showed no evidence of bone lost in the region of 24 and 25. Which of the following is the preferred management sequence in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
Oral hygiene instructions reinforcement and scalingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Administration of systemic antibiotics – Ideally, no medications should be prescribed. However, analgesics, antibiotics, local anesthetics, and other drugs may be required during pregnancy, depending on the patient needs and in this case, only non surgical periodontal therapy is required.
⢠Wait till after delivery to start active treatment – It is always better to wait till after the delivery to do long procedures.
⢠Use of mouthwash for one week and re-evaluate – Use of a mouthwash without eliminating the local deposits is not recommended.SYNOPSIS
⢠Pregnancy-associated gingival changes occur due to hormonal fluctuations, mainly elevated estrogen and progesterone levels, which enhance vascular permeability and inflammatory response to plaque.
⢠In this case, no bone loss is evident, indicating gingivitis or pregnancy-related gingival enlargement rather than periodontitis.
⢠Preferred treatment includes
– Oral hygiene reinforcement – Educate on proper brushing and flossing techniques.
– Scaling and polishing – Removal of local irritants to control inflammation.
– Monitoring and supportive care – Regular follow-ups to manage recurrence.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 27Incorrect
ANSWER
Oral hygiene instructions reinforcement and scalingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Administration of systemic antibiotics – Ideally, no medications should be prescribed. However, analgesics, antibiotics, local anesthetics, and other drugs may be required during pregnancy, depending on the patient needs and in this case, only non surgical periodontal therapy is required.
⢠Wait till after delivery to start active treatment – It is always better to wait till after the delivery to do long procedures.
⢠Use of mouthwash for one week and re-evaluate – Use of a mouthwash without eliminating the local deposits is not recommended.SYNOPSIS
⢠Pregnancy-associated gingival changes occur due to hormonal fluctuations, mainly elevated estrogen and progesterone levels, which enhance vascular permeability and inflammatory response to plaque.
⢠In this case, no bone loss is evident, indicating gingivitis or pregnancy-related gingival enlargement rather than periodontitis.
⢠Preferred treatment includes
– Oral hygiene reinforcement – Educate on proper brushing and flossing techniques.
– Scaling and polishing – Removal of local irritants to control inflammation.
– Monitoring and supportive care – Regular follow-ups to manage recurrence.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 27 -
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
Read the statements below and answer appropriately
1. You should treat ANUG (acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis) until the disease is completely removed.
2. Otherwise, it will change to necrotic ulcerative periodontitis.Correct
ANSWER
Both sentences are true.OTHER OPTIONS
NilSYNOPSIS
⢠ANUG is a bacterial infection caused by an imbalance of normal oral flora, primarily involving
– Fusobacterium species
– Prevotella intermedia
– Treponema species (spirochetes)
⢠The clinical course of ANUG is indefinite.
⢠If untreated, NUG may lead to NUP with a progressive destruction of the periodontium and denudation of the roots, accompanied by an increase in the severity of toxic systemic complications.
⢠Other consequences if left untreated
– Trench Mouth (Severe ANUG with systemic involvement) – High fever, malaise, difficulty swallowing.
– Cancrum Oris (Noma) – Rare but life-threatening condition seen in malnourished children, causing facial tissue necrosis.
– Chronic Gingival Scarring – Loss of interdental papillae leading to permanent esthetic concerns.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed. Elsevier, 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
Both sentences are true.OTHER OPTIONS
NilSYNOPSIS
⢠ANUG is a bacterial infection caused by an imbalance of normal oral flora, primarily involving
– Fusobacterium species
– Prevotella intermedia
– Treponema species (spirochetes)
⢠The clinical course of ANUG is indefinite.
⢠If untreated, NUG may lead to NUP with a progressive destruction of the periodontium and denudation of the roots, accompanied by an increase in the severity of toxic systemic complications.
⢠Other consequences if left untreated
– Trench Mouth (Severe ANUG with systemic involvement) – High fever, malaise, difficulty swallowing.
– Cancrum Oris (Noma) – Rare but life-threatening condition seen in malnourished children, causing facial tissue necrosis.
– Chronic Gingival Scarring – Loss of interdental papillae leading to permanent esthetic concerns.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed. Elsevier, 2018. -
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
What is the probing depth that results in attachment loss after scaling?
Correct
ANSWER
Less than 2.9 mmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠According to Heitz-Mayfield et al. and Lindhe et al., the critical probing depth represents a threshold value of the probing depth value, above which the outcome of therapy will result in attachment gain and below which the outcome of therapy will result in clinical attachment loss.
⢠According to Lindhe et al, the critical probing depth of root planing is 2.9±0.3 mm,, if less than that, it results in attachment loss.
⢠If the pocket depth is greater than this, gain of clinical attachment is optimally achieved through treatment with root planing.REFERENCE
Choi YM, Lee JY, Choi J, Joo JY. Effect of root planing on the reduction of probing depth and the gain of clinical attachment depending on the mode of interproximal bone resorption. J Periodontal Implant Sci. 2015,45(5)-184-189. doi-10.5051/jpis.2015.45.5.184Incorrect
ANSWER
Less than 2.9 mmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠According to Heitz-Mayfield et al. and Lindhe et al., the critical probing depth represents a threshold value of the probing depth value, above which the outcome of therapy will result in attachment gain and below which the outcome of therapy will result in clinical attachment loss.
⢠According to Lindhe et al, the critical probing depth of root planing is 2.9±0.3 mm,, if less than that, it results in attachment loss.
⢠If the pocket depth is greater than this, gain of clinical attachment is optimally achieved through treatment with root planing.REFERENCE
Choi YM, Lee JY, Choi J, Joo JY. Effect of root planing on the reduction of probing depth and the gain of clinical attachment depending on the mode of interproximal bone resorption. J Periodontal Implant Sci. 2015,45(5)-184-189. doi-10.5051/jpis.2015.45.5.184 -
Question 136 of 150
136. Question
Proxy brush with which type of furcation-
Correct
ANSWER
Furcation Grade 3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Proxy brush is usually used in type II and III embrasures.
⢠Indicated in orthodontic fixed apliances and accessible furcations.
⢠Proxy brush is used in grade III furcations.REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 45Incorrect
ANSWER
Furcation Grade 3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Proxy brush is usually used in type II and III embrasures.
⢠Indicated in orthodontic fixed apliances and accessible furcations.
⢠Proxy brush is used in grade III furcations.REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 45 -
Question 137 of 150
137. Question
Improper occlusal harmony in restoration will cause?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral load and effect on periodontal healthOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulp fibrosis – Typically occurs due to aging or chronic irritation, not directly due to occlusal disharmony
⢠Pulp calcific degeneration – Caused by chronic pulp irritation but is not a direct result of occlusal disharmony
⢠Calcific metamorphosis – Occurs after trauma to the tooth, leading to excessive dentin deposition in the pulp chamber, but is not commonly due to occlusal disharmony.SYNOPSIS
⢠Improper occlusion in restorations can lead to occlusal trauma, which can significantly impact periodontal health.
⢠High restorations can cause excessive lateral forces, leading to
– Trauma from occlusion – Widened PDL, bone resorption.
– Increased mobility of the affected tooth.
– Inflammation or recession due to excessive pressure on the periodontium.
– Development of non-carious cervical lesions (abfractions).REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 15Incorrect
ANSWER
Lateral load and effect on periodontal healthOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulp fibrosis – Typically occurs due to aging or chronic irritation, not directly due to occlusal disharmony
⢠Pulp calcific degeneration – Caused by chronic pulp irritation but is not a direct result of occlusal disharmony
⢠Calcific metamorphosis – Occurs after trauma to the tooth, leading to excessive dentin deposition in the pulp chamber, but is not commonly due to occlusal disharmony.SYNOPSIS
⢠Improper occlusion in restorations can lead to occlusal trauma, which can significantly impact periodontal health.
⢠High restorations can cause excessive lateral forces, leading to
– Trauma from occlusion – Widened PDL, bone resorption.
– Increased mobility of the affected tooth.
– Inflammation or recession due to excessive pressure on the periodontium.
– Development of non-carious cervical lesions (abfractions).REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 15 -
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
Study the signs and symptoms? 1.Increasing mobility, 2. Pathologic migration, 3. Inflamed gingiva, 4. Alveolar bone loss, Which of these are associated with secondary occlusal trauma?
Correct
ANSWER
1, 2, 4 (Increasing mobility, Pathologic migration, Alveolar bone loss)OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inflamed gingiva – While inflammation is common in periodontitis, it is not a direct sign of secondary occlusal trauma; it is primarily related to plaque-induced gingivitis or periodontitis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive occlusal forces are applied to teeth that already have a compromised periodontium due to pre-existing bone loss from periodontitis.
⢠Increasing mobility – Due to loss of periodontal support.
Pathologic migration – Shifting of teeth due to loss of bone and occlusal forces.
Alveolar bone loss – Already present due to periodontitis, worsened by trauma.REFERENCE
Lindhe J, Lang NP. Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry, 6th ed., Wiley-Blackwell.Incorrect
ANSWER
1, 2, 4 (Increasing mobility, Pathologic migration, Alveolar bone loss)OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inflamed gingiva – While inflammation is common in periodontitis, it is not a direct sign of secondary occlusal trauma; it is primarily related to plaque-induced gingivitis or periodontitis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive occlusal forces are applied to teeth that already have a compromised periodontium due to pre-existing bone loss from periodontitis.
⢠Increasing mobility – Due to loss of periodontal support.
Pathologic migration – Shifting of teeth due to loss of bone and occlusal forces.
Alveolar bone loss – Already present due to periodontitis, worsened by trauma.REFERENCE
Lindhe J, Lang NP. Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry, 6th ed., Wiley-Blackwell. -
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
A patient presents with gingival recession in the anterior teeth and complains of pain when exposed to cold stimuli. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Fluoride varnishOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Fluoride gel – Effective for caries prevention but less effective in occluding dentinal tubules compared to fluoride varnish.
⢠Fluoride toothpaste – Helps in long-term maintenance but does not provide immediate relief like varnish.
⢠Glass ionomer cement (GIC) – Used for severe cases with deep abrasion or non-carious cervical lesions, but not the first-line treatment for mild sensitivity.SYNOPSIS
⢠Gingival recession often leads to dentin hypersensitivity due to exposed dentinal tubules.
⢠Fluoride varnish is the most effective initial treatment as it forms a protective layer over the exposed dentin, reducing sensitivity by occluding dentinal tubules.REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 35Incorrect
ANSWER
Fluoride varnishOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Fluoride gel – Effective for caries prevention but less effective in occluding dentinal tubules compared to fluoride varnish.
⢠Fluoride toothpaste – Helps in long-term maintenance but does not provide immediate relief like varnish.
⢠Glass ionomer cement (GIC) – Used for severe cases with deep abrasion or non-carious cervical lesions, but not the first-line treatment for mild sensitivity.SYNOPSIS
⢠Gingival recession often leads to dentin hypersensitivity due to exposed dentinal tubules.
⢠Fluoride varnish is the most effective initial treatment as it forms a protective layer over the exposed dentin, reducing sensitivity by occluding dentinal tubules.REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 35 -
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
A patient presents with generalized gingival recession and generalized Grade 1 tooth mobility. After a thorough examination, you explain the need for scaling and advanced periodontal treatment options. However, the patient feels overwhelmed and embarrassed, believing the treatment is excessive. In this situation, the patient has the right to
Correct
ANSWER
Consult another dentist and get second opinionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠To be ethical, the practitioner has to be mindful of the patient physical and emotional well being.
⢠The patient has all the right to consult another dentist and get a second opinion.REFERENCE
Ethics in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Consult another dentist and get second opinionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠To be ethical, the practitioner has to be mindful of the patient physical and emotional well being.
⢠The patient has all the right to consult another dentist and get a second opinion.REFERENCE
Ethics in Dentistry -
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
3 walls defect treated with autogenous osseous coagulum contain-
Correct
ANSWER
Mixed intraoral cancellous and cortical bone mixed with patient bloodOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Intraoral cancellous or cortical bone alone lacks the combined benefits of both.
⢠Extraoral cancellous bone is not commonly used due to donor site morbidity and additional surgical requirements.
ā¢SYNOPSIS
⢠Osseous coagulum is a mixture of intraoral cancellous and cortical bone with blood, described by Robinson.
⢠It provides a scaffold for new bone formation, with small particle size increasing surface area for cellular and vascular interaction.
⢠Three-wall defects have the best regenerative potential, making them ideal for grafting with autogenous osseous coagulum.
ā¢REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 35Incorrect
ANSWER
Mixed intraoral cancellous and cortical bone mixed with patient bloodOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Intraoral cancellous or cortical bone alone lacks the combined benefits of both.
⢠Extraoral cancellous bone is not commonly used due to donor site morbidity and additional surgical requirements.
ā¢SYNOPSIS
⢠Osseous coagulum is a mixture of intraoral cancellous and cortical bone with blood, described by Robinson.
⢠It provides a scaffold for new bone formation, with small particle size increasing surface area for cellular and vascular interaction.
⢠Three-wall defects have the best regenerative potential, making them ideal for grafting with autogenous osseous coagulum.
ā¢REFERENCE
Periobasics 1st edition chapter 35 -
Question 142 of 150
142. Question
A lateral sliding flap is placed over a root surface that has been denuded for 6 years. Which of the following tissue relationships is most likely to occur?
Correct
ANSWER
Epithelium adjacent to the previously denuded root surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A lateral sliding flap is used for root coverage, typically in cases of gingival recession.
⢠In a root surface denuded for 6 years, significant loss of periodontal ligament (PDL) and cementum has likely occurred.
⢠True regeneration (new PDL fibers inserted into new cementum) is unlikely because
– The root surface has been exposed for an extended period.
– Natural cementogenesis and fiber reattachment do not readily occur in such cases.
– Instead, the junctional epithelium is likely to form along the previously exposed root surface, leading to a long junctional epithelium, which is a common outcome in periodontal wound healing.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 63Incorrect
ANSWER
Epithelium adjacent to the previously denuded root surfaceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A lateral sliding flap is used for root coverage, typically in cases of gingival recession.
⢠In a root surface denuded for 6 years, significant loss of periodontal ligament (PDL) and cementum has likely occurred.
⢠True regeneration (new PDL fibers inserted into new cementum) is unlikely because
– The root surface has been exposed for an extended period.
– Natural cementogenesis and fiber reattachment do not readily occur in such cases.
– Instead, the junctional epithelium is likely to form along the previously exposed root surface, leading to a long junctional epithelium, which is a common outcome in periodontal wound healing.REFERENCE
Carranza 11th edition chapter 63 -
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
A 28-year-old patient visits your clinic for a routine follow-up appointment two weeks after undergoing full-mouth oral prophylaxis. Upon clinical examination, you observe a notable reduction in bleeding on probing. The patient reports no discomfort and is satisfied with the treatment. Which of the following findings is the most reliable indicator of a successful prognosis following oral prophylaxis?
Correct
ANSWER
Reduced BOP (Bleeding on Probing)OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stippling of gingiva – Presence or absence is not a reliable indicator of periodontal health.
⢠Reduced sensitivity of tooth – While it may improve patient comfort, it is not a direct marker of periodontal treatment success.
⢠Reduced stains – Aesthetic outcome, not linked to disease activity or treatment prognosis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Bleeding on Probing (BOP) is one of the most reliable clinical indicators of gingival inflammation. Its reduction following oral prophylaxis suggests a decrease in inflammation and improved periodontal health.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Reduced BOP (Bleeding on Probing)OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stippling of gingiva – Presence or absence is not a reliable indicator of periodontal health.
⢠Reduced sensitivity of tooth – While it may improve patient comfort, it is not a direct marker of periodontal treatment success.
⢠Reduced stains – Aesthetic outcome, not linked to disease activity or treatment prognosis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Bleeding on Probing (BOP) is one of the most reliable clinical indicators of gingival inflammation. Its reduction following oral prophylaxis suggests a decrease in inflammation and improved periodontal health.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th Edition -
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
You are treating a 62-year-old female patient who recently got new dentures. She complains that her dentures tend to displace posteriorly (towards the back of her mouth) when she smiles. The patient has no relevant medical history, and her oral examination shows well-fitting dentures with no apparent issues. You suspect a specific reason for this denture displacement during smiling. What is the most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures while the patient smiles?
Correct
ANSWER
Inadequate vertical dimension of occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inadequate denture adhesive – Inadequate denture adhesive is not the most likely reason in this case, as the patient’s dentures have been described as well-fitting with no apparent issues.
⢠Improper denture base material – Improper denture base material is not the most likely reason, as there are no indications of material-related problems in the scenario.
⢠Overextended denture borders – Overextended denture borders may cause discomfort or sore spots but are less likely to be the primary reason for posterior displacement during smiling.SYNOPSIS
⢠The most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures during smiling is an inadequate vertical dimension of occlusion.
⢠The vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) refers to the space between the upper and lower jaws when the teeth are in contact.
⢠Proper VDO is crucial for maintaining the stability and function of dentures.
⢠If the VDO is too low, it can cause the dentures to displace backward during muscle activity like smiling.
⢠In this case, since the patient has no apparent issues with the denture fit or oral examination, the problem is likely related to the VDO.
To address this issue, the dentist should assess and adjust the VDO to ensure the patient’s dentures have proper stability and do not displace during function.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics – Deepak NallaswamyIncorrect
ANSWER
Inadequate vertical dimension of occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inadequate denture adhesive – Inadequate denture adhesive is not the most likely reason in this case, as the patient’s dentures have been described as well-fitting with no apparent issues.
⢠Improper denture base material – Improper denture base material is not the most likely reason, as there are no indications of material-related problems in the scenario.
⢠Overextended denture borders – Overextended denture borders may cause discomfort or sore spots but are less likely to be the primary reason for posterior displacement during smiling.SYNOPSIS
⢠The most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures during smiling is an inadequate vertical dimension of occlusion.
⢠The vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) refers to the space between the upper and lower jaws when the teeth are in contact.
⢠Proper VDO is crucial for maintaining the stability and function of dentures.
⢠If the VDO is too low, it can cause the dentures to displace backward during muscle activity like smiling.
⢠In this case, since the patient has no apparent issues with the denture fit or oral examination, the problem is likely related to the VDO.
To address this issue, the dentist should assess and adjust the VDO to ensure the patient’s dentures have proper stability and do not displace during function.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics – Deepak Nallaswamy -
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
You were presented with a case of impacted tooth 48. The radiographic examination showed a dentigerous cyst of 4mm involving the mandibular ramus associated with it. Which is the best way to manage?
Correct
ANSWER
Enucleation and extraction of 48OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentigerous cyst is managed by Enucleation, Marsupialisation, or a combination of both
⢠Enucleation – As a general surgical technique, enucleation refers to the surgical removal of a mass without cutting into or dissecting it.
⢠Marsupialization – Marsupialization is the surgical technique of cutting a slit into an abscess or cyst and suturing the edges of the slit to form a continuous surface from the exterior surface to the interior surface of the cyst or abscess. Sutured in this fashion, the site remains open and can drain freely.
⢠Large dentigerous cysts may also be treated by marsupialization followed by enucleation
⢠Surgical treatment of dentigerous cysts usually includes enucleation of the lesion along with the removal of associated teeth.
⢠This approach is favored in cases involving the impaction of a single tooth, such as a wisdom tooth in an adult, which has no function.
⢠Usual treatment for a dentigerous cyst is careful enucleation of the cyst together with the removal of the unerupted tooth, if eruption of the unerupted tooth is considered feasible, the tooth may be left in place after partial removal of the cyst wall.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of oral pathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Enucleation and extraction of 48OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentigerous cyst is managed by Enucleation, Marsupialisation, or a combination of both
⢠Enucleation – As a general surgical technique, enucleation refers to the surgical removal of a mass without cutting into or dissecting it.
⢠Marsupialization – Marsupialization is the surgical technique of cutting a slit into an abscess or cyst and suturing the edges of the slit to form a continuous surface from the exterior surface to the interior surface of the cyst or abscess. Sutured in this fashion, the site remains open and can drain freely.
⢠Large dentigerous cysts may also be treated by marsupialization followed by enucleation
⢠Surgical treatment of dentigerous cysts usually includes enucleation of the lesion along with the removal of associated teeth.
⢠This approach is favored in cases involving the impaction of a single tooth, such as a wisdom tooth in an adult, which has no function.
⢠Usual treatment for a dentigerous cyst is careful enucleation of the cyst together with the removal of the unerupted tooth, if eruption of the unerupted tooth is considered feasible, the tooth may be left in place after partial removal of the cyst wall.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of oral pathology -
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
You dispose waste materials after doing treatment for a hepatitis B patient carelessly. Your dental clinic cleaning staff was got needle prick injury. Which infection control is failed here?
Correct
ANSWER
Active infection controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Without proper infection control techniques, many of the things in a dental clinic, including people, instruments, and even computer components can be carriers for cross-contamination and contribute to the spreading of germs and disease.
⢠Active Infection control prevents or stops the spread of infections in healthcare settings.
ā¢.Non-disposable items like dental tools are cleaned and sterilized between patients.
⢠Disposable dental tools and needles are never reused.
⢠Infection control precautions also require all dental staff involved in patient care to use appropriate protective equipment such as gloves, masks, gowns, and eyewear when needed.
⢠Failure to follow any of the above guidelines means failure of active infection control.REFERENCE
Hepatitis B- Penina Haber, MPH and Sarah Schillie, MD, MPH, MBAIncorrect
ANSWER
Active infection controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Without proper infection control techniques, many of the things in a dental clinic, including people, instruments, and even computer components can be carriers for cross-contamination and contribute to the spreading of germs and disease.
⢠Active Infection control prevents or stops the spread of infections in healthcare settings.
ā¢.Non-disposable items like dental tools are cleaned and sterilized between patients.
⢠Disposable dental tools and needles are never reused.
⢠Infection control precautions also require all dental staff involved in patient care to use appropriate protective equipment such as gloves, masks, gowns, and eyewear when needed.
⢠Failure to follow any of the above guidelines means failure of active infection control.REFERENCE
Hepatitis B- Penina Haber, MPH and Sarah Schillie, MD, MPH, MBA -
Question 147 of 150
147. Question
In Ellis classification of injured teeth, a class IV represents?
Correct
ANSWER
Non vital toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Class I – Simple crown fracture with little or no dentin affected.
⢠Class II – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin, but with the pulp not affected.
⢠Class III – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin and pulp exposure.
⢠Class IV – A tooth devitalized by trauma with or without loss of tooth structure.
⢠Class V – Teeth lost as a result of trauma.
⢠Class VI – Root fracture with or without the loss of crown structure.
⢠Class VII – Displacement of the tooth with neither root nor crown fracture
⢠Class VIII – Complete crown fracture and its replacement.
⢠Class IX – Traumatic injuries of primary teeth.REFERENCE
An overview of the classification of dental trauma-Sasikala PagadalaIncorrect
ANSWER
Non vital toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Class I – Simple crown fracture with little or no dentin affected.
⢠Class II – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin, but with the pulp not affected.
⢠Class III – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin and pulp exposure.
⢠Class IV – A tooth devitalized by trauma with or without loss of tooth structure.
⢠Class V – Teeth lost as a result of trauma.
⢠Class VI – Root fracture with or without the loss of crown structure.
⢠Class VII – Displacement of the tooth with neither root nor crown fracture
⢠Class VIII – Complete crown fracture and its replacement.
⢠Class IX – Traumatic injuries of primary teeth.REFERENCE
An overview of the classification of dental trauma-Sasikala Pagadala -
Question 148 of 150
148. Question

A patient presented with a small swelling in the interdental papilla area between mandibular first and second premolars. It shows a tear shaped radiolucency on the same area on radiographic examination. Identify the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral periodontal cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dentigerous cyst – Dentigerous cyst always includes a tooth which cannot complete the eruption process and occurs around the crown by the fluid accumulation between the layers of enamel organ
⢠Ameloblastoma – Ameloblastoma isĀ a rare, noncancerous (benign) tumor that develops most often in the jaw near the molars. Ameloblastoma begins in the cells that form the protective enamel lining on your teeth.Ā
⢠Traumatic Bone Cyst – The traumatic bone cyst (TBC) isĀ an uncommon nonepithelial lined cavity of the jawsSYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral periodontal cyst (LPC) is an uncommon form of developmental odontogenic cyst.
⢠LPC can be suspected when there is a round, well-circumscribed radiolucency, usually of small diameter, along the lateral surface of vital erupted teeth, predominantly in the mandibular premolar region.
⢠Observable clinical signs of a LPC include a small, soft-tissue swelling found just below or within the interdental papilla.
⢠However, as it is usually asymptomatic in nature, LPCs are usually detected through radiography.
⢠On radiographs, the LPC appears with a well-defined round, oval or sometimes tear-drop shape.
⢠Lateral periodontal cysts should be removed surgically by conservative enucleation or excision, and the patient should be followed radiographically for several years thereafter to monitor for recurrence.
⢠The bone will likely regenerate in the bony defect over 6 months to 1 year.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Lateral periodontal cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dentigerous cyst – Dentigerous cyst always includes a tooth which cannot complete the eruption process and occurs around the crown by the fluid accumulation between the layers of enamel organ
⢠Ameloblastoma – Ameloblastoma isĀ a rare, noncancerous (benign) tumor that develops most often in the jaw near the molars. Ameloblastoma begins in the cells that form the protective enamel lining on your teeth.Ā
⢠Traumatic Bone Cyst – The traumatic bone cyst (TBC) isĀ an uncommon nonepithelial lined cavity of the jawsSYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral periodontal cyst (LPC) is an uncommon form of developmental odontogenic cyst.
⢠LPC can be suspected when there is a round, well-circumscribed radiolucency, usually of small diameter, along the lateral surface of vital erupted teeth, predominantly in the mandibular premolar region.
⢠Observable clinical signs of a LPC include a small, soft-tissue swelling found just below or within the interdental papilla.
⢠However, as it is usually asymptomatic in nature, LPCs are usually detected through radiography.
⢠On radiographs, the LPC appears with a well-defined round, oval or sometimes tear-drop shape.
⢠Lateral periodontal cysts should be removed surgically by conservative enucleation or excision, and the patient should be followed radiographically for several years thereafter to monitor for recurrence.
⢠The bone will likely regenerate in the bony defect over 6 months to 1 year.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 149 of 150
149. Question
A patient presented with a complaint of a tooth that has pain with sweet and cold that relieves after removal of stimulus . There is no sensitivity to heat and no pain on percussion . Identify the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Irreversible pulpitis – Sensitive to heat and percussion
⢠Acute periodontal disease – Percussion test will be positive
⢠Dentinal hypersensitivity – Short intense pain while having hot or cold food stuffsSYNOPSIS
⢠Pulpitis is an inflammation of the pulp.
⢠It usually happens when thereās an irritation inside a tooth due to things such as grinding or a cavity
⢠There are two types of pulpitis.
– Reversible pulpitis –Ā In this early stage, pulpitis is reversible if treated
– Irreversible pulpitis – Ā In this stage, the inflammation is more advanced and the tooth canāt recover. The pulp tissue will eventually die. This is pulp necrosis.
⢠Symptoms of reversible pulpitis include
– No pain when your dentist taps the tooth.
– No sensitivity to heat.
– Sensitivity to cold or sweets that goes away quickly.
⢠For reversible pulpitis, removal of the the cause can reverse the condition.
⢠Often, this involves the removal of the decay and sealing the tooth with a normal filling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic PracticeIncorrect
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Irreversible pulpitis – Sensitive to heat and percussion
⢠Acute periodontal disease – Percussion test will be positive
⢠Dentinal hypersensitivity – Short intense pain while having hot or cold food stuffsSYNOPSIS
⢠Pulpitis is an inflammation of the pulp.
⢠It usually happens when thereās an irritation inside a tooth due to things such as grinding or a cavity
⢠There are two types of pulpitis.
– Reversible pulpitis –Ā In this early stage, pulpitis is reversible if treated
– Irreversible pulpitis – Ā In this stage, the inflammation is more advanced and the tooth canāt recover. The pulp tissue will eventually die. This is pulp necrosis.
⢠Symptoms of reversible pulpitis include
– No pain when your dentist taps the tooth.
– No sensitivity to heat.
– Sensitivity to cold or sweets that goes away quickly.
⢠For reversible pulpitis, removal of the the cause can reverse the condition.
⢠Often, this involves the removal of the decay and sealing the tooth with a normal filling.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practice -
Question 150 of 150
150. Question

Identify the lesion.
Correct
ANSWER
Deep pit and fissureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Deep pits and fissures are the small holes and lines that can be seen on the biting surface of a tooth.
⢠These pits and fissures often trap food and can harvest bacteria, leading to dental caries
⢠For shallow or moderately deep pit-and-fissure lesions, various treatment options are available
(1) Noninvasive treatments (e.g., fluoride application, antibacterial treatments, oral hygiene advice) avoid any dental hard tissue removal
(2) Micro-invasive treatments (e.g., sealing) remove only a few micrometers of hard tissues by etching and
(3) Minimally invasive methods (e.g., preventive resin or sealant restoration) remove carious dentin but avoid sacrificing sound tissuesREFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic practiceIncorrect
ANSWER
Deep pit and fissureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Deep pits and fissures are the small holes and lines that can be seen on the biting surface of a tooth.
⢠These pits and fissures often trap food and can harvest bacteria, leading to dental caries
⢠For shallow or moderately deep pit-and-fissure lesions, various treatment options are available
(1) Noninvasive treatments (e.g., fluoride application, antibacterial treatments, oral hygiene advice) avoid any dental hard tissue removal
(2) Micro-invasive treatments (e.g., sealing) remove only a few micrometers of hard tissues by etching and
(3) Minimally invasive methods (e.g., preventive resin or sealant restoration) remove carious dentin but avoid sacrificing sound tissuesREFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic practice
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