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Question 1 of 150
1. Question

A 55-year-old female presents with multiple flat brown lesions on her lower lip. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Observation or biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Surgical excision with wide margins – wide excision is for malignancies.
ā Topical corticosteroids – for inflammatory lesions.SYNOPSIS
ā Flat brown lesion on lower lip is typically an oral melanotic macule.
ā Benign in nature.
ā Oral melanotic macule requires observation or biopsy to confirm diagnosis.
ā Biopsy indicated if changing.REFERENCE
Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology – Neville 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Observation or biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Surgical excision with wide margins – wide excision is for malignancies.
ā Topical corticosteroids – for inflammatory lesions.SYNOPSIS
ā Flat brown lesion on lower lip is typically an oral melanotic macule.
ā Benign in nature.
ā Oral melanotic macule requires observation or biopsy to confirm diagnosis.
ā Biopsy indicated if changing.REFERENCE
Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology – Neville 5th Edition -
Question 2 of 150
2. Question
A patient came to the clinic suffering from a submandibular gland abscess for which a stab incision is made and a rubber drain is fixed to evacuate the pus. Where does the drain is sutured?
Correct
ANSWER
From angle of the mandibleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For a submandibular gland abscess, an external incision is typically made for dependent drainage.
ā The incision is made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue, often in a skin crease below the inferior border of the mandible (angle of the mandible) to avoid injuring the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.
ā The rubber drain (e.g., Penrose drain) is inserted into the abscess cavity through this incision and then secured to the skin edge using sutures.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
From angle of the mandibleOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For a submandibular gland abscess, an external incision is typically made for dependent drainage.
ā The incision is made through the skin and subcutaneous tissue, often in a skin crease below the inferior border of the mandible (angle of the mandible) to avoid injuring the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.
ā The rubber drain (e.g., Penrose drain) is inserted into the abscess cavity through this incision and then secured to the skin edge using sutures.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 3 of 150
3. Question

A 32-year-old woman presents to the dental clinic with a 3-month history of asymptomatic white lesions on both sides of the buccal mucosa. Intraoral examination reveals bilateral, diffuse, lace-like white lines arranged in a reticular pattern. The lesions cannot be wiped off and there is no history of tobacco use or medication associated with oral pigmentation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Oral Lichen PlanusOTHER OPTIONS
ā Leukoplakia ā Usually presents as a well-demarcated white plaque that cannot be rubbed off and is not characteristically lace-like or bilaterally symmetrical.
ā Candidiasis ā Typically produces white plaques that can often be wiped away, leaving an erythematous or bleeding surface.
ā White Sponge Nevus ā A hereditary condition producing diffuse, thickened, folded or corrugated white lesions, commonly affecting the bilateral buccal mucosa, but it does not characteristically show Wickham striae.SYNOPSIS
ā Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory mucocutaneous disorder that commonly affects the bilateral buccal mucosa.
ā The classic reticular form presents as fine, white, lace-like lines known as Wickham striae.
ā The bilateral, symmetrical reticular pattern with Wickham striae is highly characteristic of oral lichen planus.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Oral Lichen PlanusOTHER OPTIONS
ā Leukoplakia ā Usually presents as a well-demarcated white plaque that cannot be rubbed off and is not characteristically lace-like or bilaterally symmetrical.
ā Candidiasis ā Typically produces white plaques that can often be wiped away, leaving an erythematous or bleeding surface.
ā White Sponge Nevus ā A hereditary condition producing diffuse, thickened, folded or corrugated white lesions, commonly affecting the bilateral buccal mucosa, but it does not characteristically show Wickham striae.SYNOPSIS
ā Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory mucocutaneous disorder that commonly affects the bilateral buccal mucosa.
ā The classic reticular form presents as fine, white, lace-like lines known as Wickham striae.
ā The bilateral, symmetrical reticular pattern with Wickham striae is highly characteristic of oral lichen planus.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed -
Question 4 of 150
4. Question

A 21-year-old dental student under significant examination stress reports recurrent episodes of painful oral ulcers. Intraoral examination reveals small, round, shallow ulcers with an erythematous halo affecting the non-keratinized mucosa, including the labial and buccal mucosa. The ulcers heal spontaneously without scarring. There are no vesicles or lesions on the skin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Recurrent Aphthous StomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Herpes Simplex ā Usually begins as vesicles that rupture to form ulcers and commonly affects keratinized mucosa in recurrent intraoral herpes.
ā Squamous Cell Carcinoma ā Typically presents as a persistent, indurated, non-healing ulcer or mass rather than recurrent ulcers that heal spontaneously.
ā Syphilis ā Oral manifestations may include a solitary, usually painless chancre during primary syphilis rather than recurrent painful aphthous-like ulcers.SYNOPSIS
ā Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS) is characterized by recurrent, painful, well-circumscribed ulcers primarily involving non-keratinized oral mucosa.
ā Common precipitating factors include stress, local trauma, nutritional deficiencies, and hormonal changes.
ā Minor aphthae are usually small, painful ulcers with an erythematous halo that heal spontaneously without scarring.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Recurrent Aphthous StomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Herpes Simplex ā Usually begins as vesicles that rupture to form ulcers and commonly affects keratinized mucosa in recurrent intraoral herpes.
ā Squamous Cell Carcinoma ā Typically presents as a persistent, indurated, non-healing ulcer or mass rather than recurrent ulcers that heal spontaneously.
ā Syphilis ā Oral manifestations may include a solitary, usually painless chancre during primary syphilis rather than recurrent painful aphthous-like ulcers.SYNOPSIS
ā Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS) is characterized by recurrent, painful, well-circumscribed ulcers primarily involving non-keratinized oral mucosa.
ā Common precipitating factors include stress, local trauma, nutritional deficiencies, and hormonal changes.
ā Minor aphthae are usually small, painful ulcers with an erythematous halo that heal spontaneously without scarring.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed. -
Question 5 of 150
5. Question
Which instrument is best suited for evaluating furcation involvement in multirooted teeth?
Correct
ANSWER
Nabers ProbeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Williams Probe ā Used to measure periodontal pocket depth and clinical attachment levels but is not specifically designed for assessing furcation involvement.
ā Marquis Color-Coded Probe ā Used primarily for measuring periodontal pocket depth and attachment levels; it is not specifically designed for furcation assessment.
ā UNC-15 Probe ā Used for accurate measurement of periodontal pocket depth and clinical attachment levels, but its straight design makes it less suitable for furcation examination.SYNOPSIS
ā The Nabers probe is specifically designed to detect and assess furcation involvement in multirooted teeth.
ā It has a curved, blunt, calibrated tip that facilitates entry into the furcation area.
ā Furcation involvement is commonly classified using Hamp’s classification based on the horizontal extent of periodontal tissue destruction.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology. 14th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Nabers ProbeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Williams Probe ā Used to measure periodontal pocket depth and clinical attachment levels but is not specifically designed for assessing furcation involvement.
ā Marquis Color-Coded Probe ā Used primarily for measuring periodontal pocket depth and attachment levels; it is not specifically designed for furcation assessment.
ā UNC-15 Probe ā Used for accurate measurement of periodontal pocket depth and clinical attachment levels, but its straight design makes it less suitable for furcation examination.SYNOPSIS
ā The Nabers probe is specifically designed to detect and assess furcation involvement in multirooted teeth.
ā It has a curved, blunt, calibrated tip that facilitates entry into the furcation area.
ā Furcation involvement is commonly classified using Hamp’s classification based on the horizontal extent of periodontal tissue destruction.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology. 14th ed. -
Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Which muscle could be affected in trismus present due to the infection of pharyngeal space?
Correct
ANSWER
Medial pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lateral pterygoid ā mainly involved in protrusion and opening, not commonly affected in pharyngeal space infection
ā Masseter ā involved in mastication; affected more in buccal/masseteric space infections
ā Posterior pharyngeal ā not a muscle of mastication and does not cause trismusSYNOPSIS
ā Medial pterygoid lies adjacent to parapharyngeal space
ā Infection spreads easily causing spasm leading to trismus
ā Common in deep neck space infectionsREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Medial pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lateral pterygoid ā mainly involved in protrusion and opening, not commonly affected in pharyngeal space infection
ā Masseter ā involved in mastication; affected more in buccal/masseteric space infections
ā Posterior pharyngeal ā not a muscle of mastication and does not cause trismusSYNOPSIS
ā Medial pterygoid lies adjacent to parapharyngeal space
ā Infection spreads easily causing spasm leading to trismus
ā Common in deep neck space infectionsREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 7 of 150
7. Question

A radiograph shows a well-defined periapical radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Radicular CystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dentigerous Cyst ā Usually surrounds the crown of an unerupted or impacted tooth and is attached at the cemento-enamel junction.
ā Odontogenic Keratocyst ā May occur in the jaws as a well-defined radiolucency, but it is not characteristically associated with a non-vital tooth.
ā Ameloblastoma ā Typically presents as a multilocular or unilocular radiolucency, often in the posterior mandible, and is not specifically associated with a non-vital tooth.SYNOPSIS
ā A radicular cyst is an inflammatory odontogenic cyst that develops at the apex of a non-vital tooth due to pulpal necrosis and chronic apical inflammation.
ā Radiographically, it typically appears as a well-defined, round or ovoid unilocular periapical radiolucency, often surrounded by a corticated border.
ā It is the most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst and is usually associated with a tooth affected by caries or previous trauma.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Radicular CystOTHER OPTIONS
ā Dentigerous Cyst ā Usually surrounds the crown of an unerupted or impacted tooth and is attached at the cemento-enamel junction.
ā Odontogenic Keratocyst ā May occur in the jaws as a well-defined radiolucency, but it is not characteristically associated with a non-vital tooth.
ā Ameloblastoma ā Typically presents as a multilocular or unilocular radiolucency, often in the posterior mandible, and is not specifically associated with a non-vital tooth.SYNOPSIS
ā A radicular cyst is an inflammatory odontogenic cyst that develops at the apex of a non-vital tooth due to pulpal necrosis and chronic apical inflammation.
ā Radiographically, it typically appears as a well-defined, round or ovoid unilocular periapical radiolucency, often surrounded by a corticated border.
ā It is the most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst and is usually associated with a tooth affected by caries or previous trauma.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed -
Question 8 of 150
8. Question
Marginal tissue recession extending to or beyond the mucogingival junction with no interdental bone loss is classified as:
Correct
ANSWER
Miller Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Miller Class I ā Marginal tissue recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction, with no interdental bone or soft-tissue loss.
ā Miller Class III ā Marginal tissue recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction with interdental bone or soft-tissue loss, or tooth malposition.
ā Miller Class IV ā Marginal tissue recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction with severe interdental bone or soft-tissue loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Miller Class II recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction (MGJ) with no loss of interdental bone or soft tissue.
ā The interdental tissues remain intact, making complete root coverage potentially achievable.
ā Miller classification is based primarily on the extent of recession relative to the MGJ and the condition of the interdental tissues.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology. 14th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Miller Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
ā Miller Class I ā Marginal tissue recession does not extend to the mucogingival junction, with no interdental bone or soft-tissue loss.
ā Miller Class III ā Marginal tissue recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction with interdental bone or soft-tissue loss, or tooth malposition.
ā Miller Class IV ā Marginal tissue recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction with severe interdental bone or soft-tissue loss.SYNOPSIS
ā Miller Class II recession extends to or beyond the mucogingival junction (MGJ) with no loss of interdental bone or soft tissue.
ā The interdental tissues remain intact, making complete root coverage potentially achievable.
ā Miller classification is based primarily on the extent of recession relative to the MGJ and the condition of the interdental tissues.REFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR. Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology. 14th ed -
Question 9 of 150
9. Question

A 12-year-old patient presents with retained lateral incisor and missing permanent lateral incisor of the maxillary anterior region. An occlusal radiograph reveals a well-defined radiopaque lesion composed of several small, tooth-like structures, surrounded by a narrow radiolucent halo. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Compound OdontomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Complex Odontoma ā Appears as an irregular, disorganized radiopaque mass of dental tissues rather than multiple recognizable tooth-like structures.
ā Ameloblastic Fibro-Odontoma ā Usually presents as a well-defined radiolucent lesion containing varying amounts of radiopaque material and is commonly associated with an unerupted tooth.
ā Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor ā Typically appears as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency containing scattered radiopaque calcifications rather than multiple miniature teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Compound odontoma is a hamartomatous odontogenic lesion composed of multiple small, recognizable tooth-like structures (denticles).
ā It commonly occurs in the anterior maxilla and may cause delayed or failed eruption of a permanent tooth.
ā Radiographically, it appears as multiple radiopaque denticles surrounded by a narrow radiolucent halo representing the connective tissue capsule.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Compound OdontomaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Complex Odontoma ā Appears as an irregular, disorganized radiopaque mass of dental tissues rather than multiple recognizable tooth-like structures.
ā Ameloblastic Fibro-Odontoma ā Usually presents as a well-defined radiolucent lesion containing varying amounts of radiopaque material and is commonly associated with an unerupted tooth.
ā Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor ā Typically appears as a unilocular or multilocular radiolucency containing scattered radiopaque calcifications rather than multiple miniature teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Compound odontoma is a hamartomatous odontogenic lesion composed of multiple small, recognizable tooth-like structures (denticles).
ā It commonly occurs in the anterior maxilla and may cause delayed or failed eruption of a permanent tooth.
ā Radiographically, it appears as multiple radiopaque denticles surrounded by a narrow radiolucent halo representing the connective tissue capsule.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th ed. -
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
A patient has a Right side Class I and Left side Class II molar relation. What is the Angle’s classification?
Correct
ANSWER
Class II subdivision leftOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class II Division 1 ā Characterized by Class II molar relationship with proclined maxillary incisors and increased overjet; it does not describe a unilateral molar relationship.
ā Class II Division 2 ā Characterized by Class II molar relationship with retroclined maxillary central incisors, often with deep overbite.
ā Class II subdivision right ā Applies when the right side has a Class II molar relationship and the left side has a Class I relationship.SYNOPSIS
ā Angleās Class II subdivision is diagnosed when a patient has a Class I molar relationship on one side and a Class II molar relationship on the opposite side.
ā The subdivision is named according to the side showing the Class II molar relationship.
ā Here, the right side is Class I and the left side is Class II, so the diagnosis is Class II subdivision left.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson B, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 7th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Class II subdivision leftOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class II Division 1 ā Characterized by Class II molar relationship with proclined maxillary incisors and increased overjet; it does not describe a unilateral molar relationship.
ā Class II Division 2 ā Characterized by Class II molar relationship with retroclined maxillary central incisors, often with deep overbite.
ā Class II subdivision right ā Applies when the right side has a Class II molar relationship and the left side has a Class I relationship.SYNOPSIS
ā Angleās Class II subdivision is diagnosed when a patient has a Class I molar relationship on one side and a Class II molar relationship on the opposite side.
ā The subdivision is named according to the side showing the Class II molar relationship.
ā Here, the right side is Class I and the left side is Class II, so the diagnosis is Class II subdivision left.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson B, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 7th ed -
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
What is the standard antibiotic prophylaxis dosage for the prevention of infective endocarditis in an adult?
Correct
ANSWER
Amoxicillin 2 g orally 30ā60 minutes priorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Clindamycin 600 mg orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā No longer recommended by the AHA as an alternative for infective endocarditis prophylaxis because of the risk of severe adverse reactions, including C. difficile infection.
ā Amoxicillin 1 g orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā The standard adult prophylactic dose is 2 g, not 1 g.
ā Azithromycin 500 mg orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā Azithromycin 500 mg can be used as an alternative in patients who are allergic to penicillin/ampicillin, but it is not the first-line regimen.SYNOPSIS
ā For adults at high risk of infective endocarditis who meet criteria for antibiotic prophylaxis before indicated dental procedures, the standard regimen is amoxicillin 2 g orally as a single dose 30ā60 minutes before the procedure.
ā Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended only for specific high-risk cardiac conditions and certain dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissue, the periapical region, or perforation of oral mucosa.REFERENCE
Wilson W, et al. Prevention of Viridans Group Streptococcal Infective Endocarditis. Circulation. 2021;143:e963-e978.Incorrect
ANSWER
Amoxicillin 2 g orally 30ā60 minutes priorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Clindamycin 600 mg orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā No longer recommended by the AHA as an alternative for infective endocarditis prophylaxis because of the risk of severe adverse reactions, including C. difficile infection.
ā Amoxicillin 1 g orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā The standard adult prophylactic dose is 2 g, not 1 g.
ā Azithromycin 500 mg orally 30ā60 minutes prior ā Azithromycin 500 mg can be used as an alternative in patients who are allergic to penicillin/ampicillin, but it is not the first-line regimen.SYNOPSIS
ā For adults at high risk of infective endocarditis who meet criteria for antibiotic prophylaxis before indicated dental procedures, the standard regimen is amoxicillin 2 g orally as a single dose 30ā60 minutes before the procedure.
ā Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended only for specific high-risk cardiac conditions and certain dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissue, the periapical region, or perforation of oral mucosa.REFERENCE
Wilson W, et al. Prevention of Viridans Group Streptococcal Infective Endocarditis. Circulation. 2021;143:e963-e978. -
Question 12 of 150
12. Question
A 32-year-old patient reports spontaneous pain in the mandibular first molar, particularly at night. The tooth has a deep carious lesion. During a cold thermal test, the patient experiences intense pain that continues for several minutes even after the cold stimulus is removed. Which of the following is the most likely pulpal diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Irreversible PulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā A lingering pain response to a thermal stimulus, especially when the pain persists after removal of the stimulus, is characteristic of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
ā In reversible pulpitis, the pain is typically brief and non-lingering, resolving quickly after removal of the stimulus.
ā Pulpal necrosis generally produces no response to thermal testing.
ā A normal pulp responds to cold with a short, mild sensation that disappears immediately after removal of the stimulus.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th ed.
Incorrect
ANSWER
Irreversible PulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā A lingering pain response to a thermal stimulus, especially when the pain persists after removal of the stimulus, is characteristic of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
ā In reversible pulpitis, the pain is typically brief and non-lingering, resolving quickly after removal of the stimulus.
ā Pulpal necrosis generally produces no response to thermal testing.
ā A normal pulp responds to cold with a short, mild sensation that disappears immediately after removal of the stimulus.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th ed.
-
Question 13 of 150
13. Question

A 45-year-old patient presents with a persistent white patch on the lateral border of the tongue that has been present for several months. The lesion is not painful and cannot be scraped off with gauze. There is no history of recent trauma or chemical exposure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
LeukoplakiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pseudomembranous candidiasis ā Typically presents as a white, curd-like plaque that can be scraped off, leaving an erythematous or bleeding surface underneath.
ā Materia alba ā A soft, loosely adherent accumulation of microorganisms, food debris, and epithelial cells that can be easily removed from the tooth or oral mucosa.
ā Chemical burn ā May produce a white, sloughing or necrotic mucosal surface, usually associated with a history of exposure to a chemical irritant.SYNOPSIS
ā Leukoplakia is a predominantly white oral mucosal lesion that cannot be scraped off and cannot be clinically or histopathologically characterized as another specific disorder.
ā It commonly occurs on sites such as the buccal mucosa, gingiva, and lateral/ventral tongue.
ā Persistent leukoplakia requires evaluation because it is considered a potentially malignant oral disorder.
ā Exam pearl ā Persistent, non-scrapable white lesion ā Leukoplakia.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
LeukoplakiaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pseudomembranous candidiasis ā Typically presents as a white, curd-like plaque that can be scraped off, leaving an erythematous or bleeding surface underneath.
ā Materia alba ā A soft, loosely adherent accumulation of microorganisms, food debris, and epithelial cells that can be easily removed from the tooth or oral mucosa.
ā Chemical burn ā May produce a white, sloughing or necrotic mucosal surface, usually associated with a history of exposure to a chemical irritant.SYNOPSIS
ā Leukoplakia is a predominantly white oral mucosal lesion that cannot be scraped off and cannot be clinically or histopathologically characterized as another specific disorder.
ā It commonly occurs on sites such as the buccal mucosa, gingiva, and lateral/ventral tongue.
ā Persistent leukoplakia requires evaluation because it is considered a potentially malignant oral disorder.
ā Exam pearl ā Persistent, non-scrapable white lesion ā Leukoplakia.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
A patient on warfarin with an INR of 3 requires a dental extraction. What is the appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Proceed with extraction using local hemostatic measuresOTHER OPTIONS
ā Discontinue warfarin 3 days prior ā Routine discontinuation of warfarin is generally unnecessary and may increase the risk of thromboembolic complications.
ā Refer to hospital setting ā An INR of 3.0 is generally within the range in which routine dental extractions can be performed with appropriate local hemostatic measures.
ā Switch to heparin ā Bridging with heparin is not routinely required for a simple dental extraction and should not be done without appropriate medical indication.SYNOPSIS
ā For most patients taking warfarin, anticoagulation is not routinely stopped for simple dental extraction when the INR is within an acceptable therapeutic range.
ā An INR of 3.0 is generally acceptable for dental extraction, provided careful local hemostatic measures are used.
ā Local measures include firm gauze pressure, suturing when indicated, and local hemostatic agents such as oxidized cellulose or gelatin sponge.
ā Exam tip ā Warfarin + INR ā¤3ā3.5 – usually continue warfarin and use local hemostasis.REFERENCE
Nematullah A, et al. Dental surgery for patients on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin: a systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of the Canadian Dental Association. 2009;75(1):41.Incorrect
ANSWER
Proceed with extraction using local hemostatic measuresOTHER OPTIONS
ā Discontinue warfarin 3 days prior ā Routine discontinuation of warfarin is generally unnecessary and may increase the risk of thromboembolic complications.
ā Refer to hospital setting ā An INR of 3.0 is generally within the range in which routine dental extractions can be performed with appropriate local hemostatic measures.
ā Switch to heparin ā Bridging with heparin is not routinely required for a simple dental extraction and should not be done without appropriate medical indication.SYNOPSIS
ā For most patients taking warfarin, anticoagulation is not routinely stopped for simple dental extraction when the INR is within an acceptable therapeutic range.
ā An INR of 3.0 is generally acceptable for dental extraction, provided careful local hemostatic measures are used.
ā Local measures include firm gauze pressure, suturing when indicated, and local hemostatic agents such as oxidized cellulose or gelatin sponge.
ā Exam tip ā Warfarin + INR ā¤3ā3.5 – usually continue warfarin and use local hemostasis.REFERENCE
Nematullah A, et al. Dental surgery for patients on anticoagulant therapy with warfarin: a systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of the Canadian Dental Association. 2009;75(1):41. -
Question 15 of 150
15. Question

A 3-year-old child presents with fever, painful oral vesicles on both keratinized and non-keratinized mucosa, and inflamed gingiva. What is your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Primary Herpetic GingivostomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Herpangina ā Usually causes small vesicles and ulcers on the soft palate, tonsillar pillars, and posterior oropharynx; generalized gingivitis is not a typical feature.
ā Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease ā Characteristically causes oral vesicles/ulcers accompanied by lesions on the hands and feet, often with a perioral rash.
ā Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis ā Produces recurrent ulcers, usually without vesicles, systemic fever, or generalized acute gingivitis.SYNOPSIS
ā Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and frequently affects young children.
ā It presents with fever, painful vesicles and ulcers involving both keratinized and non-keratinized oral mucosa, and generalized painful gingivitis.
ā The combination of young child + fever + diffuse oral vesicles/ulcers and gingivitis is highly characteristic.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Primary Herpetic GingivostomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Herpangina ā Usually causes small vesicles and ulcers on the soft palate, tonsillar pillars, and posterior oropharynx; generalized gingivitis is not a typical feature.
ā Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease ā Characteristically causes oral vesicles/ulcers accompanied by lesions on the hands and feet, often with a perioral rash.
ā Recurrent Aphthous Stomatitis ā Produces recurrent ulcers, usually without vesicles, systemic fever, or generalized acute gingivitis.SYNOPSIS
ā Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and frequently affects young children.
ā It presents with fever, painful vesicles and ulcers involving both keratinized and non-keratinized oral mucosa, and generalized painful gingivitis.
ā The combination of young child + fever + diffuse oral vesicles/ulcers and gingivitis is highly characteristic.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
A 25-year-old patient presents with a deep carious lesion in a mandibular first molar. During careful excavation of the remaining carious dentin, a small mechanical pulp exposure occurs. The tooth is vital, there is no history of spontaneous or lingering pain, and the pulp appears healthy with controlled bleeding. What is the most likely pulpal diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Reversible PulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Irreversible Pulpitis ā Usually presents with spontaneous, severe, or lingering thermal pain and indicates that the pulp is unlikely to recover without endodontic treatment.
ā Pulpal Necrosis ā Indicates loss of pulp vitality; the tooth generally does not respond to thermal or electric pulp testing.
ā Apical Periodontitis ā Involves inflammation of the apical periodontal tissues and commonly presents with tenderness to percussion or biting.SYNOPSIS
ā A vital tooth with a small mechanical pulp exposure and no signs of irreversible pulpal inflammation may still have a reversibly inflamed pulp.
ā The absence of spontaneous or lingering pain and the presence of controlled pulpal bleeding support a vital, potentially recoverable pulp.
ā Depending on the clinical circumstances, vital pulp therapy such as direct pulp capping may be considered.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Reversible PulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Irreversible Pulpitis ā Usually presents with spontaneous, severe, or lingering thermal pain and indicates that the pulp is unlikely to recover without endodontic treatment.
ā Pulpal Necrosis ā Indicates loss of pulp vitality; the tooth generally does not respond to thermal or electric pulp testing.
ā Apical Periodontitis ā Involves inflammation of the apical periodontal tissues and commonly presents with tenderness to percussion or biting.SYNOPSIS
ā A vital tooth with a small mechanical pulp exposure and no signs of irreversible pulpal inflammation may still have a reversibly inflamed pulp.
ā The absence of spontaneous or lingering pain and the presence of controlled pulpal bleeding support a vital, potentially recoverable pulp.
ā Depending on the clinical circumstances, vital pulp therapy such as direct pulp capping may be considered.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th edition -
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
A tooth is exquisitely tender to percussion (TOP +) and the patient reports severe pain. The diagnosis is:
Correct
ANSWER
Acute Apical PeriodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Chronic Apical Periodontitis ā Usually has few or no symptoms and is often associated with a well-defined periapical radiolucency.
ā Acute Apical Abscess ā Typically presents with rapid onset of severe pain, swelling, pus formation, and marked tenderness to percussion; systemic signs may also occur.
ā Reversible Pulpitis ā Produces a brief, non-lingering response to thermal stimuli and does not typically cause marked tenderness to percussion.SYNOPSIS
ā Acute apical periodontitis is characterized by inflammation of the periodontal ligament at the root apex and typically produces pain on biting and marked tenderness to percussion (TOP +).
ā The tooth may feel extruded or elevated because of inflammation in the periodontal ligament.
ā Severe tenderness to percussion without the characteristic swelling and pus formation of an abscess favors acute apical periodontitis.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Acute Apical PeriodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Chronic Apical Periodontitis ā Usually has few or no symptoms and is often associated with a well-defined periapical radiolucency.
ā Acute Apical Abscess ā Typically presents with rapid onset of severe pain, swelling, pus formation, and marked tenderness to percussion; systemic signs may also occur.
ā Reversible Pulpitis ā Produces a brief, non-lingering response to thermal stimuli and does not typically cause marked tenderness to percussion.SYNOPSIS
ā Acute apical periodontitis is characterized by inflammation of the periodontal ligament at the root apex and typically produces pain on biting and marked tenderness to percussion (TOP +).
ā The tooth may feel extruded or elevated because of inflammation in the periodontal ligament.
ā Severe tenderness to percussion without the characteristic swelling and pus formation of an abscess favors acute apical periodontitis.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition -
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
A 9-year-old child presents to the dental clinic 30 minutes after sustaining a traumatic fracture of a maxillary permanent incisor. Clinical examination reveals a small pulp exposure measuring less than 1 mm. The tooth is vital, there is no evidence of luxation or root fracture, and the exposure is relatively clean. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Cvek PulpotomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pulpectomy ā Involves complete removal of the pulp and is generally unnecessary when a recently traumatized permanent tooth has a small exposure and a healthy vital pulp.
ā Extraction ā Not indicated when the tooth is restorable, vital, and has no associated root fracture or severe periodontal injury.
ā Indirect Pulp Capping ā Used when the pulp is not exposed and a layer of affected dentin is intentionally left over the pulp; it is not appropriate for an actual pulp exposureSYNOPSIS
ā In a young permanent tooth with a recent traumatic pulp exposure, maintaining pulp vitality is important for continued root development and dentinal wall formation.
ā Cvek partial pulpotomy is commonly indicated for traumatic pulp exposures in immature permanent teeth and involves removal of a small amount of inflamed coronal pulp followed by placement of a suitable pulp-capping material.
ā For a very small, clean exposure with a healthy pulp, direct pulp capping may also be considered depending on the clinical circumstances.REFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM, Andersson L. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Cvek PulpotomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pulpectomy ā Involves complete removal of the pulp and is generally unnecessary when a recently traumatized permanent tooth has a small exposure and a healthy vital pulp.
ā Extraction ā Not indicated when the tooth is restorable, vital, and has no associated root fracture or severe periodontal injury.
ā Indirect Pulp Capping ā Used when the pulp is not exposed and a layer of affected dentin is intentionally left over the pulp; it is not appropriate for an actual pulp exposureSYNOPSIS
ā In a young permanent tooth with a recent traumatic pulp exposure, maintaining pulp vitality is important for continued root development and dentinal wall formation.
ā Cvek partial pulpotomy is commonly indicated for traumatic pulp exposures in immature permanent teeth and involves removal of a small amount of inflamed coronal pulp followed by placement of a suitable pulp-capping material.
ā For a very small, clean exposure with a healthy pulp, direct pulp capping may also be considered depending on the clinical circumstances.REFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM, Andersson L. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 5th Edition -
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
What is the preferred fluoride application for a mentally challenged patient?
Correct
ANSWER
5% Sodium Fluoride (NaF) varnishOTHER OPTIONS
ā 1.23% APF gel in trays ā Tray application requires adequate cooperation and control to minimize swallowing or ingestion, making it less suitable for patients with limited cooperation.
ā 0.05% NaF daily mouthrinse ā Requires the patient to reliably rinse and expectorate, which may be difficult for a patient with impaired cooperation or swallowing control.
ā Acidulated phosphate fluoride foam ā Although effective as a topical fluoride, foam applied in trays also requires sufficient patient cooperation and control.SYNOPSIS
ā 5% sodium fluoride (NaF) varnish is preferred for patients with special needs or limited cooperation because it is quick and easy to apply, requires minimal cooperation, and uses a small amount of fluoride.
ā Fluoride varnish also reduces the risk of ingestion compared with tray-applied gels or foams.
ā Exam tip ā Special-needs patient with poor cooperation ā 5% NaF varnish.REFERENCE
American Dental Association. Fluoride Topical Guidelines. American Dental Association.Incorrect
ANSWER
5% Sodium Fluoride (NaF) varnishOTHER OPTIONS
ā 1.23% APF gel in trays ā Tray application requires adequate cooperation and control to minimize swallowing or ingestion, making it less suitable for patients with limited cooperation.
ā 0.05% NaF daily mouthrinse ā Requires the patient to reliably rinse and expectorate, which may be difficult for a patient with impaired cooperation or swallowing control.
ā Acidulated phosphate fluoride foam ā Although effective as a topical fluoride, foam applied in trays also requires sufficient patient cooperation and control.SYNOPSIS
ā 5% sodium fluoride (NaF) varnish is preferred for patients with special needs or limited cooperation because it is quick and easy to apply, requires minimal cooperation, and uses a small amount of fluoride.
ā Fluoride varnish also reduces the risk of ingestion compared with tray-applied gels or foams.
ā Exam tip ā Special-needs patient with poor cooperation ā 5% NaF varnish.REFERENCE
American Dental Association. Fluoride Topical Guidelines. American Dental Association. -
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
In a lower distal extension RPD replacing molars, with a mesial rest on the 1st premolar, which lever class is created?
Correct
ANSWER
Class I leverOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class II lever ā The resistance lies between the fulcrum and the effort. This is not the lever arrangement classically described for a distal-extension RPD with a mesial rest.
ā Class III lever ā The effort lies between the fulcrum and the resistance; this does not describe the distal-extension RPD arrangement.
ā Class IV lever ā There is no Class IV lever in the conventional three-class lever system used in RPD biomechanics.SYNOPSIS
ā In a distal-extension RPD with a mesial rest on the terminal abutment, the denture base tends to move toward the tissue under occlusal loading and the prosthesis rotates around the fulcrum line through the rests.
ā The fulcrum lies between the applied force and the resistance, producing a Class I lever relationship.
ā This lever relationship is important in understanding the rotational movement and biomechanical behavior of Kennedy Class I and Class II distal-extension RPDs.
ā Exam tip ā Distal-extension RPD + mesial rest – Class I lever.REFERENCE
Carr AB, Brown DT. McCrackenās Removable Partial Prosthodontics. 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Class I leverOTHER OPTIONS
ā Class II lever ā The resistance lies between the fulcrum and the effort. This is not the lever arrangement classically described for a distal-extension RPD with a mesial rest.
ā Class III lever ā The effort lies between the fulcrum and the resistance; this does not describe the distal-extension RPD arrangement.
ā Class IV lever ā There is no Class IV lever in the conventional three-class lever system used in RPD biomechanics.SYNOPSIS
ā In a distal-extension RPD with a mesial rest on the terminal abutment, the denture base tends to move toward the tissue under occlusal loading and the prosthesis rotates around the fulcrum line through the rests.
ā The fulcrum lies between the applied force and the resistance, producing a Class I lever relationship.
ā This lever relationship is important in understanding the rotational movement and biomechanical behavior of Kennedy Class I and Class II distal-extension RPDs.
ā Exam tip ā Distal-extension RPD + mesial rest – Class I lever.REFERENCE
Carr AB, Brown DT. McCrackenās Removable Partial Prosthodontics. 14th Edition -
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
A 9-year-old child presents with a history of trauma to the maxillary central incisor. Clinical and radiographic examination reveals that the tooth is non-vital with an incompletely formed root and a wide-open apical foramen. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
ApexificationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Standard RCT ā Conventional root canal treatment is challenging in an immature tooth with an open apex because there is no natural apical constriction to provide an effective stop for obturation.
ā Apexogenesis ā A vital pulp therapy procedure intended to preserve pulp vitality and allow continued physiological root development; it is not indicated when the pulp is non-vital.
ā Extraction ā Generally avoided when the immature permanent tooth is restorable and can be treated successfully with regenerative or endodontic procedures.SYNOPSIS
ā Apexification is a procedure used in a non-vital immature permanent tooth with an open apex to create an apical barrier that facilitates root canal obturation.
ā Historically, calcium hydroxide was used for apexification; MTA and other bioceramic materials are commonly used to create an artificial apical barrier.
ā Apexogenesis – vital pulp + immature tooth, whereas apexification – non-vital pulp + immature tooth + open apex.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
ApexificationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Standard RCT ā Conventional root canal treatment is challenging in an immature tooth with an open apex because there is no natural apical constriction to provide an effective stop for obturation.
ā Apexogenesis ā A vital pulp therapy procedure intended to preserve pulp vitality and allow continued physiological root development; it is not indicated when the pulp is non-vital.
ā Extraction ā Generally avoided when the immature permanent tooth is restorable and can be treated successfully with regenerative or endodontic procedures.SYNOPSIS
ā Apexification is a procedure used in a non-vital immature permanent tooth with an open apex to create an apical barrier that facilitates root canal obturation.
ā Historically, calcium hydroxide was used for apexification; MTA and other bioceramic materials are commonly used to create an artificial apical barrier.
ā Apexogenesis – vital pulp + immature tooth, whereas apexification – non-vital pulp + immature tooth + open apex.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th Edition -
Question 22 of 150
22. Question
What is the standard storage medium for a biopsy specimen?
Correct
ANSWER
10% Neutral Buffered FormalinOTHER OPTIONS
ā Normal saline ā May maintain tissue moisture temporarily but does not adequately fix the specimen and is therefore not the standard medium for routine histopathological biopsy specimens.
ā Distilled water ā Causes cellular changes and does not preserve tissue architecture appropriately for histopathological examination.
ā 70% Alcohol ā Can act as a fixative but is not the routine standard for preserving oral biopsy specimens for histopathology.SYNOPSIS
ā 10% neutral buffered formalin (NBF) is the standard fixative used for routine biopsy specimens submitted for histopathological examination.
ā It preserves cellular morphology and tissue architecture by preventing autolysis and decomposition.
ā The recommended volume of fixative is generally about 10 times the volume of the tissue specimen to ensure adequate fixation.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
10% Neutral Buffered FormalinOTHER OPTIONS
ā Normal saline ā May maintain tissue moisture temporarily but does not adequately fix the specimen and is therefore not the standard medium for routine histopathological biopsy specimens.
ā Distilled water ā Causes cellular changes and does not preserve tissue architecture appropriately for histopathological examination.
ā 70% Alcohol ā Can act as a fixative but is not the routine standard for preserving oral biopsy specimens for histopathology.SYNOPSIS
ā 10% neutral buffered formalin (NBF) is the standard fixative used for routine biopsy specimens submitted for histopathological examination.
ā It preserves cellular morphology and tissue architecture by preventing autolysis and decomposition.
ā The recommended volume of fixative is generally about 10 times the volume of the tissue specimen to ensure adequate fixation.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 23 of 150
23. Question
A 45-year-old patient undergoes extraction of a maxillary first molar, during which a small 2 mm oroantral communication is noted. The patient is asymptomatic, and there is no evidence of sinus infection. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Local hemostatic agentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Buccal advancement flap ā Generally indicated for larger oroantral communications or defects that are unlikely to close spontaneously; it is not routinely required for a small 2 mm communication.
ā Palatal pedicle flap ā A useful surgical option for larger or persistent oroantral defects, but unnecessary for a small communication that can heal spontaneously.
ā Referral to ENT ā Not routinely required for a small, uncomplicated communication without evidence of sinus involvement or infection.SYNOPSIS
ā Small oroantral communications, generally less than 2ā3 mm, may close spontaneously if the sinus is healthy and the blood clot is maintained.
ā Management includes preserving the socket blood clot, achieving good hemostasis, and providing sinus precautions such as avoiding nose blowing and sneezing with the mouth closed.
ā Larger communications or persistent defects may require surgical closure, such as a buccal advancement flap.
ā Exam tip ā Small OAC (<2ā3 mm) + healthy sinus ā allow spontaneous healing with clot stabilization/local hemostatic measures.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Local hemostatic agentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Buccal advancement flap ā Generally indicated for larger oroantral communications or defects that are unlikely to close spontaneously; it is not routinely required for a small 2 mm communication.
ā Palatal pedicle flap ā A useful surgical option for larger or persistent oroantral defects, but unnecessary for a small communication that can heal spontaneously.
ā Referral to ENT ā Not routinely required for a small, uncomplicated communication without evidence of sinus involvement or infection.SYNOPSIS
ā Small oroantral communications, generally less than 2ā3 mm, may close spontaneously if the sinus is healthy and the blood clot is maintained.
ā Management includes preserving the socket blood clot, achieving good hemostasis, and providing sinus precautions such as avoiding nose blowing and sneezing with the mouth closed.
ā Larger communications or persistent defects may require surgical closure, such as a buccal advancement flap.
ā Exam tip ā Small OAC (<2ā3 mm) + healthy sinus ā allow spontaneous healing with clot stabilization/local hemostatic measures.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th edition -
Question 24 of 150
24. Question
What is the recommended incisal reduction for porcelain veneers?
Correct
ANSWER
1.5 to 2.0 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For a porcelain veneer with incisal overlap, approximately 1.5ā2.0 mm of incisal reduction provides adequate space for ceramic material and esthetics.
ā Facial reduction is usually more conservative and varies according to the cervical, middle, and incisal thirds and the ceramic system used.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
1.5 to 2.0 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For a porcelain veneer with incisal overlap, approximately 1.5ā2.0 mm of incisal reduction provides adequate space for ceramic material and esthetics.
ā Facial reduction is usually more conservative and varies according to the cervical, middle, and incisal thirds and the ceramic system used.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th edition -
Question 25 of 150
25. Question

A patient presents with bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, and early pulp obliteration. Diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentinogenesis ImperfectaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Amelogenesis Imperfecta ā Primarily affects enamel, causing abnormal enamel thickness, color, hardness, or formation; the characteristic bulbous crowns and early pulp obliteration are not typical.
ā Dentin Dysplasia ā Type I is characterized by short or malformed roots and early pulp obliteration, while Type II may show thistle-tube pulp chambers and pulp stones. Bulbous crowns are not the classic feature.
ā Regional Odontodysplasia ā Usually affects teeth in a localized region and produces thin, poorly mineralized enamel and dentin with a characteristic āghost-likeā radiographic appearance.SYNOPSIS
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI) is a hereditary developmental defect of dentin characterized by bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, short roots, and early obliteration of the pulp chambers.
ā Clinically, teeth may have a blue-gray, amber, or opalescent appearance and are prone to rapid wear and fracture.
ā Radiographically, the teeth typically show bulbous crowns with cervical constriction, short roots, and narrowed or obliterated pulp chambers.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Dentinogenesis ImperfectaOTHER OPTIONS
ā Amelogenesis Imperfecta ā Primarily affects enamel, causing abnormal enamel thickness, color, hardness, or formation; the characteristic bulbous crowns and early pulp obliteration are not typical.
ā Dentin Dysplasia ā Type I is characterized by short or malformed roots and early pulp obliteration, while Type II may show thistle-tube pulp chambers and pulp stones. Bulbous crowns are not the classic feature.
ā Regional Odontodysplasia ā Usually affects teeth in a localized region and produces thin, poorly mineralized enamel and dentin with a characteristic āghost-likeā radiographic appearance.SYNOPSIS
ā Dentinogenesis imperfecta (DI) is a hereditary developmental defect of dentin characterized by bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, short roots, and early obliteration of the pulp chambers.
ā Clinically, teeth may have a blue-gray, amber, or opalescent appearance and are prone to rapid wear and fracture.
ā Radiographically, the teeth typically show bulbous crowns with cervical constriction, short roots, and narrowed or obliterated pulp chambers.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
During which developmental stage do ‘peg laterals’ occur?
Correct
ANSWER
Morphodifferentiation stageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Initiation ā Determines the beginning and location of tooth development; abnormalities may result in missing or supernumerary teeth.
ā Proliferation ā Involves multiplication of cells and formation of the tooth germ; disturbances can result in abnormalities such as tooth number or size.
ā Apposition ā Involves deposition of enamel and dentin matrices after the shape and form of the tooth have been established.SYNOPSIS
ā Peg-shaped lateral incisors are primarily a shape and size abnormality, associated with disturbance during the morphodifferentiation stage (bell stage) of tooth development.
ā During morphodifferentiation, the shape and form of the crown are determined without significant increase in cell number.
ā Disturbances at this stage can produce abnormalities in tooth shape, such as peg laterals.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Morphodifferentiation stageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Initiation ā Determines the beginning and location of tooth development; abnormalities may result in missing or supernumerary teeth.
ā Proliferation ā Involves multiplication of cells and formation of the tooth germ; disturbances can result in abnormalities such as tooth number or size.
ā Apposition ā Involves deposition of enamel and dentin matrices after the shape and form of the tooth have been established.SYNOPSIS
ā Peg-shaped lateral incisors are primarily a shape and size abnormality, associated with disturbance during the morphodifferentiation stage (bell stage) of tooth development.
ā During morphodifferentiation, the shape and form of the crown are determined without significant increase in cell number.
ā Disturbances at this stage can produce abnormalities in tooth shape, such as peg laterals.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 27 of 150
27. Question

Q27
Screwdriver-shaped incisors with notched incisal edges are associated with:
Correct
ANSWER
Congenital SyphilisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fluorosis ā Causes diffuse enamel opacities ranging from faint white streaks to brown discoloration and pitting, depending on severity.
ā Tetracycline staining ā Produces intrinsic yellow-gray to brown discoloration of teeth and does not characteristically cause screwdriver-shaped incisors with notched incisal edges.
ā Cleidocranial dysplasia ā Characteristically causes numerous unerupted and supernumerary teeth, delayed eruption, and abnormalities of the clavicles rather than Hutchinson incisors.SYNOPSIS
ā Congenital syphilis can cause characteristic Hutchinson incisors, which are permanent incisors that are screwdriver-shaped with a notched incisal edge.
ā Other dental manifestations include mulberry molars and enamel hypoplasia.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Congenital SyphilisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fluorosis ā Causes diffuse enamel opacities ranging from faint white streaks to brown discoloration and pitting, depending on severity.
ā Tetracycline staining ā Produces intrinsic yellow-gray to brown discoloration of teeth and does not characteristically cause screwdriver-shaped incisors with notched incisal edges.
ā Cleidocranial dysplasia ā Characteristically causes numerous unerupted and supernumerary teeth, delayed eruption, and abnormalities of the clavicles rather than Hutchinson incisors.SYNOPSIS
ā Congenital syphilis can cause characteristic Hutchinson incisors, which are permanent incisors that are screwdriver-shaped with a notched incisal edge.
ā Other dental manifestations include mulberry molars and enamel hypoplasia.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
What is the main goal of mechanical toothbrushing?
Correct
ANSWER
To disrupt oral biofilm and prevent calculus formationOTHER OPTIONS
ā To whiten teeth ā Toothbrushing may remove some extrinsic stains, but whitening is not the primary goal of mechanical toothbrushing.
ā To massage the gingiva ā Gingival stimulation may occur during brushing, but it is not the main purpose.
ā To deliver fluoride ā Fluoride delivery is an important benefit of fluoride toothpaste, but the primary purpose of mechanical brushing is physical removal and disruption of dental biofilm.SYNOPSIS
ā The main goal of mechanical toothbrushing is to disrupt and remove dental biofilm (plaque) from tooth surfaces and along the gingival margin.
ā Effective biofilm control helps prevent dental caries and gingival/periodontal inflammation.
ā Regular removal of plaque also reduces the accumulation and subsequent mineralization of plaque into calculus, although established calculus cannot be removed effectively by toothbrushing alone.REFERENCE
Wilkins EM. Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist. 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
To disrupt oral biofilm and prevent calculus formationOTHER OPTIONS
ā To whiten teeth ā Toothbrushing may remove some extrinsic stains, but whitening is not the primary goal of mechanical toothbrushing.
ā To massage the gingiva ā Gingival stimulation may occur during brushing, but it is not the main purpose.
ā To deliver fluoride ā Fluoride delivery is an important benefit of fluoride toothpaste, but the primary purpose of mechanical brushing is physical removal and disruption of dental biofilm.SYNOPSIS
ā The main goal of mechanical toothbrushing is to disrupt and remove dental biofilm (plaque) from tooth surfaces and along the gingival margin.
ā Effective biofilm control helps prevent dental caries and gingival/periodontal inflammation.
ā Regular removal of plaque also reduces the accumulation and subsequent mineralization of plaque into calculus, although established calculus cannot be removed effectively by toothbrushing alone.REFERENCE
Wilkins EM. Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist. 14th Edition -
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
A 28-year-old patient presents with a localized, fluctuant intraoral swelling associated with an odontogenic infection. The swelling is well localized and contains purulent material. When performing an intraoral incision and drainage, where should the incision be placed to facilitate drainage and minimize tissue trauma?
Correct
ANSWER
At the most dependent / fluctuant partOTHER OPTIONS
ā At the most superior point ā A superior incision may not provide adequate drainage because pus tends to collect dependently under gravity.
ā Directly over the root apex ā The incision should not be placed simply according to the root apex; the location should be based on the area of maximal fluctuation and safe access to the abscess.
ā At the mucogingival junction ā This is not routinely the preferred site unless the location of the abscess specifically dictates it.SYNOPSIS
ā For an accessible, localized intraoral abscess, the incision is generally placed at the most dependent point of the fluctuant swelling to facilitate drainage.
ā The incision should be made through healthy tissue when possible, while avoiding important anatomical structures.
ā Adequate drainage, elimination of the source of infection, and appropriate follow-up are essential components of treatment.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
At the most dependent / fluctuant partOTHER OPTIONS
ā At the most superior point ā A superior incision may not provide adequate drainage because pus tends to collect dependently under gravity.
ā Directly over the root apex ā The incision should not be placed simply according to the root apex; the location should be based on the area of maximal fluctuation and safe access to the abscess.
ā At the mucogingival junction ā This is not routinely the preferred site unless the location of the abscess specifically dictates it.SYNOPSIS
ā For an accessible, localized intraoral abscess, the incision is generally placed at the most dependent point of the fluctuant swelling to facilitate drainage.
ā The incision should be made through healthy tissue when possible, while avoiding important anatomical structures.
ā Adequate drainage, elimination of the source of infection, and appropriate follow-up are essential components of treatment.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th edition -
Question 30 of 150
30. Question
Which extraction forceps is indicated for a maxillary lateral incisor?
Correct
ANSWER
No. 150 (Universal Maxillary Forceps)OTHER OPTIONS
ā No. 151 ā Primarily a universal forceps commonly used for mandibular teeth, particularly mandibular anterior and premolar teeth.
ā Cowhorn forceps ā Designed primarily for mandibular molars with substantial furcation anatomy; the pointed beaks engage the furcation.
ā No. 23 ā Commonly known as the ācowhornā forceps and is primarily used for mandibular molars.SYNOPSIS
ā No. 150 forceps is the commonly used universal forceps for extraction of maxillary teeth, including maxillary incisors and premolars.
ā Its beaks are designed to adapt to the cervical region of the tooth and are suitable for the relatively accessible anatomy of maxillary anterior teeth.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
No. 150 (Universal Maxillary Forceps)OTHER OPTIONS
ā No. 151 ā Primarily a universal forceps commonly used for mandibular teeth, particularly mandibular anterior and premolar teeth.
ā Cowhorn forceps ā Designed primarily for mandibular molars with substantial furcation anatomy; the pointed beaks engage the furcation.
ā No. 23 ā Commonly known as the ācowhornā forceps and is primarily used for mandibular molars.SYNOPSIS
ā No. 150 forceps is the commonly used universal forceps for extraction of maxillary teeth, including maxillary incisors and premolars.
ā Its beaks are designed to adapt to the cervical region of the tooth and are suitable for the relatively accessible anatomy of maxillary anterior teeth.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th edition -
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
What causes wrinkles in a rubber dam between teeth?
Correct
ANSWER
Holes punched too far apartOTHER OPTIONS
ā Holes punched too close together ā Can cause the rubber dam material to bunch or tear between adjacent teeth, but does not typically produce the characteristic wrinkles from excessive spacing.
ā Using a heavy gauge dam ā A heavy gauge dam generally provides better retraction and adaptation around the teeth and is not the usual cause of wrinkles between teeth.
ā Using an inverted clamp ā Improper clamp placement can affect dam adaptation, but it is not the primary cause of wrinkles between adjacent teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Wrinkles or folds in the rubber dam between teeth commonly occur when the punched holes are too far apart, leaving excessive rubber dam material between the teeth.
ā Proper hole spacing should correspond closely to the interproximal distance between the teeth to allow the dam to pass smoothly through the contacts and adapt around the cervical areas.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Holes punched too far apartOTHER OPTIONS
ā Holes punched too close together ā Can cause the rubber dam material to bunch or tear between adjacent teeth, but does not typically produce the characteristic wrinkles from excessive spacing.
ā Using a heavy gauge dam ā A heavy gauge dam generally provides better retraction and adaptation around the teeth and is not the usual cause of wrinkles between teeth.
ā Using an inverted clamp ā Improper clamp placement can affect dam adaptation, but it is not the primary cause of wrinkles between adjacent teeth.SYNOPSIS
ā Wrinkles or folds in the rubber dam between teeth commonly occur when the punched holes are too far apart, leaving excessive rubber dam material between the teeth.
ā Proper hole spacing should correspond closely to the interproximal distance between the teeth to allow the dam to pass smoothly through the contacts and adapt around the cervical areas.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th Edition -
Question 32 of 150
32. Question
How many points of contact should a rubber dam clamp have on the tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
4 pointsOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 points ā Two-point contact does not provide adequate stability for a rubber dam clamp and may allow the clamp to rock or dislodge.
ā 3 points ā Three-point contact provides less stability than the ideal four-point contact.
ā Circumferential contact ā A clamp should engage the tooth securely at specific contact points rather than requiring continuous circumferential contact.SYNOPSIS
ā A rubber dam clamp should ideally contact the tooth at four points to provide maximum stability and retention.
ā The four contact points should be positioned so that the clamp is stable and does not rock or impinge excessively on the gingival tissues.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
4 pointsOTHER OPTIONS
ā 2 points ā Two-point contact does not provide adequate stability for a rubber dam clamp and may allow the clamp to rock or dislodge.
ā 3 points ā Three-point contact provides less stability than the ideal four-point contact.
ā Circumferential contact ā A clamp should engage the tooth securely at specific contact points rather than requiring continuous circumferential contact.SYNOPSIS
ā A rubber dam clamp should ideally contact the tooth at four points to provide maximum stability and retention.
ā The four contact points should be positioned so that the clamp is stable and does not rock or impinge excessively on the gingival tissues.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th Edition -
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
What is the best storage medium for an avulsed tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution (HBSS)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Milk ā A good readily available transport medium for an avulsed tooth because it helps maintain periodontal ligament cell viability, but it is not as effective as HBSS.
ā Saliva ā Better than dry storage but is less suitable because of its lower ability to maintain periodontal ligament cell viability and the risk of bacterial contamination.
ā Water ā The poorest choice because it is hypotonic and can cause rapid damage to periodontal ligament cells.SYNOPSIS
ā Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution (HBSS) is considered the best storage medium for an avulsed permanent tooth because it can maintain the viability of periodontal ligament cells for an extended period.
ā If HBSS is unavailable, cold milk is a practical and readily available alternative.
ā The avulsed tooth should ideally be replanted as soon as possible, because extraoral dry time is a major determinant of periodontal ligament cell survival.REFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM, Andersson L. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 5th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution (HBSS)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Milk ā A good readily available transport medium for an avulsed tooth because it helps maintain periodontal ligament cell viability, but it is not as effective as HBSS.
ā Saliva ā Better than dry storage but is less suitable because of its lower ability to maintain periodontal ligament cell viability and the risk of bacterial contamination.
ā Water ā The poorest choice because it is hypotonic and can cause rapid damage to periodontal ligament cells.SYNOPSIS
ā Hank’s Balanced Salt Solution (HBSS) is considered the best storage medium for an avulsed permanent tooth because it can maintain the viability of periodontal ligament cells for an extended period.
ā If HBSS is unavailable, cold milk is a practical and readily available alternative.
ā The avulsed tooth should ideally be replanted as soon as possible, because extraoral dry time is a major determinant of periodontal ligament cell survival.REFERENCE
Andreasen JO, Andreasen FM, Andersson L. Textbook and Color Atlas of Traumatic Injuries to the Teeth. 5th Edition -
Question 34 of 150
34. Question
A 35-year-old patient presents for evaluation of a previously treated maxillary tooth. Radiographic examination reveals a separated endodontic instrument in the apical third with a persistent periapical lesion. Attempts to retrieve the fragment through the root canal have been unsuccessful. The tooth is restorable and the patient wishes to retain it. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct
ANSWER
Apicoectomy with retrograde fillingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extract the tooth ā Extraction is generally considered when the tooth is non-restorable or when nonsurgical and surgical endodontic treatment cannot predictably resolve the infection.
ā Leave it and do nothing ā An instrument fragment may sometimes be left in place if the tooth is asymptomatic and adequately disinfected, but a persistent periapical lesion indicates that further treatment is required.
ā Prescribe antibiotics ā Antibiotics do not eliminate the source of a persistent endodontic infection and are not a definitive treatment for a localized periapical lesion.SYNOPSIS
ā When a separated instrument is located in the apical third and cannot be retrieved, attempting further retrieval may risk unnecessary removal of root structure or perforation.
ā In the presence of a persistent periapical lesion, periapical surgery (apicoectomy) with retrograde/root-end filling can provide direct access to the apical area and allow removal of the infected apical portion.
ā The treatment decision depends on factors such as the location of the fragment, canal disinfection, periapical status, tooth restorability, and accessibility for surgery.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Apicoectomy with retrograde fillingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extract the tooth ā Extraction is generally considered when the tooth is non-restorable or when nonsurgical and surgical endodontic treatment cannot predictably resolve the infection.
ā Leave it and do nothing ā An instrument fragment may sometimes be left in place if the tooth is asymptomatic and adequately disinfected, but a persistent periapical lesion indicates that further treatment is required.
ā Prescribe antibiotics ā Antibiotics do not eliminate the source of a persistent endodontic infection and are not a definitive treatment for a localized periapical lesion.SYNOPSIS
ā When a separated instrument is located in the apical third and cannot be retrieved, attempting further retrieval may risk unnecessary removal of root structure or perforation.
ā In the presence of a persistent periapical lesion, periapical surgery (apicoectomy) with retrograde/root-end filling can provide direct access to the apical area and allow removal of the infected apical portion.
ā The treatment decision depends on factors such as the location of the fragment, canal disinfection, periapical status, tooth restorability, and accessibility for surgery.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th edition -
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
A dentist makes a treatment decision on behalf of a patient without obtaining proper informed consent. This is an example of:
Correct
ANSWER
PaternalismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Autonomy ā Respecting the patientās right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare after receiving appropriate information.
ā Beneficence ā Acting in the patientās best interests and promoting their well-being.
ā Justice ā Providing fair and equitable treatment and distribution of healthcare resources.SYNOPSIS
ā Paternalism occurs when a healthcare professional makes a decision on behalf of the patient without adequately respecting the patientās right to choose, often with the intention of benefiting the patient.
ā Failing to obtain proper informed consent violates the ethical principle of patient autonomy and represents paternalistic decision-making.REFERENCE
Beauchamp TL, Childress JF. Principles of Biomedical Ethics. 8th ed. Oxford University Press.Incorrect
ANSWER
PaternalismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Autonomy ā Respecting the patientās right to make informed decisions about their own healthcare after receiving appropriate information.
ā Beneficence ā Acting in the patientās best interests and promoting their well-being.
ā Justice ā Providing fair and equitable treatment and distribution of healthcare resources.SYNOPSIS
ā Paternalism occurs when a healthcare professional makes a decision on behalf of the patient without adequately respecting the patientās right to choose, often with the intention of benefiting the patient.
ā Failing to obtain proper informed consent violates the ethical principle of patient autonomy and represents paternalistic decision-making.REFERENCE
Beauchamp TL, Childress JF. Principles of Biomedical Ethics. 8th ed. Oxford University Press. -
Question 36 of 150
36. Question
What is the main advantage of a Type B Autoclave?
Correct
ANSWER
It uses a pre-vacuum phase to remove air effectively for porous and hollow instrumentsOTHER OPTIONS
ā It is faster than Type N ā Speed is not the main advantage of a Type B autoclave; its key advantage is effective air removal and steam penetration.
ā It uses dry heat ā Type B autoclaves use saturated steam under pressure, not dry heat.
ā It operates at a lower temperature ā Type B autoclaves generally operate at standard steam sterilization temperatures such as 121°C or 134°C; the key difference is the air-removal system.SYNOPSIS
ā Type B autoclaves use a fractionated pre-vacuum cycle to remove air from the chamber and from the loads before steam is introduced.
ā This allows effective sterilization of solid, porous, wrapped, and hollow instruments, including dental handpieces and other complex loads.REFERENCE
European Committee for Standardization. EN 13060: Small Steam Sterilizers. Brussels: CENIncorrect
ANSWER
It uses a pre-vacuum phase to remove air effectively for porous and hollow instrumentsOTHER OPTIONS
ā It is faster than Type N ā Speed is not the main advantage of a Type B autoclave; its key advantage is effective air removal and steam penetration.
ā It uses dry heat ā Type B autoclaves use saturated steam under pressure, not dry heat.
ā It operates at a lower temperature ā Type B autoclaves generally operate at standard steam sterilization temperatures such as 121°C or 134°C; the key difference is the air-removal system.SYNOPSIS
ā Type B autoclaves use a fractionated pre-vacuum cycle to remove air from the chamber and from the loads before steam is introduced.
ā This allows effective sterilization of solid, porous, wrapped, and hollow instruments, including dental handpieces and other complex loads.REFERENCE
European Committee for Standardization. EN 13060: Small Steam Sterilizers. Brussels: CEN -
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
A partially edentulous arch has a unilateral edentulous area posterior to the remaining teeth, and one additional edentulous space anteriorly.Which is the Kennedy Classification?
Correct
ANSWER
Class II Modification 1OTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I Modification 1 ā Class I involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
ā Class III Modification 1 ā Class III involves a unilateral edentulous space with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it; it is not a distal-extension situation.
ā Class IV Modification 1 ā Class IV consists of a single edentulous area anterior to the remaining teeth and crossing the midline; Class IV does not have modification spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class II is characterized by a unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth, creating a distal-extension base on one side.
ā When there is one additional edentulous space elsewhere in the arch, it is classified as Class II Modification 1.REFERENCE
Carr AB, Brown DT. McCrackenās Removable Partial Prosthodontics. 14th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Class II Modification 1OTHER OPTIONS
ā Class I Modification 1 ā Class I involves bilateral edentulous areas posterior to the remaining natural teeth.
ā Class III Modification 1 ā Class III involves a unilateral edentulous space with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it; it is not a distal-extension situation.
ā Class IV Modification 1 ā Class IV consists of a single edentulous area anterior to the remaining teeth and crossing the midline; Class IV does not have modification spaces.SYNOPSIS
ā Kennedy Class II is characterized by a unilateral edentulous area located posterior to the remaining natural teeth, creating a distal-extension base on one side.
ā When there is one additional edentulous space elsewhere in the arch, it is classified as Class II Modification 1.REFERENCE
Carr AB, Brown DT. McCrackenās Removable Partial Prosthodontics. 14th Edition -
Question 38 of 150
38. Question

A patient reports severe pain 3-4 days post-extraction, with exposed bone and a foul odor. What is your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Alveolar Osteitis (Dry Socket)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Post-operative infection ā Usually presents with increasing swelling, fever, purulent discharge, and other signs of infection rather than the characteristic exposed socket with severe pain and foul odor.
ā Osteomyelitis ā Involves infection and inflammation of bone and is generally associated with more persistent infection, swelling, systemic symptoms, or radiographic changes.
ā Normal healing ā Normal extraction healing should not produce severe pain with exposed bone and a foul odor several days after extraction.SYNOPSIS
ā Alveolar osteitis (dry socket) typically develops 2ā5 days after extraction due to premature breakdown or loss of the blood clot.
ā It presents with severe, throbbing pain, an empty socket with exposed bone, and a foul odor or taste.
ā Treatment is primarily symptomatic, including gentle irrigation and placement of an appropriate medicated dressing; antibiotics are not routinely indicated unless there is evidence of spreading infection or systemic involvement.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Alveolar Osteitis (Dry Socket)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Post-operative infection ā Usually presents with increasing swelling, fever, purulent discharge, and other signs of infection rather than the characteristic exposed socket with severe pain and foul odor.
ā Osteomyelitis ā Involves infection and inflammation of bone and is generally associated with more persistent infection, swelling, systemic symptoms, or radiographic changes.
ā Normal healing ā Normal extraction healing should not produce severe pain with exposed bone and a foul odor several days after extraction.SYNOPSIS
ā Alveolar osteitis (dry socket) typically develops 2ā5 days after extraction due to premature breakdown or loss of the blood clot.
ā It presents with severe, throbbing pain, an empty socket with exposed bone, and a foul odor or taste.
ā Treatment is primarily symptomatic, including gentle irrigation and placement of an appropriate medicated dressing; antibiotics are not routinely indicated unless there is evidence of spreading infection or systemic involvement.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th Edition -
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
What is the appropriate management for Alveolar Osteitis (Dry Socket)?
Correct
ANSWER
Irrigation with warm saline and placement of AlvogylOTHER OPTIONS
ā Curettage to induce bleeding ā Routine curettage is not recommended because it may expose additional bone and increase tissue trauma.
ā Prescribe systemic antibiotics ā Antibiotics are not routinely indicated for uncomplicated alveolar osteitis because it is primarily a localized healing complication rather than an active bacterial infection.
ā Surgical closure ā Surgical closure is not routinely required and is unnecessary for uncomplicated dry socket.SYNOPSIS
ā Alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is managed primarily with pain control and local treatment.
ā The socket may be gently irrigated with warm saline to remove debris, followed by placement of a soothing or medicated dressing like Alvogyl or ZOE paste when indicated.
ā Analgesics are also prescribed according to the patient’s needs.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Irrigation with warm saline and placement of AlvogylOTHER OPTIONS
ā Curettage to induce bleeding ā Routine curettage is not recommended because it may expose additional bone and increase tissue trauma.
ā Prescribe systemic antibiotics ā Antibiotics are not routinely indicated for uncomplicated alveolar osteitis because it is primarily a localized healing complication rather than an active bacterial infection.
ā Surgical closure ā Surgical closure is not routinely required and is unnecessary for uncomplicated dry socket.SYNOPSIS
ā Alveolar osteitis (dry socket) is managed primarily with pain control and local treatment.
ā The socket may be gently irrigated with warm saline to remove debris, followed by placement of a soothing or medicated dressing like Alvogyl or ZOE paste when indicated.
ā Analgesics are also prescribed according to the patient’s needs.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 7th ed. -
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
A 28-year-old patient presents with a well-defined radiolucent lesion in the posterior mandible associated with an unerupted third molar. The lesion has extended along the medullary cavity with relatively little expansion. Histopathological examination confirms an odontogenic cyst known for its relatively high recurrence rate. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Radicular cyst ā The most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst, usually associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth, but it does not have the characteristically high recurrence rate of OKC.
ā Dentigerous cyst ā Develops around the crown of an unerupted tooth and is generally less prone to recurrence than OKC.
ā Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst ā A relatively uncommon odontogenic cyst that may contain calcifications and ghost cells; recurrence is generally lower than that of OKCSYNOPSIS
ā Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) is notable for its relatively high recurrence potential, partly related to its thin, friable epithelial lining and the presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts.
ā It commonly occurs in the posterior mandible and ramus and may grow extensively in the anteroposterior direction with relatively limited expansion.
ā Careful long-term follow-up is important because recurrence can occur after treatment.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Radicular cyst ā The most common inflammatory odontogenic cyst, usually associated with the apex of a non-vital tooth, but it does not have the characteristically high recurrence rate of OKC.
ā Dentigerous cyst ā Develops around the crown of an unerupted tooth and is generally less prone to recurrence than OKC.
ā Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst ā A relatively uncommon odontogenic cyst that may contain calcifications and ghost cells; recurrence is generally lower than that of OKCSYNOPSIS
ā Odontogenic keratocyst (OKC) is notable for its relatively high recurrence potential, partly related to its thin, friable epithelial lining and the presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts.
ā It commonly occurs in the posterior mandible and ramus and may grow extensively in the anteroposterior direction with relatively limited expansion.
ā Careful long-term follow-up is important because recurrence can occur after treatment.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by bilateral painless expansion of the jaws and multilocular radiolucencies in a child is:
Correct
ANSWER
CherubismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fibrous Dysplasia ā Usually presents as a unilateral or localized bony expansion with a characteristic āground-glassā radiographic appearance; it is generally not an autosomal dominant bilateral jaw disorder in children.
ā Pagetās Disease ā Typically affects older adults and may cause diffuse enlargement of the jaws with a ācotton-woolā radiographic appearance.
ā Osteopetrosis ā A hereditary disorder characterized by increased bone density due to defective bone resorption, rather than the characteristic multilocular radiolucent jaw lesions of cherubism.SYNOPSIS
ā Cherubism is a rare autosomal dominant fibro-osseous disorder that usually becomes apparent in early childhood.
ā It causes bilateral, painless expansion of the mandible and/or maxilla, producing a characteristic ācherubicā facial appearance.
ā Radiographically, it typically presents as bilateral, multilocular radiolucencies, often involving the posterior mandible and associated with developing teeth.
ā The lesions often stabilize or regress after puberty.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
CherubismOTHER OPTIONS
ā Fibrous Dysplasia ā Usually presents as a unilateral or localized bony expansion with a characteristic āground-glassā radiographic appearance; it is generally not an autosomal dominant bilateral jaw disorder in children.
ā Pagetās Disease ā Typically affects older adults and may cause diffuse enlargement of the jaws with a ācotton-woolā radiographic appearance.
ā Osteopetrosis ā A hereditary disorder characterized by increased bone density due to defective bone resorption, rather than the characteristic multilocular radiolucent jaw lesions of cherubism.SYNOPSIS
ā Cherubism is a rare autosomal dominant fibro-osseous disorder that usually becomes apparent in early childhood.
ā It causes bilateral, painless expansion of the mandible and/or maxilla, producing a characteristic ācherubicā facial appearance.
ā Radiographically, it typically presents as bilateral, multilocular radiolucencies, often involving the posterior mandible and associated with developing teeth.
ā The lesions often stabilize or regress after puberty.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 5th edition -
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
A patient on IV Zolendronate requires an extraction. What is the main risk and management?
Correct
ANSWER
Risk of MRONJ; use conservative surgical protocols and antibiotic coverageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Bleeding; use local hemostatics ā Bleeding is not the primary concern associated with IV zoledronate therapy. The major concern is medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ).
ā Infection; extract normally ā Extraction without appropriate risk assessment and precautions may increase the risk of developing MRONJ in patients receiving potent IV bisphosphonates.
ā Nerve damage; refer to OMFS ā Nerve injury is not the characteristic complication associated with zoledronate therapy.SYNOPSIS
ā Intravenous zoledronate (zoledronic acid) is a potent antiresorptive medication associated with an increased risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ), particularly in patients receiving higher doses for cancer-related conditions.
ā When extraction is unavoidable, management should involve careful risk assessment, conservative surgical technique, primary closure when feasible, and close postoperative follow-up. Antibiotics may be used according to the clinical situation and specialist protocol.
ā When possible, alternatives to extraction and coordination with the patient’s physician/oncologist or an oral and maxillofacial surgeon should be considered.REFERENCE
Ruggiero SL, Dodson TB, Aghaloo T, et al. Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jawā2022 Update. Journal of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery.Incorrect
ANSWER
Risk of MRONJ; use conservative surgical protocols and antibiotic coverageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Bleeding; use local hemostatics ā Bleeding is not the primary concern associated with IV zoledronate therapy. The major concern is medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ).
ā Infection; extract normally ā Extraction without appropriate risk assessment and precautions may increase the risk of developing MRONJ in patients receiving potent IV bisphosphonates.
ā Nerve damage; refer to OMFS ā Nerve injury is not the characteristic complication associated with zoledronate therapy.SYNOPSIS
ā Intravenous zoledronate (zoledronic acid) is a potent antiresorptive medication associated with an increased risk of medication-related osteonecrosis of the jaw (MRONJ), particularly in patients receiving higher doses for cancer-related conditions.
ā When extraction is unavoidable, management should involve careful risk assessment, conservative surgical technique, primary closure when feasible, and close postoperative follow-up. Antibiotics may be used according to the clinical situation and specialist protocol.
ā When possible, alternatives to extraction and coordination with the patient’s physician/oncologist or an oral and maxillofacial surgeon should be considered.REFERENCE
Ruggiero SL, Dodson TB, Aghaloo T, et al. Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jawā2022 Update. Journal of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. -
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
What is the purpose of a pre-procedural Chlorhexidine (CHX) mouthrinse?
Correct
ANSWER
To reduce bacterial load in aerosols and limit contaminationOTHER OPTIONS
ā To prevent caries ā Chlorhexidine is an antimicrobial agent, but a pre-procedural CHX rinse is not primarily intended for caries prevention.
ā To anesthetize the mucosa ā Chlorhexidine has no local anesthetic effect.
ā To whiten teeth ā Chlorhexidine is not a whitening agent and prolonged use may actually cause extrinsic tooth staining.SYNOPSIS
ā A pre-procedural chlorhexidine (CHX) mouthrinse is used to reduce the oral microbial load before dental procedures.
ā This can help reduce the number of microorganisms present in aerosols and splatter generated during procedures.
ā It is an adjunct to standard infection-control measures and does not eliminate contamination or replace appropriate PPE and high-volume evacuation.REFERENCE
Harrel SK, Molinari J. Aerosols and splatter in dentistry: a brief review of the literature and infection control implications. Journal of the American Dental Association.Incorrect
ANSWER
To reduce bacterial load in aerosols and limit contaminationOTHER OPTIONS
ā To prevent caries ā Chlorhexidine is an antimicrobial agent, but a pre-procedural CHX rinse is not primarily intended for caries prevention.
ā To anesthetize the mucosa ā Chlorhexidine has no local anesthetic effect.
ā To whiten teeth ā Chlorhexidine is not a whitening agent and prolonged use may actually cause extrinsic tooth staining.SYNOPSIS
ā A pre-procedural chlorhexidine (CHX) mouthrinse is used to reduce the oral microbial load before dental procedures.
ā This can help reduce the number of microorganisms present in aerosols and splatter generated during procedures.
ā It is an adjunct to standard infection-control measures and does not eliminate contamination or replace appropriate PPE and high-volume evacuation.REFERENCE
Harrel SK, Molinari J. Aerosols and splatter in dentistry: a brief review of the literature and infection control implications. Journal of the American Dental Association. -
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
A 45-year-old patient requires a single-unit crown restoration on tooth #30. To minimize clinical chair time and capture the master impression, counter-impression, and interocclusal bite registration simultaneously in a single step, which specialized impression tray should be used?
Correct
ANSWER
Triple tray (Dual-arch tray)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Standard rigid metal stock tray ā Used for conventional impression techniques but does not simultaneously record the prepared tooth, opposing arch, and interocclusal relationship in a single impression.
ā Custom acrylic resin tray ā Provides a customized fit and uniform impression material thickness but generally requires separate procedures for the opposing arch and bite registration.
ā Sectional perforated plastic tray ā May be used for localized impression procedures but does not provide the simultaneous triple recording achieved with a dual-arch tray.SYNOPSIS
ā A triple tray (dual-arch tray) allows simultaneous recording of the prepared tooth/master impression, opposing dentition (counter-impression), and interocclusal bite relationship.
ā It is particularly useful for single-unit posterior crowns when adequate posterior occlusion and stable contacts are present.
ā The technique can reduce clinical chair time because the working impression, opposing arch, and bite registration are captured in one procedure.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Triple tray (Dual-arch tray)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Standard rigid metal stock tray ā Used for conventional impression techniques but does not simultaneously record the prepared tooth, opposing arch, and interocclusal relationship in a single impression.
ā Custom acrylic resin tray ā Provides a customized fit and uniform impression material thickness but generally requires separate procedures for the opposing arch and bite registration.
ā Sectional perforated plastic tray ā May be used for localized impression procedures but does not provide the simultaneous triple recording achieved with a dual-arch tray.SYNOPSIS
ā A triple tray (dual-arch tray) allows simultaneous recording of the prepared tooth/master impression, opposing dentition (counter-impression), and interocclusal bite relationship.
ā It is particularly useful for single-unit posterior crowns when adequate posterior occlusion and stable contacts are present.
ā The technique can reduce clinical chair time because the working impression, opposing arch, and bite registration are captured in one procedure.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th ed. -
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
During a routine periodontal examination of a 50-year-old patient with heavy bruxism, the clinician suspects Trauma From Occlusion (TFO). Which of the following clinical signs is considered the primary, pathognomonic, and definitive sign of TFO?
Correct
ANSWER
Pathologic tooth mobilityOTHER OPTIONS
ā Gingival recession ā May occur due to several local or traumatic factors but is not a definitive or pathognomonic sign of Trauma From Occlusion (TFO).
ā Bleeding on probing ā Primarily indicates gingival inflammation and is not a specific sign of TFO.
ā Pulp necrosis ā May result from severe dental trauma or other pulpal insults but is not a primary or definitive clinical sign of TFO.SYNOPSIS
ā Pathologic tooth mobility is considered the primary clinical sign associated with Trauma From Occlusion (TFO).
ā TFO results from excessive occlusal forces that exceed the adaptive capacity of the periodontal tissues, producing changes in the periodontal ligament and supporting bone.
ā Other findings may include fremitus, widened periodontal ligament space, tooth migration, and radiographic changes, but these are not individually pathognomonic.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Pathologic tooth mobilityOTHER OPTIONS
ā Gingival recession ā May occur due to several local or traumatic factors but is not a definitive or pathognomonic sign of Trauma From Occlusion (TFO).
ā Bleeding on probing ā Primarily indicates gingival inflammation and is not a specific sign of TFO.
ā Pulp necrosis ā May result from severe dental trauma or other pulpal insults but is not a primary or definitive clinical sign of TFO.SYNOPSIS
ā Pathologic tooth mobility is considered the primary clinical sign associated with Trauma From Occlusion (TFO).
ā TFO results from excessive occlusal forces that exceed the adaptive capacity of the periodontal tissues, producing changes in the periodontal ligament and supporting bone.
ā Other findings may include fremitus, widened periodontal ligament space, tooth migration, and radiographic changes, but these are not individually pathognomonic.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed. -
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
When setting up an infection control protocol for immersion disinfection of impression trays and dental instruments in liquid chemical disinfectants, what is the minimum recommended container depth/size required?
Correct
ANSWER
4 inchesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For immersion disinfection, the container should be sufficiently deep to allow the impression tray or dental instruments to be completely submerged in the disinfectant solution.
ā In dental infection-control teaching materials, a minimum depth of approximately 4 inches is commonly recommended for an immersion container.
ā The container should also have a secure lid and should be large enough to accommodate the items without overcrowding.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
4 inchesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For immersion disinfection, the container should be sufficiently deep to allow the impression tray or dental instruments to be completely submerged in the disinfectant solution.
ā In dental infection-control teaching materials, a minimum depth of approximately 4 inches is commonly recommended for an immersion container.
ā The container should also have a secure lid and should be large enough to accommodate the items without overcrowding.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th ed. -
Question 47 of 150
47. Question

An intraoral periapical radiograph appears light and faint (underexposed) with a distinct geometric grid/herringbone pattern visible across the image. What technical error caused this ‘tyre track’ appearance?
Correct
ANSWER
Reversed film placementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Double exposure of the film ā Produces a darker or superimposed image rather than the characteristic herringbone or ātyre trackā pattern.
ā Inadequate fixing time in processing ā May result in a milky or cloudy appearance, but does not produce the characteristic herringbone pattern.
ā Excessive vertical angulation of the PID ā Causes dimensional distortion such as foreshortening or elongation, not a tyre-track pattern.SYNOPSIS
ā The ātyre trackā or herringbone pattern is produced when intraoral film is placed backward, with the lead-foil backing facing the X-ray tube.
ā The X-ray beam passes through the film from the wrong direction and interacts with the embossed pattern of the lead foil, producing a light/faint image with a distinctive herringbone or tyre-track appearance.
ā This error is also called reversed film placement or backward film placement.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Reversed film placementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Double exposure of the film ā Produces a darker or superimposed image rather than the characteristic herringbone or ātyre trackā pattern.
ā Inadequate fixing time in processing ā May result in a milky or cloudy appearance, but does not produce the characteristic herringbone pattern.
ā Excessive vertical angulation of the PID ā Causes dimensional distortion such as foreshortening or elongation, not a tyre-track pattern.SYNOPSIS
ā The ātyre trackā or herringbone pattern is produced when intraoral film is placed backward, with the lead-foil backing facing the X-ray tube.
ā The X-ray beam passes through the film from the wrong direction and interacts with the embossed pattern of the lead foil, producing a light/faint image with a distinctive herringbone or tyre-track appearance.
ā This error is also called reversed film placement or backward film placement.REFERENCE
Bird DL, Robinson DS. Modern Dental Assisting. 13th ed. -
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
Which component of the dental X-ray tubehead is specifically designed to restrict the size and shape of the primary X-ray beam to reduce patient radiation dose?
Correct
ANSWER
Lead collimatorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aluminum filter ā Removes low-energy, long-wavelength X-rays from the beam by filtration, thereby reducing unnecessary patient radiation exposure, but it does not primarily determine the beamās size and shape.
ā Molybdenum focusing cup ā Surrounds the tungsten filament and directs electrons toward the focal spot on the target; it does not restrict the X-ray beam.
ā Tungsten target ā Converts the kinetic energy of electrons into X-rays within the anode; it is not responsible for limiting beam size or shape.SYNOPSIS
ā The lead collimator is designed to restrict the size and shape of the primary X-ray beam, limiting the area of tissue exposed to radiation.
ā Filtration and collimation are both important radiation-protection measures, but they perform different functions.REFERENCE
White SC, Pharoah MJ. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation. 8th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Lead collimatorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Aluminum filter ā Removes low-energy, long-wavelength X-rays from the beam by filtration, thereby reducing unnecessary patient radiation exposure, but it does not primarily determine the beamās size and shape.
ā Molybdenum focusing cup ā Surrounds the tungsten filament and directs electrons toward the focal spot on the target; it does not restrict the X-ray beam.
ā Tungsten target ā Converts the kinetic energy of electrons into X-rays within the anode; it is not responsible for limiting beam size or shape.SYNOPSIS
ā The lead collimator is designed to restrict the size and shape of the primary X-ray beam, limiting the area of tissue exposed to radiation.
ā Filtration and collimation are both important radiation-protection measures, but they perform different functions.REFERENCE
White SC, Pharoah MJ. Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation. 8th ed -
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
A patient returns 3 days after the placement of a Class II MOD resin composite restoration on tooth #14, complaining of sharp sensitivity to cold fluids and discomfort upon biting pressure. Radiographs show no recurrent caries or periapical changes. What is the most likely cause?
Correct
ANSWER
Open dentinal tubules / MicroleakageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Incomplete removal of caries ā May cause postoperative pulpal irritation, but the absence of recurrent caries or periapical changes and the prominent sharp cold sensitivity make this less likely.
ā Hyperocclusion (high interocclusal contact) ā Typically causes pain or discomfort on biting and percussion, but it does not primarily explain sharp sensitivity to cold fluids.
ā Recurrent caries ā Cannot reasonably develop within only 3 days after placement of a new restoration and would not account for the immediate postoperative sensitivity.SYNOPSIS
ā Sharp sensitivity to cold after a composite restoration is commonly associated with open dentinal tubules and microleakage at the tooth-restoration interface.
ā Polymerization shrinkage of resin composite can create stresses at the bonded interface, potentially resulting in marginal gaps and fluid movement within dentinal tubules.
ā The hydrodynamic movement of fluid within exposed dentinal tubules stimulates pulpal nerve fibers and produces sharp, short-lasting sensitivity to cold.
ā Pain on biting may also occur transiently, but when cold sensitivity is the prominent feature, open dentinal tubules/microleakage is the best answer.REFERENCE
Summitt JB, Robbins JW, Hilton TJ, Schwartz RS. Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary Approach. 4th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Open dentinal tubules / MicroleakageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Incomplete removal of caries ā May cause postoperative pulpal irritation, but the absence of recurrent caries or periapical changes and the prominent sharp cold sensitivity make this less likely.
ā Hyperocclusion (high interocclusal contact) ā Typically causes pain or discomfort on biting and percussion, but it does not primarily explain sharp sensitivity to cold fluids.
ā Recurrent caries ā Cannot reasonably develop within only 3 days after placement of a new restoration and would not account for the immediate postoperative sensitivity.SYNOPSIS
ā Sharp sensitivity to cold after a composite restoration is commonly associated with open dentinal tubules and microleakage at the tooth-restoration interface.
ā Polymerization shrinkage of resin composite can create stresses at the bonded interface, potentially resulting in marginal gaps and fluid movement within dentinal tubules.
ā The hydrodynamic movement of fluid within exposed dentinal tubules stimulates pulpal nerve fibers and produces sharp, short-lasting sensitivity to cold.
ā Pain on biting may also occur transiently, but when cold sensitivity is the prominent feature, open dentinal tubules/microleakage is the best answer.REFERENCE
Summitt JB, Robbins JW, Hilton TJ, Schwartz RS. Fundamentals of Operative Dentistry: A Contemporary Approach. 4th ed. -
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
A 32-year-old patient presents with severe throbbing pain in the lower left quadrant. The patient reports that sipping ice water temporarily relieves the pain, whereas warmth triggers intense, lingering throbbing. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Symptomatic irreversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Reversible pulpitis ā Usually causes a sharp, brief pain to cold or sweet stimuli that subsides quickly after removal of the stimulus; spontaneous or lingering pain is not typical.
ā Acute apical periodontitis ā Primarily presents with pain on biting or percussion due to inflammation of the periodontal ligament rather than severe lingering thermal pain.
ā Normal pulp ā May respond to cold with a brief, mild sensation, but it does not produce spontaneous, severe, or lingering pain.SYNOPSIS
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is characterized by spontaneous, severe, lingering thermal pain, particularly in response to heat.
ā In some cases, cold temporarily relieves the pain by reducing pulpal pressure and altering the vascular response within the inflamed pulp.
ā The combination of severe spontaneous throbbing pain + heat aggravation + temporary relief with cold is highly suggestive of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Symptomatic irreversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Reversible pulpitis ā Usually causes a sharp, brief pain to cold or sweet stimuli that subsides quickly after removal of the stimulus; spontaneous or lingering pain is not typical.
ā Acute apical periodontitis ā Primarily presents with pain on biting or percussion due to inflammation of the periodontal ligament rather than severe lingering thermal pain.
ā Normal pulp ā May respond to cold with a brief, mild sensation, but it does not produce spontaneous, severe, or lingering pain.SYNOPSIS
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis is characterized by spontaneous, severe, lingering thermal pain, particularly in response to heat.
ā In some cases, cold temporarily relieves the pain by reducing pulpal pressure and altering the vascular response within the inflamed pulp.
ā The combination of severe spontaneous throbbing pain + heat aggravation + temporary relief with cold is highly suggestive of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th ed -
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
A 48-year-old patient presents with localized gingival swelling, redness, and pain adjacent to the buccal surface of tooth #14. Radiograph reveals lateral periodontal bone loss. Electric pulp testing confirms that the tooth is endodontically vital. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral periodontal abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical abscess ā Usually originates from pulpal infection and is associated with a non-vital tooth; the lesion is typically centered around the root apex.
ā Radicular cyst ā An inflammatory odontogenic cyst associated with a non-vital tooth and usually located at the root apex.
ā Internal root resorption ā Produces a characteristic enlargement of the root canal space and does not typically present as a localized periodontal swelling with lateral bone loss.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral periodontal abscess is a localized purulent infection arising from the periodontal tissues, typically presenting with localized gingival swelling, redness, pain, and lateral periodontal bone loss.
ā The tooth generally remains vital, which helps distinguish it from a periapical abscess of pulpal origin.
ā The combination of lateral swelling + lateral bone loss + vital pulp – lateral periodontal abscess.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Lateral periodontal abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical abscess ā Usually originates from pulpal infection and is associated with a non-vital tooth; the lesion is typically centered around the root apex.
ā Radicular cyst ā An inflammatory odontogenic cyst associated with a non-vital tooth and usually located at the root apex.
ā Internal root resorption ā Produces a characteristic enlargement of the root canal space and does not typically present as a localized periodontal swelling with lateral bone loss.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral periodontal abscess is a localized purulent infection arising from the periodontal tissues, typically presenting with localized gingival swelling, redness, pain, and lateral periodontal bone loss.
ā The tooth generally remains vital, which helps distinguish it from a periapical abscess of pulpal origin.
ā The combination of lateral swelling + lateral bone loss + vital pulp – lateral periodontal abscess.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed -
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
Which of the following percussion test results would most definitively support a clinical diagnosis of a lateral periodontal abscess over an acute periapical abscess?
Correct
ANSWER
Severe pain upon lateral (horizontal) percussionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sharp pain upon vertical percussion only ā More suggestive of inflammation involving the apical periodontal tissues, as seen in acute apical periodontitis/abscess.
ā High-pitched, metallic sound upon vertical percussion ā More commonly associated with ankylosis rather than a periodontal abscess.
ā Complete absence of pain upon both lateral and vertical percussion ā Does not support an acute periodontal abscess because acute inflammation generally produces tenderness.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral periodontal abscess is localized within the periodontal tissues along the lateral aspect of the root, so lateral/horizontal percussion may reproduce the patient’s discomfort more prominently.
ā An acute periapical abscess primarily involves the tissues around the root apex and is more characteristically associated with vertical percussion tenderness.
ā Therefore, severe pain on lateral percussion + vital tooth + lateral periodontal swelling/bone loss ā lateral periodontal abscess.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Severe pain upon lateral (horizontal) percussionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Sharp pain upon vertical percussion only ā More suggestive of inflammation involving the apical periodontal tissues, as seen in acute apical periodontitis/abscess.
ā High-pitched, metallic sound upon vertical percussion ā More commonly associated with ankylosis rather than a periodontal abscess.
ā Complete absence of pain upon both lateral and vertical percussion ā Does not support an acute periodontal abscess because acute inflammation generally produces tenderness.SYNOPSIS
ā A lateral periodontal abscess is localized within the periodontal tissues along the lateral aspect of the root, so lateral/horizontal percussion may reproduce the patient’s discomfort more prominently.
ā An acute periapical abscess primarily involves the tissues around the root apex and is more characteristically associated with vertical percussion tenderness.
ā Therefore, severe pain on lateral percussion + vital tooth + lateral periodontal swelling/bone loss ā lateral periodontal abscess.REFERENCE
Newman MG, Takei HH, Klokkevold PR, Carranza FA. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed -
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
A 9-year-old child presents to the emergency clinic 25 minutes after suffering trauma at school that resulted in complete avulsion of the permanent maxillary central incisor. The tooth was kept in cold milk. What is the immediate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Replant the tooth into the socket with gentle pressure immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Scrape the root surface with a curette and store in saline ā The periodontal ligament cells on the root surface should be preserved; scraping them off can further damage the cells and worsen the prognosis.
ā Perform endodontic treatment on the chair before replantation ā Immediate replantation should not be delayed for endodontic treatment. For an immature permanent tooth, the treatment plan should aim to preserve or revascularize the pulp when appropriate.
ā Place the tooth in 10% formalin and observe for 24 hours ā Formalin is a tissue fixative and is inappropriate for an avulsed tooth intended for replantation.SYNOPSIS
ā An avulsed permanent tooth should be replanted as soon as possible, provided there are no contraindications.
ā In this case, the tooth has been out of the socket for only 25 minutes and has been stored in cold milk, which helps maintain periodontal ligament cell viability.
ā The tooth should be handled by the crown, gently rinsed if contaminated, and replanted immediately with gentle pressure.
ā After replantation, the tooth is stabilized with an appropriate flexible splint and the patient is assessed for associated injuries and subsequent endodontic management.REFERENCE
Andersson L, Andreasen JO, Day P, et al. International Association of Dental Traumatology guidelines for the management of traumatic dental injuries: 2. Avulsion of permanent teeth. Dental TraumatologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Replant the tooth into the socket with gentle pressure immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Scrape the root surface with a curette and store in saline ā The periodontal ligament cells on the root surface should be preserved; scraping them off can further damage the cells and worsen the prognosis.
ā Perform endodontic treatment on the chair before replantation ā Immediate replantation should not be delayed for endodontic treatment. For an immature permanent tooth, the treatment plan should aim to preserve or revascularize the pulp when appropriate.
ā Place the tooth in 10% formalin and observe for 24 hours ā Formalin is a tissue fixative and is inappropriate for an avulsed tooth intended for replantation.SYNOPSIS
ā An avulsed permanent tooth should be replanted as soon as possible, provided there are no contraindications.
ā In this case, the tooth has been out of the socket for only 25 minutes and has been stored in cold milk, which helps maintain periodontal ligament cell viability.
ā The tooth should be handled by the crown, gently rinsed if contaminated, and replanted immediately with gentle pressure.
ā After replantation, the tooth is stabilized with an appropriate flexible splint and the patient is assessed for associated injuries and subsequent endodontic management.REFERENCE
Andersson L, Andreasen JO, Day P, et al. International Association of Dental Traumatology guidelines for the management of traumatic dental injuries: 2. Avulsion of permanent teeth. Dental Traumatology -
Question 54 of 150
54. Question
Following immediate replantation of an avulsed permanent maxillary central incisor with a fully formed closed apex in a 9-year-old child, when is endodontic treatment (root canal therapy) recommended?
Correct
ANSWER
Within 1 week to 2 weeks post-replantationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraorally before replanting the tooth ā Root canal treatment should generally not delay immediate replantation. Extraoral endodontic treatment is reserved for selected circumstances and is not the preferred approach when immediate replantation is possible.
ā After 3 to 6 months of clinical observation ā Waiting several months in a tooth with a closed apex increases the risk of inflammatory root resorption and is not recommended.
ā Only when symptomatic periapical swelling develops ā A closed-apex avulsed tooth has a high risk of pulpal necrosis, so endodontic treatment is initiated proactively rather than waiting for symptoms or swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā For an avulsed permanent tooth with a fully formed (closed) apex, the pulp is unlikely to revascularize predictably after avulsion.
ā Following immediate replantation, root canal treatment is generally initiated within 1ā2 weeks, commonly after stabilization of the tooth.
ā The aim is to prevent or control infection-related inflammatory root resorption.REFERENCE
Andersson L, Andreasen JO, Day P, et al. International Association of Dental Traumatology guidelines for the management of traumatic dental injuries: 2. Avulsion of permanent teeth. Dental Traumatology.Incorrect
ANSWER
Within 1 week to 2 weeks post-replantationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Extraorally before replanting the tooth ā Root canal treatment should generally not delay immediate replantation. Extraoral endodontic treatment is reserved for selected circumstances and is not the preferred approach when immediate replantation is possible.
ā After 3 to 6 months of clinical observation ā Waiting several months in a tooth with a closed apex increases the risk of inflammatory root resorption and is not recommended.
ā Only when symptomatic periapical swelling develops ā A closed-apex avulsed tooth has a high risk of pulpal necrosis, so endodontic treatment is initiated proactively rather than waiting for symptoms or swelling.SYNOPSIS
ā For an avulsed permanent tooth with a fully formed (closed) apex, the pulp is unlikely to revascularize predictably after avulsion.
ā Following immediate replantation, root canal treatment is generally initiated within 1ā2 weeks, commonly after stabilization of the tooth.
ā The aim is to prevent or control infection-related inflammatory root resorption.REFERENCE
Andersson L, Andreasen JO, Day P, et al. International Association of Dental Traumatology guidelines for the management of traumatic dental injuries: 2. Avulsion of permanent teeth. Dental Traumatology. -
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
What is the standard concentration of fluoride present in professionally applied Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) gel?
Correct
ANSWER
1.23%OTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.05% ā This concentration is commonly associated with daily sodium fluoride mouthrinses, not professionally applied APF gel.
ā 2.00% ā This is not the standard concentration of professionally applied APF gel.
ā 5.00% ā This concentration is characteristic of 5% sodium fluoride varnish, not APF gel.SYNOPSIS
ā Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) gel is conventionally available at a concentration of 1.23% fluoride ion, equivalent to approximately 12,300 ppm fluoride.
ā APF is commonly formulated at pH approximately 3ā4 to enhance fluoride uptake by enamel.REFERENCE
Wilkins EM. Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist. 14th edIncorrect
ANSWER
1.23%OTHER OPTIONS
ā 0.05% ā This concentration is commonly associated with daily sodium fluoride mouthrinses, not professionally applied APF gel.
ā 2.00% ā This is not the standard concentration of professionally applied APF gel.
ā 5.00% ā This concentration is characteristic of 5% sodium fluoride varnish, not APF gel.SYNOPSIS
ā Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride (APF) gel is conventionally available at a concentration of 1.23% fluoride ion, equivalent to approximately 12,300 ppm fluoride.
ā APF is commonly formulated at pH approximately 3ā4 to enhance fluoride uptake by enamel.REFERENCE
Wilkins EM. Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist. 14th ed -
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
During the administration of local anesthesia for minor oral surgery, sensory modalities are blocked in a specific sequence. Which sensation is the last to disappear following local anesthetic administration?
Correct
ANSWER
Deep pressureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pain (nociception) ā Pain fibers are among the first sensory modalities to be blocked by local anesthetics.
ā Temperature (cold and heat) ā Temperature sensation is also lost relatively early during progressive local anesthetic blockade.
ā Touch and proprioception ā These sensations are generally affected before the deeper pressure sensation.SYNOPSIS
ā Local anesthetics produce a differential nerve block, with smaller fibers generally becoming blocked before larger, heavily myelinated fibers.
ā The usual clinical sequence is pain ā temperature ā touch ā deep pressure/proprioception, with deep pressure being among the last sensations to disappear.
ā This explains why a patient may still perceive pressure or movement during a procedure despite having adequate anesthesia for pain.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Deep pressureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pain (nociception) ā Pain fibers are among the first sensory modalities to be blocked by local anesthetics.
ā Temperature (cold and heat) ā Temperature sensation is also lost relatively early during progressive local anesthetic blockade.
ā Touch and proprioception ā These sensations are generally affected before the deeper pressure sensation.SYNOPSIS
ā Local anesthetics produce a differential nerve block, with smaller fibers generally becoming blocked before larger, heavily myelinated fibers.
ā The usual clinical sequence is pain ā temperature ā touch ā deep pressure/proprioception, with deep pressure being among the last sensations to disappear.
ā This explains why a patient may still perceive pressure or movement during a procedure despite having adequate anesthesia for pain.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. -
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
Following an uncomplicated simple tooth extraction, how long does it typically take for granulation tissue to completely fill the extraction socket?
Correct
ANSWER
21 days (3 weeks)OTHER OPTIONS
ā 24 to 48 hours ā The blood clot forms and initial healing begins, but granulation tissue has not completely filled the extraction socket.
ā 7 days (1 week) ā Granulation tissue is well established at this stage, but complete filling of the socket generally takes longer.
ā 60 days (2 months) ā By this time, the socket is undergoing more advanced connective tissue and bone formation rather than merely being filled with granulation tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā Following an uncomplicated tooth extraction, the socket initially becomes filled with a blood clot.
ā The clot is gradually replaced by granulation tissue, which contains numerous new capillaries, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells.
ā By approximately 3 weeks, granulation tissue has typically completely filled the extraction socket.
ā Subsequent healing involves maturation of connective tissue and progressive formation and remodeling of new bone.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. Elsevier.Incorrect
ANSWER
21 days (3 weeks)OTHER OPTIONS
ā 24 to 48 hours ā The blood clot forms and initial healing begins, but granulation tissue has not completely filled the extraction socket.
ā 7 days (1 week) ā Granulation tissue is well established at this stage, but complete filling of the socket generally takes longer.
ā 60 days (2 months) ā By this time, the socket is undergoing more advanced connective tissue and bone formation rather than merely being filled with granulation tissue.SYNOPSIS
ā Following an uncomplicated tooth extraction, the socket initially becomes filled with a blood clot.
ā The clot is gradually replaced by granulation tissue, which contains numerous new capillaries, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells.
ā By approximately 3 weeks, granulation tissue has typically completely filled the extraction socket.
ā Subsequent healing involves maturation of connective tissue and progressive formation and remodeling of new bone.REFERENCE
Hupp JR, Ellis E, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. Elsevier. -
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
Which primary tooth exhibits a crown dimension where the mesiodistal width is characteristically greater than its occlosogingival (cervicoincisal) height?
Correct
ANSWER
Primary Maxillary Central IncisorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Primary Mandibular Central Incisor ā Its mesiodistal dimension is not characteristically greater than its cervicoincisal height.
ā Primary Maxillary Canine ā The canine has a more vertically oriented crown, with the cervicoincisal dimension generally greater than the mesiodistal dimension.
ā Primary Mandibular First Molar ā Its crown is wider mesiodistally, but it does not show the characteristic proportion described for the primary maxillary central incisor.SYNOPSIS
ā The primary maxillary central incisor has a distinctive crown form in which the mesiodistal width is greater than the cervicoincisal (occlusogingival) height.
ā This gives the crown a relatively wide, short appearance compared with the permanent maxillary central incisor.
ā This feature is an important identifying characteristic of primary maxillary central incisors in dental anatomy.REFERENCE
Nelson SJ. Wheelerās Dental Anatomy, Physiology, and Occlusion. 11th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Primary Maxillary Central IncisorOTHER OPTIONS
ā Primary Mandibular Central Incisor ā Its mesiodistal dimension is not characteristically greater than its cervicoincisal height.
ā Primary Maxillary Canine ā The canine has a more vertically oriented crown, with the cervicoincisal dimension generally greater than the mesiodistal dimension.
ā Primary Mandibular First Molar ā Its crown is wider mesiodistally, but it does not show the characteristic proportion described for the primary maxillary central incisor.SYNOPSIS
ā The primary maxillary central incisor has a distinctive crown form in which the mesiodistal width is greater than the cervicoincisal (occlusogingival) height.
ā This gives the crown a relatively wide, short appearance compared with the permanent maxillary central incisor.
ā This feature is an important identifying characteristic of primary maxillary central incisors in dental anatomy.REFERENCE
Nelson SJ. Wheelerās Dental Anatomy, Physiology, and Occlusion. 11th edition -
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
A 35-year-old patient is scheduled for a straight wall, two-stage dental implant procedure. Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events for this implant process?
Correct
ANSWER
1)Insertion of the implant body into the bone.
2)Allowing osseointegration for 3-6 months.
3)Exposure of the implant for abutment placement.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠In a two-stage procedure, the implant body is first inserted into the bone, followed by a period of osseointegration (usually 3-6 months).
⢠Once osseointegration is complete, a second minor surgery is performed to expose the implant and place the abutment.REFERENCE
Contemporary Implant Dentistry – Carl E Misch 4th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
1)Insertion of the implant body into the bone.
2)Allowing osseointegration for 3-6 months.
3)Exposure of the implant for abutment placement.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠In a two-stage procedure, the implant body is first inserted into the bone, followed by a period of osseointegration (usually 3-6 months).
⢠Once osseointegration is complete, a second minor surgery is performed to expose the implant and place the abutment.REFERENCE
Contemporary Implant Dentistry – Carl E Misch 4th Edition -
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency room after sustaining a blow to the face during a sports accident. He has significant ecchymosis (bruising) around his left eye and complains of facial pain, numbness in the upper lip and cheek, and difficulty moving his eye upward. Physical examination reveals swelling and tenderness in the infraorbital region. Suspecting an infraorbital fracture, you need to confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following imaging modalities you will prefer in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
CTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Lateral Skull X-ray – Lateral skull X-rays provide a side view of the entire skull, but they lack the resolution to detect small or complex fractures in the infraorbital area. They are primarily used to assess large skull fractures or abnormalities in the cranial vault, not the detailed bone structures of the midface.
⢠Panoramic X-ray – Panoramic X-rays are typically used for visualizing the jaws, teeth, and lower face.
⢠Waters view – The Waters view is a specialized X-ray technique to visualize the maxillary sinuses, orbital rims, and zygomatic arches.SYNOPSIS
⢠A CT scan offers superior resolution and a detailed 3D view of the facial bones, making it the gold standard for diagnosing complex fractures in the infraorbital area.
⢠It can provide information about bone displacement, comminution, and the involvement of surrounding structures, which is critical for planning appropriate treatmentREFERENCE
White and Pharoah’s Oral Radiology: Principles and InterpretationIncorrect
ANSWER
CTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Lateral Skull X-ray – Lateral skull X-rays provide a side view of the entire skull, but they lack the resolution to detect small or complex fractures in the infraorbital area. They are primarily used to assess large skull fractures or abnormalities in the cranial vault, not the detailed bone structures of the midface.
⢠Panoramic X-ray – Panoramic X-rays are typically used for visualizing the jaws, teeth, and lower face.
⢠Waters view – The Waters view is a specialized X-ray technique to visualize the maxillary sinuses, orbital rims, and zygomatic arches.SYNOPSIS
⢠A CT scan offers superior resolution and a detailed 3D view of the facial bones, making it the gold standard for diagnosing complex fractures in the infraorbital area.
⢠It can provide information about bone displacement, comminution, and the involvement of surrounding structures, which is critical for planning appropriate treatmentREFERENCE
White and Pharoah’s Oral Radiology: Principles and Interpretation -
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
A patient who was diagnosed with HIV 2 years back was under HAART. During the course of therapy he has experienced several discomfort like difficulty in swallowing and a dryness in mouth. Which among the following is the most likely complication of HAART?
Correct
ANSWER
XerostomiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Xerostomia (dry mouth) is a common side effect of HAART, often due to the suppression of salivary gland function by the medication.
⢠Symptoms of dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and increased thirst are consistent with this condition.
⢠NB: HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy)REFERENCE
Definition of Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy National Cancer InstituteIncorrect
ANSWER
XerostomiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Xerostomia (dry mouth) is a common side effect of HAART, often due to the suppression of salivary gland function by the medication.
⢠Symptoms of dry mouth, difficulty swallowing, and increased thirst are consistent with this condition.
⢠NB: HAART (Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy)REFERENCE
Definition of Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy National Cancer Institute -
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
A 55-year-old male presents to the dental clinic with a painful swelling in the roof of his mouth. He reports that the pain has worsened over the past few days, and he now experiences difficulty swallowing and a bad taste in his mouth. On examination, there is a localized, fluctuant swelling on the hard palate with signs of pus accumulation. The patient complains of frequent infections over the past year. Which of the following conditions is most likely contributing to the formation of this palatal abscess?
Correct
ANSWER
DiabetesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypertension – Hypertension is not typically associated with an increased risk of infections or abscess formation in the oral cavity
⢠Sinusitis – Chronic sinusitis can lead to complications involving the sinuses, but it typically presents with symptoms such as nasal congestion, facial pain, and postnasal drip, not palatal abscesses.
⢠GERD – Causes erosion in palatal surface of teeth not abscessSYNOPSIS
⢠Poorly controlled diabetes is associated with impaired immune function, leading to an increased risk of infections, including dental and periodontal abscesses.
⢠The patient’s history of frequent infections suggests that diabetes is a contributing factor to the formation of the palatal abscess.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology 10 th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
DiabetesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypertension – Hypertension is not typically associated with an increased risk of infections or abscess formation in the oral cavity
⢠Sinusitis – Chronic sinusitis can lead to complications involving the sinuses, but it typically presents with symptoms such as nasal congestion, facial pain, and postnasal drip, not palatal abscesses.
⢠GERD – Causes erosion in palatal surface of teeth not abscessSYNOPSIS
⢠Poorly controlled diabetes is associated with impaired immune function, leading to an increased risk of infections, including dental and periodontal abscesses.
⢠The patient’s history of frequent infections suggests that diabetes is a contributing factor to the formation of the palatal abscess.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology 10 th Edition -
Question 63 of 150
63. Question
A 45-year-old patient presents with a yellow-hued tooth that has a higher value (brightness) compared to the surrounding teeth. You plan to adjust the shade using a color stain to achieve a more natural hue. Which color stain should be added to achieve the desired hue?
Correct
ANSWER
PurpleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠To neutralize or balance out a yellow hue and reduce its value (brightness), a complementary color, such as purple, is typically added.
⢠Purple helps in correcting excessive yellow in dental restorations and brings it closer to the desired hue.
⢠In a crown or tooth which is overly yellow, lightly washing with violet (the complementary hue of yellow) produces an area that is no longer yellow.REFERENCE
Shade Selection in Esthetic Dentistry –Incorrect
ANSWER
PurpleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠To neutralize or balance out a yellow hue and reduce its value (brightness), a complementary color, such as purple, is typically added.
⢠Purple helps in correcting excessive yellow in dental restorations and brings it closer to the desired hue.
⢠In a crown or tooth which is overly yellow, lightly washing with violet (the complementary hue of yellow) produces an area that is no longer yellow.REFERENCE
Shade Selection in Esthetic Dentistry – -
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
What is not included as consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis for orthognathic ridge relationship?
Correct
ANSWER
Require minimum interocclusal distance.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠When constructing a complete denture prosthesis for an orthognathic ridge relationship, the following considerations are typically included
Support and Retention – Ensuring that the denture provides adequate support and retention based on the anatomy of the ridge and surrounding soft tissues.
Esthetics – Designing the denture to achieve natural appearance, considering factors such as lip support, tooth shape, and shade.
Occlusion – Achieving a functional occlusion that allows for proper chewing and minimizes movement or instability of the denture during function. This includes careful planning of tooth arrangement and occlusal relationships.
Jaw Relationships – Accurately determining the maxillomandibular relationship to ensure that the dentures align properly with the patient’s occlusal plane and facial aesthetics.
Comfort – Ensuring the denture is comfortable for the patient to wear, with consideration for any anatomical changes due to orthognathic surgery.
Functional Movement – Ensuring the denture accommodates functional movements such as chewing, speaking, and swallowing without discomfort or dislodgement.
Material Selection – Choosing appropriate materials for the denture base and teeth that provide durability and biocompatibility.
Mucosal Health – Considering the health of the oral mucosa and ensuring that the denture design does not irritate or cause pressure points.
⢠These considerations help in creating a complete denture prosthesis that is functional, comfortable, and aesthetically pleasing for patients with orthognathic ridge relationships.
⢠While maintaining appropriate space is important, a strict minimum interocclusal distance is not a primary focus. The emphasis is on overall fit and function rather than a specific distance.REFERENCE
Occlusal Considerations in Complete Dentures-Sandro Palla-Restorative and Prosthodontic Therapy.Incorrect
ANSWER
Require minimum interocclusal distance.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠When constructing a complete denture prosthesis for an orthognathic ridge relationship, the following considerations are typically included
Support and Retention – Ensuring that the denture provides adequate support and retention based on the anatomy of the ridge and surrounding soft tissues.
Esthetics – Designing the denture to achieve natural appearance, considering factors such as lip support, tooth shape, and shade.
Occlusion – Achieving a functional occlusion that allows for proper chewing and minimizes movement or instability of the denture during function. This includes careful planning of tooth arrangement and occlusal relationships.
Jaw Relationships – Accurately determining the maxillomandibular relationship to ensure that the dentures align properly with the patient’s occlusal plane and facial aesthetics.
Comfort – Ensuring the denture is comfortable for the patient to wear, with consideration for any anatomical changes due to orthognathic surgery.
Functional Movement – Ensuring the denture accommodates functional movements such as chewing, speaking, and swallowing without discomfort or dislodgement.
Material Selection – Choosing appropriate materials for the denture base and teeth that provide durability and biocompatibility.
Mucosal Health – Considering the health of the oral mucosa and ensuring that the denture design does not irritate or cause pressure points.
⢠These considerations help in creating a complete denture prosthesis that is functional, comfortable, and aesthetically pleasing for patients with orthognathic ridge relationships.
⢠While maintaining appropriate space is important, a strict minimum interocclusal distance is not a primary focus. The emphasis is on overall fit and function rather than a specific distance.REFERENCE
Occlusal Considerations in Complete Dentures-Sandro Palla-Restorative and Prosthodontic Therapy. -
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
What is the main goal to be considered when a three-walled crater is referred for osseous resection?
Correct
ANSWER
The reshaping of the alveolar process to achieve a more physiologic form without removing supporting boneOTHER OPTIONS
NILSYNOPSIS
⢠Osseous surgery may be defined as the procedure by which changes in the alveolar bone can be accomplished to rid it of deformities induced by the periodontal disease process or other related factors such as exostosis and tooth supra eruption.
ā¢The morphology of the osseous defect largely determines the treatment technique to be used.
⢠One-wall angular defects usually need to be recontoured surgically.
⢠Two-wall angular defects can be treated with either method, depending on their depth, width, and general configuration.
⢠Three-wall defects, particularly if they are narrow and deep, can be successfully treated with techniques that strive for new attachment and bone reconstruction.
⢠Therefore, except for one-wall defects, shallow two-wall defects, and interdental craters, osseous defects are treated with the objective of obtaining optimal repair by natural healing processes.REFERENCE
Resective Osseous Surgery -Thomas N. SimsIncorrect
ANSWER
The reshaping of the alveolar process to achieve a more physiologic form without removing supporting boneOTHER OPTIONS
NILSYNOPSIS
⢠Osseous surgery may be defined as the procedure by which changes in the alveolar bone can be accomplished to rid it of deformities induced by the periodontal disease process or other related factors such as exostosis and tooth supra eruption.
ā¢The morphology of the osseous defect largely determines the treatment technique to be used.
⢠One-wall angular defects usually need to be recontoured surgically.
⢠Two-wall angular defects can be treated with either method, depending on their depth, width, and general configuration.
⢠Three-wall defects, particularly if they are narrow and deep, can be successfully treated with techniques that strive for new attachment and bone reconstruction.
⢠Therefore, except for one-wall defects, shallow two-wall defects, and interdental craters, osseous defects are treated with the objective of obtaining optimal repair by natural healing processes.REFERENCE
Resective Osseous Surgery -Thomas N. Sims -
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
Gingivectomy is indicated in all of the cases, except?
Correct
ANSWER
Infrabony pocketsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained in synopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Gingivectomy is the excision of gingival tissue, usually to remove the diseased wall of a periodontal pocket (true pocket or pseudopocket). The term gingivectomy was coined by Pickerill in 1912.
⢠The basic prerequisites for gingivectomy are as follows
– There should be an adequate zone of attached gingiva so that the excision of part of it will still leave a functionally adequate zone.
– The underlying alveolar bone must be in normal or nearly normal form.
– There should be no infrabony defects or pockets.
⢠Indications
– Elimination of supra bony fibrous and firm pockets.
– Elimination of gingival enlargement.
– Increase clinical crown height.
– Need for bone surgery.
– When the bottom of the pocket is apical to the Mucogingival junction.
– Aesthetic considerations, particularly in the anterior region of the Maxilla.
– Surgical gingivectomy.
⢠Contraindications
– In the presence of thick alveolar edges, interdental craters.
– Presence of infrabony pockets.
– Situations in which the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction.
– Inadequate oral hygiene maintenance by the patients.
– Medically compromised patients.
– Dentinal sensitivity before the surgical procedure.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Infrabony pocketsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained in synopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Gingivectomy is the excision of gingival tissue, usually to remove the diseased wall of a periodontal pocket (true pocket or pseudopocket). The term gingivectomy was coined by Pickerill in 1912.
⢠The basic prerequisites for gingivectomy are as follows
– There should be an adequate zone of attached gingiva so that the excision of part of it will still leave a functionally adequate zone.
– The underlying alveolar bone must be in normal or nearly normal form.
– There should be no infrabony defects or pockets.
⢠Indications
– Elimination of supra bony fibrous and firm pockets.
– Elimination of gingival enlargement.
– Increase clinical crown height.
– Need for bone surgery.
– When the bottom of the pocket is apical to the Mucogingival junction.
– Aesthetic considerations, particularly in the anterior region of the Maxilla.
– Surgical gingivectomy.
⢠Contraindications
– In the presence of thick alveolar edges, interdental craters.
– Presence of infrabony pockets.
– Situations in which the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction.
– Inadequate oral hygiene maintenance by the patients.
– Medically compromised patients.
– Dentinal sensitivity before the surgical procedure.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
What do you mean by autonomy?
Correct
ANSWER
The professionals have a duty to treat the patient according to the patient’s desires, within the bounds of accepted treatment, and to protect the patient’s confidentialityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠In medical practice, autonomy is usually expressed as the right of competent adults to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
⢠The principle underlies the requirement to seek the consent or informed agreement of the patient before any investigation or treatment takes place
ā¢There are three elements to the psychological capacity of autonomy – agency, independence, and rationality.
⢠Agency is awareness of oneself as having desires and intentions and of acting on them.REFERENCE
Medical Ethics- Autonomy- The medical portalIncorrect
ANSWER
The professionals have a duty to treat the patient according to the patient’s desires, within the bounds of accepted treatment, and to protect the patient’s confidentialityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠In medical practice, autonomy is usually expressed as the right of competent adults to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
⢠The principle underlies the requirement to seek the consent or informed agreement of the patient before any investigation or treatment takes place
ā¢There are three elements to the psychological capacity of autonomy – agency, independence, and rationality.
⢠Agency is awareness of oneself as having desires and intentions and of acting on them.REFERENCE
Medical Ethics- Autonomy- The medical portal -
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
Which periodontal probe is calibrated in 3mm sections?
Correct
ANSWER
Marquis color-coded probeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠William’s probe -Williams Probe is intended to measure the depth of periodontal pockets. It is marked in millimeters 1-2-3-5-7-8-9-10.
⢠Naber’s probe -Naber’s probe is used to determine the extent of the horizontal attachment loss in furcations.SYNOPSIS
⢠Marquis color-coded probe is a periodontal probe with markings or calibrations given in 3mm sections.
⢠It is used to measure pocket depths around a tooth in order to establish the state of health of the periodontium with its long, thin, and blunted tip.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Marquis color-coded probeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠William’s probe -Williams Probe is intended to measure the depth of periodontal pockets. It is marked in millimeters 1-2-3-5-7-8-9-10.
⢠Naber’s probe -Naber’s probe is used to determine the extent of the horizontal attachment loss in furcations.SYNOPSIS
⢠Marquis color-coded probe is a periodontal probe with markings or calibrations given in 3mm sections.
⢠It is used to measure pocket depths around a tooth in order to establish the state of health of the periodontium with its long, thin, and blunted tip.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
What is the disadvantage of cement retained implants?
Correct
ANSWER
Inability to be retrievedOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠Cement-retained implant restorations consist of an abutment upon which the implant crown is cemented.
⢠Advantages
– Independent of implant orientation or angulation
– Enhanced estheticsĀ
⢠Disadvantages
– Unknown retention
– Can be difficult to removeREFERENCE
Cement-retained versus screw-retained implant restorations – Achieving optimal occlusion and esthetics in implant dentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Inability to be retrievedOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠Cement-retained implant restorations consist of an abutment upon which the implant crown is cemented.
⢠Advantages
– Independent of implant orientation or angulation
– Enhanced estheticsĀ
⢠Disadvantages
– Unknown retention
– Can be difficult to removeREFERENCE
Cement-retained versus screw-retained implant restorations – Achieving optimal occlusion and esthetics in implant dentistry -
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
Which of the following instruments is used for making grooves in the wax?
Correct
ANSWER
PKT3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Wax Knife – Used for cutting excessive wax.
⢠Spoon excavatorĀ – A spoon excavator is used to clean out and shape a carious cavity before filling it.
⢠Spatula – Wax Spatulas are used to mix dental wax.SYNOPSIS
⢠Waxing instruments can be categorized by the intent of their design wax addition, carving, or burnishing.
⢠The popular PKTs designed by Dr. Peter K. Thomas specifically for the additive waxing technique are –
– No. 1 and no. 2 are wax addition instruments,
– No. 3 is a burnisher for refining occlusal anatomy. Used to perfect and enhance the supplemental and developmental groves.
– No. 4 and 5 are wax carvers.
– No 4 Used to perfect the external contours and remove excess wax at the cavosurface margins.
– No 5 Used to remove excess wax. Its contour maintains desired convexity at these ridges.REFERENCE
Shillingburg, Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics, pg 335Incorrect
ANSWER
PKT3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Wax Knife – Used for cutting excessive wax.
⢠Spoon excavatorĀ – A spoon excavator is used to clean out and shape a carious cavity before filling it.
⢠Spatula – Wax Spatulas are used to mix dental wax.SYNOPSIS
⢠Waxing instruments can be categorized by the intent of their design wax addition, carving, or burnishing.
⢠The popular PKTs designed by Dr. Peter K. Thomas specifically for the additive waxing technique are –
– No. 1 and no. 2 are wax addition instruments,
– No. 3 is a burnisher for refining occlusal anatomy. Used to perfect and enhance the supplemental and developmental groves.
– No. 4 and 5 are wax carvers.
– No 4 Used to perfect the external contours and remove excess wax at the cavosurface margins.
– No 5 Used to remove excess wax. Its contour maintains desired convexity at these ridges.REFERENCE
Shillingburg, Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics, pg 335 -
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
Apicocoronal resorption in edentulous patients comes under which class in the seibert classification?
Correct
ANSWER
Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer Synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Ridge deformities have been grouped into three categories by Siebert and this classification has been widely accepted.
Class I – Loss of faciolingual ridge width, with normal apicocoronal height.
Class II – Loss of ridge height(apico-coronal), with normal width.
Class III – Loss of both ridge width and height(apico-coronal and facio-lingual)REFERENCE
Shillingburg, Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics,pg 491Incorrect
ANSWER
Class IIOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer Synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Ridge deformities have been grouped into three categories by Siebert and this classification has been widely accepted.
Class I – Loss of faciolingual ridge width, with normal apicocoronal height.
Class II – Loss of ridge height(apico-coronal), with normal width.
Class III – Loss of both ridge width and height(apico-coronal and facio-lingual)REFERENCE
Shillingburg, Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics,pg 491 -
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
Which is the effective method of rapid sterilization of metal tray?
Correct
ANSWER
AutoclaveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Ethylene oxide – Ethylene oxide sterilizers are used to sterilize heat- and moisture-sensitive devices that would be damaged by pure steam or liquid chemical sterilization, including most plastic or rubber products (e.g., catheters, resuscitation bags, anesthesia masks, most fiberoptic instruments)
⢠Chemiclave – Chemiclave is a form of autoclave, used to sterilise surgical instruments, that incorporates steam, alcohol and formaldehyde under pressure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Autoclaves provide a physical method for disinfection and sterilization. They work with a combination of steam, pressure, and time. Autoclaves operate at high temperature and pressure to kill microorganisms and spores.
⢠To be effective, the autoclave must reach and maintain a temperature of 121 degree C for at least 30 minutes by using saturated steam under at least 15 psi of pressure.
⢠Place trays in autoclaving pouches when using chemicals in the autoclave.REFERENCE
Disinfection, Sterilization, and Control of Hospital Waste. Mandell, Douglas, and Bennetts Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases. 2015Incorrect
ANSWER
AutoclaveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Ethylene oxide – Ethylene oxide sterilizers are used to sterilize heat- and moisture-sensitive devices that would be damaged by pure steam or liquid chemical sterilization, including most plastic or rubber products (e.g., catheters, resuscitation bags, anesthesia masks, most fiberoptic instruments)
⢠Chemiclave – Chemiclave is a form of autoclave, used to sterilise surgical instruments, that incorporates steam, alcohol and formaldehyde under pressure.SYNOPSIS
⢠Autoclaves provide a physical method for disinfection and sterilization. They work with a combination of steam, pressure, and time. Autoclaves operate at high temperature and pressure to kill microorganisms and spores.
⢠To be effective, the autoclave must reach and maintain a temperature of 121 degree C for at least 30 minutes by using saturated steam under at least 15 psi of pressure.
⢠Place trays in autoclaving pouches when using chemicals in the autoclave.REFERENCE
Disinfection, Sterilization, and Control of Hospital Waste. Mandell, Douglas, and Bennetts Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases. 2015 -
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
Metamerism involves?
Correct
ANSWER
A significant color change of one object as it moves from one illumination to anotherOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The appearance of an object depends on the type of light by which the object is viewed.
⢠Daylight, incandescent lamps, and fluorescent lamps are all common sources of light in the dental operatory.
⢠Objects that appear to be color-matched under one type of light may appear very different under another light source. This phenomenon is called metamerismREFERENCE
John J Manappallil, Basic dental materials, pg 32Incorrect
ANSWER
A significant color change of one object as it moves from one illumination to anotherOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The appearance of an object depends on the type of light by which the object is viewed.
⢠Daylight, incandescent lamps, and fluorescent lamps are all common sources of light in the dental operatory.
⢠Objects that appear to be color-matched under one type of light may appear very different under another light source. This phenomenon is called metamerismREFERENCE
John J Manappallil, Basic dental materials, pg 32 -
Question 74 of 150
74. Question
Growth of the maxilla is primary by?
Correct
ANSWER
Intramembranous ossificationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Maxilla develops primarily by intra-membranous ossification
⢠A primary intramembranous ossification centre appears for each maxilla in the 8th week of IUL at the termination of the infraorbital nerve just above the canine tooth dental lamina
⢠Secondary cartilages appear at the end of the 8th week in IU in the regions of the zygomatic and alveolar processes that rapidly ossify and fuse with the primary intramembranous centre
⢠Two further intramembranous pre-maxillary centres appear anteriorly one on each side in the 8th week IU and rapidly fuse with the primary maxillary centre.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Srider Premkumar-Chapter 1-Page 3.Incorrect
ANSWER
Intramembranous ossificationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Maxilla develops primarily by intra-membranous ossification
⢠A primary intramembranous ossification centre appears for each maxilla in the 8th week of IUL at the termination of the infraorbital nerve just above the canine tooth dental lamina
⢠Secondary cartilages appear at the end of the 8th week in IU in the regions of the zygomatic and alveolar processes that rapidly ossify and fuse with the primary intramembranous centre
⢠Two further intramembranous pre-maxillary centres appear anteriorly one on each side in the 8th week IU and rapidly fuse with the primary maxillary centre.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Srider Premkumar-Chapter 1-Page 3. -
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
A dental arch with all molars and incisors missing would be classified as?
Correct
ANSWER
Class I modification IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Applegates Rules for Applying the Kennedy Classification
Rule 1 – Classification should follow rather than precede extraction.
Rule 2 – If the 3rd molar is missing and not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification.
Rule 3 – If the 3rd molar is present and to be used as an abutment, it is considered in the classification.
Rule 4 – If the second molar is missing and not be replaced, it is not considered in the classification.
Rule 5 – The most posterior edentulous area determines the classification.
Rule 6 – Edentulous areas other than those determining classification are called modification spaces.
Rule 7 – The extent of the modification is not considered, only the number.
Rule 8 – There is no modification space in Class IV.
⢠Here, the posterior-most teeth are 2nd premolars, bilaterally, making it class I, and one edentulous space between canines, making it Class I, modification 1Reference
Stewarts clinical RPD 3rd ed, pg 8Incorrect
ANSWER
Class I modification IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Applegates Rules for Applying the Kennedy Classification
Rule 1 – Classification should follow rather than precede extraction.
Rule 2 – If the 3rd molar is missing and not to be replaced, it is not considered in the classification.
Rule 3 – If the 3rd molar is present and to be used as an abutment, it is considered in the classification.
Rule 4 – If the second molar is missing and not be replaced, it is not considered in the classification.
Rule 5 – The most posterior edentulous area determines the classification.
Rule 6 – Edentulous areas other than those determining classification are called modification spaces.
Rule 7 – The extent of the modification is not considered, only the number.
Rule 8 – There is no modification space in Class IV.
⢠Here, the posterior-most teeth are 2nd premolars, bilaterally, making it class I, and one edentulous space between canines, making it Class I, modification 1Reference
Stewarts clinical RPD 3rd ed, pg 8 -
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
A young patient came to you after a bicycle accident with trauma of the central incisor. EPT showed a negative pulp response. Radiographic examination shows the tooth is having an open apex. What is the next step?
Correct
ANSWER
Observe over timeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Extraction – Only done if there is no means of saving the tooth.
⢠Endodontic management – Done in closed apex cases with necrotic pulp changes.
⢠Pulpotomy – A pulpotomy isĀ a dental procedure in which the pulp in the crown of a tooth is removed in order to save the tooth from infection or decay.ĀSYNOPSIS
⢠Electric pulp testing is based on stimulation of sensory nerves and requires and relies on subjective assessments and comments from the patient. These can lead to false-positive and false-negative results.
⢠Younger or anxious patients can have false-positive results due to psychological factors.
⢠Likewise, false-negative results are possible in teeth with incomplete apical development, trauma, root canal calcification, periodontal disease, or in patients undergoing orthodontic treatment.
⢠So it’s always better to wait and observe for some time and evaluate the pulp status of the tooth.REFERENCE
Grossman’s endodontic practice pg 378.Incorrect
ANSWER
Observe over timeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Extraction – Only done if there is no means of saving the tooth.
⢠Endodontic management – Done in closed apex cases with necrotic pulp changes.
⢠Pulpotomy – A pulpotomy isĀ a dental procedure in which the pulp in the crown of a tooth is removed in order to save the tooth from infection or decay.ĀSYNOPSIS
⢠Electric pulp testing is based on stimulation of sensory nerves and requires and relies on subjective assessments and comments from the patient. These can lead to false-positive and false-negative results.
⢠Younger or anxious patients can have false-positive results due to psychological factors.
⢠Likewise, false-negative results are possible in teeth with incomplete apical development, trauma, root canal calcification, periodontal disease, or in patients undergoing orthodontic treatment.
⢠So it’s always better to wait and observe for some time and evaluate the pulp status of the tooth.REFERENCE
Grossman’s endodontic practice pg 378. -
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
A 26-year old woman presented to the clinic requesting to whiten her teeth for her graduation day. Her teeth were otherwise healthy, so it was agreed upon to perform an In- office bleaching. 3 minute after initiating the procedure, the patient complains of severe pain and wants to stop the procedure. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
Correct
ANSWER
Bleaching of the gingiva due to incorrect placement of rubber damOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠High concentrations of Hydrogen peroxide are caustic and cause chemical burns and sloughing of the gingiva.
⢠Hydrogen peroxide concentration should be maintained as low as practical and the soft tissues should always be protected with Vaseline, Orabase, or cocoa butter.
⢠The area should be copiously rinsed without delay.
⢠A vitamin E preparation should be on hand to serve as an emergency dressing that will provide an immediate antioxidative effect.
⢠When a patient reports tissue irritation, the soft tissues should be checked immediately. Warning signs other than the patientās sensation are air bubbles rising from the gingival margins.
⢠pH – low pH can produce various harmful effects.
⢠A pH below the critical point (pH 5.5 to 6.5) may result in the dissolution of enamel, microhardness alterations, increased sensitivity, increased enamel wear and surface roughness.REFERENCE
Effects of pH values of hydrogen peroxide bleaching agents on enamel surface properties, Oper Dent Sep-Oct 2011.Incorrect
ANSWER
Bleaching of the gingiva due to incorrect placement of rubber damOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠High concentrations of Hydrogen peroxide are caustic and cause chemical burns and sloughing of the gingiva.
⢠Hydrogen peroxide concentration should be maintained as low as practical and the soft tissues should always be protected with Vaseline, Orabase, or cocoa butter.
⢠The area should be copiously rinsed without delay.
⢠A vitamin E preparation should be on hand to serve as an emergency dressing that will provide an immediate antioxidative effect.
⢠When a patient reports tissue irritation, the soft tissues should be checked immediately. Warning signs other than the patientās sensation are air bubbles rising from the gingival margins.
⢠pH – low pH can produce various harmful effects.
⢠A pH below the critical point (pH 5.5 to 6.5) may result in the dissolution of enamel, microhardness alterations, increased sensitivity, increased enamel wear and surface roughness.REFERENCE
Effects of pH values of hydrogen peroxide bleaching agents on enamel surface properties, Oper Dent Sep-Oct 2011. -
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
What is the age at which more than 90 percent of the growth of the brain is achieved?
Correct
ANSWER
6 yearsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Neural tissues complete 90 percent of their growth by 6 years and 96 percent by 10 years of age.
⢠The calvarium grows most rapidly during the first 12 months, with the brain doubling in volume in the first 6 months and again by the second birthday.
⢠While calvarial expansion is most pronounced during the first 2 years, growth continues linearly until the age of 6 to 7 years, at which time the cranium is 90 percent of the adult size. Most of this cranial growth takes place in the sutures between the bone plates.
⢠Lymphoid tissues reach 100 percent adult size by 7 years – proliferate far beyond the adult size in late childhood (200 percent by 14 years) and involute around the onset of puberty.
⢠Somatic tissues show an S-shape curve with a definite slowing of growth rate during childhood and acceleration at puberty going on till age 20.
⢠Growth of the genital tissues accelerates rapidly around the onset of puberty.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Srider Premkumar-Chapter 1-Page10.Incorrect
ANSWER
6 yearsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Neural tissues complete 90 percent of their growth by 6 years and 96 percent by 10 years of age.
⢠The calvarium grows most rapidly during the first 12 months, with the brain doubling in volume in the first 6 months and again by the second birthday.
⢠While calvarial expansion is most pronounced during the first 2 years, growth continues linearly until the age of 6 to 7 years, at which time the cranium is 90 percent of the adult size. Most of this cranial growth takes place in the sutures between the bone plates.
⢠Lymphoid tissues reach 100 percent adult size by 7 years – proliferate far beyond the adult size in late childhood (200 percent by 14 years) and involute around the onset of puberty.
⢠Somatic tissues show an S-shape curve with a definite slowing of growth rate during childhood and acceleration at puberty going on till age 20.
⢠Growth of the genital tissues accelerates rapidly around the onset of puberty.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Srider Premkumar-Chapter 1-Page10. -
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
What are the disadvantages of autoclaving endodontic instruments?
Correct
ANSWER
It can dull the sharp edges of instrumentsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Advantages of autoclaves
– Destroys microorganisms more efficiently.
– Autoclaving is the most rapid and effective method for sterilizing cloth surgical packs and towel packs.
– Less time consuming
⢠Disadvantages of autoclaves
1. Sensitive – Items sensitive to the elevated temperature cannot be autoclaved.
2. Corrosion – Autoclaving tends to rust carbon steel instruments and burs. Steam appears to corrode the steel neck and shank portions of some diamond instruments and carbide burs.
3. It can dull the sharp edges of instruments – The researchers have predicted that the corrosive effect after autoclaving produced a reduction in the cutting capacity of 20 percent of the instruments tested after seven autoclave cycles.
4. Moisture retention – Instruments must be air-dried at the completion of cycle.REFERENCE
Mosbys review NBDE part 2Incorrect
ANSWER
It can dull the sharp edges of instrumentsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Advantages of autoclaves
– Destroys microorganisms more efficiently.
– Autoclaving is the most rapid and effective method for sterilizing cloth surgical packs and towel packs.
– Less time consuming
⢠Disadvantages of autoclaves
1. Sensitive – Items sensitive to the elevated temperature cannot be autoclaved.
2. Corrosion – Autoclaving tends to rust carbon steel instruments and burs. Steam appears to corrode the steel neck and shank portions of some diamond instruments and carbide burs.
3. It can dull the sharp edges of instruments – The researchers have predicted that the corrosive effect after autoclaving produced a reduction in the cutting capacity of 20 percent of the instruments tested after seven autoclave cycles.
4. Moisture retention – Instruments must be air-dried at the completion of cycle.REFERENCE
Mosbys review NBDE part 2 -
Question 80 of 150
80. Question
The patient came with an RC-treated tooth 26 which was done 2 years ago. Upon X-ray you found a radiolucency with bone resorption along one of the roots and the other two roots are perfectly obturated and without any periapical changes What would be your management?
Correct
ANSWER
Resection of the infected rootOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Calcium hydroxide – Calcium hydroxide is an intracanal medicament used in endodontics.
⢠Currettage – It is scraping off the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket to separate the diseased soft tissue
⢠Re – RCT – It is usually accomplished because the original treatment appears inadequate or has failed or because the root canal has been contaminated by prolonged exposure to the oral environment.SYNOPSIS
⢠Radisectomy is one of the conservative surgical treatment approaches that allows resection of one or more affected roots of the tooth at the level of furcation and preserves the remaining roots and the complete crown structure, thereby maintaining the occlusal harmony.
⢠The tooth is then stabilized and rendered fully functional with a crown or filling.
⢠The multi-root teeth best suited to the root amputation procedure are the molars at the back of the mouth.REFERENCE
Grossman Endodontic practice Pg 412.Incorrect
ANSWER
Resection of the infected rootOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Calcium hydroxide – Calcium hydroxide is an intracanal medicament used in endodontics.
⢠Currettage – It is scraping off the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket to separate the diseased soft tissue
⢠Re – RCT – It is usually accomplished because the original treatment appears inadequate or has failed or because the root canal has been contaminated by prolonged exposure to the oral environment.SYNOPSIS
⢠Radisectomy is one of the conservative surgical treatment approaches that allows resection of one or more affected roots of the tooth at the level of furcation and preserves the remaining roots and the complete crown structure, thereby maintaining the occlusal harmony.
⢠The tooth is then stabilized and rendered fully functional with a crown or filling.
⢠The multi-root teeth best suited to the root amputation procedure are the molars at the back of the mouth.REFERENCE
Grossman Endodontic practice Pg 412. -
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
A 25-year-old patient presents with painless swelling in the mandibular third molar region. On a panoramic radiograph, you observe a well-defined radiolucent lesion surrounding the crown of an unerupted tooth. The cystic space is continuous with the tooth’s follicle. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentigerous cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Radicular cyst – On imaging, they generally appear as a round- or pear-shaped, unilocular, lucent lesion in the periapical region, usually measuring less than 1 cm and are bordered by a thin rim of cortical bone.
⢠OKC – Radiographically, they present as aĀ unilocular or multilocular radiolucent lesion with distinct borders.
⢠Ameloblastoma – Usually multilocular and commonly found in the posterior mandible, particularly at the molar regionSYNOPSIS
⢠A dentigerous cyst is caused by the alteration of reduced enamel epithelium after the completion of amelogenesis, which results in fluid accumulation between epithelium and tooth crown.
⢠Radiographically, Dentigerous cysts often present as a unilocular radiolucent area around the crown of the impacted tooth surrounded by a well-defined sclerotic area.
⢠Large cysts may cause cortical bone expansion.Ā
⢠Surgical treatment of dentigerous cysts usually includes enucleation of the lesion along with the removal of associated teeth.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology 8th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Dentigerous cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Radicular cyst – On imaging, they generally appear as a round- or pear-shaped, unilocular, lucent lesion in the periapical region, usually measuring less than 1 cm and are bordered by a thin rim of cortical bone.
⢠OKC – Radiographically, they present as aĀ unilocular or multilocular radiolucent lesion with distinct borders.
⢠Ameloblastoma – Usually multilocular and commonly found in the posterior mandible, particularly at the molar regionSYNOPSIS
⢠A dentigerous cyst is caused by the alteration of reduced enamel epithelium after the completion of amelogenesis, which results in fluid accumulation between epithelium and tooth crown.
⢠Radiographically, Dentigerous cysts often present as a unilocular radiolucent area around the crown of the impacted tooth surrounded by a well-defined sclerotic area.
⢠Large cysts may cause cortical bone expansion.Ā
⢠Surgical treatment of dentigerous cysts usually includes enucleation of the lesion along with the removal of associated teeth.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology 8th Edition -
Question 82 of 150
82. Question
A 17 year old patient, with prognathic mandible, reports to the dental clinic. The dental surgeon wants to ascertain whether skeletal growth has subsided to adult levels. Which of the following would be the most accurate method to determine whether the growth has stopped or is still continuing?
Correct
ANSWER
Serial cephalometric radiographsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hand wrist radiographs – Hand-wrist radiograph analysis is to determine parameters such as patient’s skeletal age, the amount of growth left and to determine whether to use a functional appliance or to wait until growth ceases and performs extraction or surgery. (but this is mostly used in patients who are between 9 to 13, during the growth spurt period).
⢠Dental maturation status – The dental age method involves the recognition of clinically present teeth with eruption charts. The major limitation of this method is the variation in the timing of eruption, the influence of local and environmental factors, and the fact that several or no teeth may erupt during the same time interval.SYNOPSIS
⢠The original purpose of cephalometrics was research on growth patterns in the craniofacial complex.
⢠Cephalometry can be used to assess a child’s skeletal maturation and growth rate by analyzing the cervical vertebrae in cephalometric radiographs
⢠Cervical vertebral maturation (CVM) method
– This method uses the anatomical structures of the cervical vertebrae to assess skeletal maturation. It can be used as an alternative to other methods for determining skeletal maturation.
Cephalometric analysis
⢠This analysis is based on five points on the face – Nasion (Na), Sella (S), Menton (Me), Go (Gonion), and Articulare (Ar). These points are used to study the facial height relationships and predict the growth pattern in the lower half of the face.
⢠Cephalometric radiographs can be used to assess skeletal maturation without the need for additional hand-wrist radiographs, which can reduce radiation exposure.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2Nd-Edition.Chapter 18-Page 209.
Systemic Review-Validity of the assessment method of skeletal maturation by cervical vertebrae- a systemic review and meta-analysis-Cercato-Dentomaxillofacial Radiology 2015.Incorrect
ANSWER
Serial cephalometric radiographsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hand wrist radiographs – Hand-wrist radiograph analysis is to determine parameters such as patient’s skeletal age, the amount of growth left and to determine whether to use a functional appliance or to wait until growth ceases and performs extraction or surgery. (but this is mostly used in patients who are between 9 to 13, during the growth spurt period).
⢠Dental maturation status – The dental age method involves the recognition of clinically present teeth with eruption charts. The major limitation of this method is the variation in the timing of eruption, the influence of local and environmental factors, and the fact that several or no teeth may erupt during the same time interval.SYNOPSIS
⢠The original purpose of cephalometrics was research on growth patterns in the craniofacial complex.
⢠Cephalometry can be used to assess a child’s skeletal maturation and growth rate by analyzing the cervical vertebrae in cephalometric radiographs
⢠Cervical vertebral maturation (CVM) method
– This method uses the anatomical structures of the cervical vertebrae to assess skeletal maturation. It can be used as an alternative to other methods for determining skeletal maturation.
Cephalometric analysis
⢠This analysis is based on five points on the face – Nasion (Na), Sella (S), Menton (Me), Go (Gonion), and Articulare (Ar). These points are used to study the facial height relationships and predict the growth pattern in the lower half of the face.
⢠Cephalometric radiographs can be used to assess skeletal maturation without the need for additional hand-wrist radiographs, which can reduce radiation exposure.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2Nd-Edition.Chapter 18-Page 209.
Systemic Review-Validity of the assessment method of skeletal maturation by cervical vertebrae- a systemic review and meta-analysis-Cercato-Dentomaxillofacial Radiology 2015. -
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
What is amount of force required to produce tipping in orthodontic movements?
Correct
ANSWER
50 gmOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Tipping is the simplest type of tooth movement where a single force is applied to the crown, which results in movement of crown in the direction of force and root in opposite direction.
⢠It is simplest among tooth movements.
⢠Controlled tipping occurs when tooth tips about a centre of rotation at its apex.
⢠Uncontrolled tipping is when tooth movement occurs about a centre of rotation apical and very close to centre of resistance.
⢠A 50 gm force directed lingually and perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth produced 0.17152 N per mm2 compressive stress at the cervical margin on the lingual side and tensile stresses 0.024357 N per mm2 at the cervical margin on the labial surface.REFERENCE
Orthodontic Force Distribution – A Three dimensional Finite Element Analysis by Hemanth M and Siddharth D Lodaya.Incorrect
ANSWER
50 gmOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Tipping is the simplest type of tooth movement where a single force is applied to the crown, which results in movement of crown in the direction of force and root in opposite direction.
⢠It is simplest among tooth movements.
⢠Controlled tipping occurs when tooth tips about a centre of rotation at its apex.
⢠Uncontrolled tipping is when tooth movement occurs about a centre of rotation apical and very close to centre of resistance.
⢠A 50 gm force directed lingually and perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth produced 0.17152 N per mm2 compressive stress at the cervical margin on the lingual side and tensile stresses 0.024357 N per mm2 at the cervical margin on the labial surface.REFERENCE
Orthodontic Force Distribution – A Three dimensional Finite Element Analysis by Hemanth M and Siddharth D Lodaya. -
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
Which is among the following is more common site of mandibular fracture in adults?
Correct
ANSWER
AngleOTHER OPTIONS
Refer synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Mandibular fractures occurs mainly due to trauma.
⢠The most common sites for the mandible to fracture are the condyle, the angle and the symphysis.
⢠Condylar fracture is the most common site of fracture which accounts for around 29.1 percent.
⢠Angle fracture is seen in around 24.5 percent people followed by symphysis fracture seen in around 22 percent individuals.
⢠Body fracture is seen in 16 percent, alveolar fracture in 3.1 percent and coronoid fracture is seen in 1.3 percent individuals.
⢠1.7 percent people might show ramus fracture.REFERENCE
Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery St. Louis, Mosby, 2013 – 6th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
AngleOTHER OPTIONS
Refer synopsis.SYNOPSIS
⢠Mandibular fractures occurs mainly due to trauma.
⢠The most common sites for the mandible to fracture are the condyle, the angle and the symphysis.
⢠Condylar fracture is the most common site of fracture which accounts for around 29.1 percent.
⢠Angle fracture is seen in around 24.5 percent people followed by symphysis fracture seen in around 22 percent individuals.
⢠Body fracture is seen in 16 percent, alveolar fracture in 3.1 percent and coronoid fracture is seen in 1.3 percent individuals.
⢠1.7 percent people might show ramus fracture.REFERENCE
Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery St. Louis, Mosby, 2013 – 6th Edition. -
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
Which among the following appliance is used for immobilization of fragments of broken parts of jaw bones in their original position until repair takes place?
Correct
ANSWER
SplintsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Obturators – The obturators are prostheses used to close palatal defects after maxillectomy, to restore masticatory function, and to improve speech.
⢠Speech aids – Speech aids are a means of helping people to communicate when they have severe difficulties with speech and language.SYNOPSIS
⢠A splint is a rigid or flexible device-aid used to support, protect, and immobilize teeth that have been weakened (endodontically or periodontally), traumatized, replanted, or fractured.
⢠Splints are categorized as
⢠Rigid splints,Nonrigid-semirigid-flexible splints.
⢠Types of rigid and semirigid splints.
⢠Rigid splints – Suture splints, Arch bar splints, Acrylic splints, Composite splints.
⢠Semirigid splints – Orthodontic brackets and arches, Wire and composite splints.REFERENCE
The Basics of Splinting in Dentoalveolar Traumatology-By Naida Hadziabdic- Maxillofacial Surgery and Craniofacial Deformity – Practices and Updates.2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
SplintsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Obturators – The obturators are prostheses used to close palatal defects after maxillectomy, to restore masticatory function, and to improve speech.
⢠Speech aids – Speech aids are a means of helping people to communicate when they have severe difficulties with speech and language.SYNOPSIS
⢠A splint is a rigid or flexible device-aid used to support, protect, and immobilize teeth that have been weakened (endodontically or periodontally), traumatized, replanted, or fractured.
⢠Splints are categorized as
⢠Rigid splints,Nonrigid-semirigid-flexible splints.
⢠Types of rigid and semirigid splints.
⢠Rigid splints – Suture splints, Arch bar splints, Acrylic splints, Composite splints.
⢠Semirigid splints – Orthodontic brackets and arches, Wire and composite splints.REFERENCE
The Basics of Splinting in Dentoalveolar Traumatology-By Naida Hadziabdic- Maxillofacial Surgery and Craniofacial Deformity – Practices and Updates.2019. -
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
Why is z plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment?
Correct
ANSWER
Less scar contractionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Z-plasty is a plastic surgery technique used to improve the functional and cosmetic appearance of scars.
⢠This technique is indicated when there is hypertrophy of the frenum with a low insertion, which is associated with an inter-incisor diastema, and when the lateral incisors have appeared without causing the diastema to disappear and also in cases of a short vestibule.
⢠With this technique, it is possible to redirect a scar into better alignment with a natural skin fold or the lines of least skin tension.REFERENCE
Labial Frenectomy through Z Plasty-Aparna Agarwal, Rahul Kapahi-Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research. 2012Incorrect
ANSWER
Less scar contractionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Z-plasty is a plastic surgery technique used to improve the functional and cosmetic appearance of scars.
⢠This technique is indicated when there is hypertrophy of the frenum with a low insertion, which is associated with an inter-incisor diastema, and when the lateral incisors have appeared without causing the diastema to disappear and also in cases of a short vestibule.
⢠With this technique, it is possible to redirect a scar into better alignment with a natural skin fold or the lines of least skin tension.REFERENCE
Labial Frenectomy through Z Plasty-Aparna Agarwal, Rahul Kapahi-Journal of Clinical and Diagnostic Research. 2012 -
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is mediated predominantly by?
Correct
ANSWER
IgE antibodiesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠IgG or IgM antibodies – Type II is caused by cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies.
⢠Immune complex mediated – Type III is reaction mediated by immune complexes.
⢠Cell mediated – Type IV is delayed reaction mediated by cellular response.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypersensitivity is immune and inflammatory responses that are harmful to the host.
⢠Type 1 hypersensitivity is IgE mediated.
⢠Antigen induces cross linking of IgE bound to mast cells and basophils with release of vasoactive mediators.
⢠It occurs immediately after contact with allergens or antigens.
⢠Response to the antigen occurs in two stages – the sensitization and the effect stage.
⢠In the sensitization stage, the host experiences an asymptomatic contact with the antigen.
⢠Subsequently, in the effect period, the pre-sensitized host is reintroduced to the antigen, which then leads to a type I anaphylactic or atopic immune response.
⢠Typical manifestations include systemic anaphylaxis, localized anaphylaxis such as hay fever, asthma, hives, food allergies and eczema.REFERENCE
Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction by National Library of Medicine.Incorrect
ANSWER
IgE antibodiesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠IgG or IgM antibodies – Type II is caused by cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies.
⢠Immune complex mediated – Type III is reaction mediated by immune complexes.
⢠Cell mediated – Type IV is delayed reaction mediated by cellular response.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypersensitivity is immune and inflammatory responses that are harmful to the host.
⢠Type 1 hypersensitivity is IgE mediated.
⢠Antigen induces cross linking of IgE bound to mast cells and basophils with release of vasoactive mediators.
⢠It occurs immediately after contact with allergens or antigens.
⢠Response to the antigen occurs in two stages – the sensitization and the effect stage.
⢠In the sensitization stage, the host experiences an asymptomatic contact with the antigen.
⢠Subsequently, in the effect period, the pre-sensitized host is reintroduced to the antigen, which then leads to a type I anaphylactic or atopic immune response.
⢠Typical manifestations include systemic anaphylaxis, localized anaphylaxis such as hay fever, asthma, hives, food allergies and eczema.REFERENCE
Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction by National Library of Medicine. -
Question 88 of 150
88. Question
A 14-year-old boy visits the orthodontic clinic for an evaluation of his bite and jaw alignment. Cephalometric analysis is performed, and the SNB (Sella-Nasion-B point) angle is measured to be 72°. The orthodontist notes that the patient has a retruded mandible in relation to the cranial base. Based on the SNB angle measurement, which of the following conditions is most likely present in this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Mandibular retrognathismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The SNB angle is used to assess the anteroposterior position of the mandible in relation to the cranial base.
⢠A normal SNB angle typically ranges from 78° to 82°.
⢠An SNB angle less than 78° indicates mandibular retrognathism, meaning the mandible is positioned posteriorly relative to the cranial base.
⢠An SNB angle greater than 82° suggests mandibular prognathism, which is seen in Class III malocclusion.
⢠In this case, the SNB angle of 72° indicates mandibular retrusion, consistent with Class II skeletal pattern.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
Mandibular retrognathismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The SNB angle is used to assess the anteroposterior position of the mandible in relation to the cranial base.
⢠A normal SNB angle typically ranges from 78° to 82°.
⢠An SNB angle less than 78° indicates mandibular retrognathism, meaning the mandible is positioned posteriorly relative to the cranial base.
⢠An SNB angle greater than 82° suggests mandibular prognathism, which is seen in Class III malocclusion.
⢠In this case, the SNB angle of 72° indicates mandibular retrusion, consistent with Class II skeletal pattern.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2018. -
Question 89 of 150
89. Question

A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric dental clinic by his parents with complaints of fever, sore throat, and painful ulcers in the mouth. The parents report that the child has had a mild fever for the past two days and is refusing to eat due to pain. On intraoral examination, multiple small vesicular lesions and ulcers are observed on the soft palate and posterior pharyngeal wall. The child does not have gingival involvement, and no extraoral skin lesions are noted.What is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical presentation?
Correct
ANSWER
HerpanginaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease – Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease (caused by Coxsackievirus A16) presents with oral ulcers along with vesicular eruptions on the hands and feet, which are absent in this case.
⢠Streptococcal pharyngitis – Streptococcal pharyngitis causes a sore throat and fever, but it is associated with erythema, exudates, and swollen tonsils, without vesicular lesions.SYNOPSIS
⢠Herpangina is an acute viral infection caused primarily by Coxsackievirus A and sometimes Coxsackievirus B.
⢠It presents with sudden onset of fever, sore throat, dysphagia, and multiple vesicular lesions on the soft palate, tonsillar pillars, and posterior pharynx.
⢠Unlike primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, herpangina does not involve the gingiva or lips.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
HerpanginaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease – Hand-Foot-Mouth Disease (caused by Coxsackievirus A16) presents with oral ulcers along with vesicular eruptions on the hands and feet, which are absent in this case.
⢠Streptococcal pharyngitis – Streptococcal pharyngitis causes a sore throat and fever, but it is associated with erythema, exudates, and swollen tonsils, without vesicular lesions.SYNOPSIS
⢠Herpangina is an acute viral infection caused primarily by Coxsackievirus A and sometimes Coxsackievirus B.
⢠It presents with sudden onset of fever, sore throat, dysphagia, and multiple vesicular lesions on the soft palate, tonsillar pillars, and posterior pharynx.
⢠Unlike primary herpetic gingivostomatitis, herpangina does not involve the gingiva or lips.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016. -
Question 90 of 150
90. Question

A 45-year-old female patient presents to the dental clinic with complaints of burning sensation and pain in her gums for the past several months. She reports that her gums bleed easily while brushing. On clinical examination, diffuse erythema and peeling of the gingival epithelium are observed, along with ulcerations in some areas suggestive of desqiamative gingivitis. No significant plaque or calculus buildup is noted. A Nikolsky sign is positive.What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Pemphigus vulgarisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Oral Lichen Planus – Oral lichen planus (OLP) can also present with desquamative gingivitis, but it typically shows Wickhamās striae (reticular pattern) and has a negative Nikolsky sign.
⢠Erythema multiformae – Erythema multiforme is an acute condition with target lesions on the skin and widespread mucosal ulcerations, which are not seen in this case.
⢠Chronic Periodontitis – Chronic periodontitis is associated with plaque, calculus, and bone loss, which are not prominent features here.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis (DG) is a clinical term describing chronic erythema, ulceration, and peeling of the gingival epithelium.
⢠The most common causes of DG are mucocutaneous autoimmune disorders, including pemphigus vulgaris, mucous membrane pemphigoid, and oral lichen planus.
⢠Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins (desmoglein 1 and 3), leading to intraepithelial blistering.
⢠A positive Nikolsky sign (shearing of the epithelium upon slight pressure) strongly suggests pemphigus vulgaris.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
Pemphigus vulgarisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Oral Lichen Planus – Oral lichen planus (OLP) can also present with desquamative gingivitis, but it typically shows Wickhamās striae (reticular pattern) and has a negative Nikolsky sign.
⢠Erythema multiformae – Erythema multiforme is an acute condition with target lesions on the skin and widespread mucosal ulcerations, which are not seen in this case.
⢠Chronic Periodontitis – Chronic periodontitis is associated with plaque, calculus, and bone loss, which are not prominent features here.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis (DG) is a clinical term describing chronic erythema, ulceration, and peeling of the gingival epithelium.
⢠The most common causes of DG are mucocutaneous autoimmune disorders, including pemphigus vulgaris, mucous membrane pemphigoid, and oral lichen planus.
⢠Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins (desmoglein 1 and 3), leading to intraepithelial blistering.
⢠A positive Nikolsky sign (shearing of the epithelium upon slight pressure) strongly suggests pemphigus vulgaris.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016. -
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
What is the recommended chair position for a 2-year-old child during a dental examination?
Correct
ANSWER
Knee to Knee positionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The knee-to-knee position is commonly used for infants and toddlers to allow better visualization and control while the caregiver holds the child.REFERENCE
Cameron AC, Widmer RP. Handbook of Pediatric Dentistry. 5th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Knee to Knee positionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The knee-to-knee position is commonly used for infants and toddlers to allow better visualization and control while the caregiver holds the child.REFERENCE
Cameron AC, Widmer RP. Handbook of Pediatric Dentistry. 5th ed. -
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
A 60-year-old male patient undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease presents with a complaint of spontaneous pain in a mandibular molar. The dentist determines that endodontic treatment (RCT) is required. The patient is on anticoagulants and attends dialysis sessions on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday.What is the most appropriate timing for scheduling the root canal treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
The day before the next scheduled hemodialysis sessionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Hemodialysis patients have an increased risk of bleeding due to heparinization during dialysis.
⢠The best time for elective dental procedures (including RCT) is on a non-dialysis day, preferably the day before dialysis, so that any systemic complications or drug clearance issues can be managed effectively.
⢠Performing treatment on the same day after dialysis risks prolonged bleeding due to the residual anticoagulant effect.
⢠Dialysis on the same day is not ideal because the patient may experience complications, and any systemic absorption of medications will be altered by dialysisREFERENCE
Little JW, Miller CS, Rhodus NL. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient. 9th ed. Elsevier; 2017.Incorrect
ANSWER
The day before the next scheduled hemodialysis sessionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Hemodialysis patients have an increased risk of bleeding due to heparinization during dialysis.
⢠The best time for elective dental procedures (including RCT) is on a non-dialysis day, preferably the day before dialysis, so that any systemic complications or drug clearance issues can be managed effectively.
⢠Performing treatment on the same day after dialysis risks prolonged bleeding due to the residual anticoagulant effect.
⢠Dialysis on the same day is not ideal because the patient may experience complications, and any systemic absorption of medications will be altered by dialysisREFERENCE
Little JW, Miller CS, Rhodus NL. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient. 9th ed. Elsevier; 2017. -
Question 93 of 150
93. Question
A 14-year-old patient presents with a painless swelling in the anterior maxilla. A radiographic examination shows multiple tooth-like structures enclosed within a radiolucent capsule. The lesion is well-circumscribed and does not show significant cortical expansion. What is the best treatment approach for this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Surgical excision and biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Compound odontoma is a benign odontogenic tumor consisting of multiple small tooth-like structures.
⢠It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on radiographs.
⢠Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not needed, as odontomas are benign.
⢠Root canal treatment is not necessary unless adjacent teeth are affectedREFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016.Incorrect
ANSWER
Surgical excision and biopsyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Compound odontoma is a benign odontogenic tumor consisting of multiple small tooth-like structures.
⢠It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on radiographs.
⢠Chemotherapy and radiotherapy are not needed, as odontomas are benign.
⢠Root canal treatment is not necessary unless adjacent teeth are affectedREFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016. -
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
A 35-year-old male presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A lymph node biopsy is performed, and Reed-Sternberg cells are identified on histopathological examination. Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with these findings?
Correct
ANSWER
Hodgkinās lymphomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Non-Hodgkinās lymphoma – NHL does not characteristically show Reed-Sternberg cells.
⢠Burkittās lymphoma – It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and presents with aggressive jaw involvement in endemic cases.
⢠Multiple myeloma involves plasma cells and does not exhibit Reed-Sternberg cells.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are large binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli, classically seen in Hodgkinās lymphoma (HL).
⢠HL typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats.REFERENCE
Kumar V, Abbas AK, Aster JC. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 10th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
Hodgkinās lymphomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Non-Hodgkinās lymphoma – NHL does not characteristically show Reed-Sternberg cells.
⢠Burkittās lymphoma – It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and presents with aggressive jaw involvement in endemic cases.
⢠Multiple myeloma involves plasma cells and does not exhibit Reed-Sternberg cells.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are large binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli, classically seen in Hodgkinās lymphoma (HL).
⢠HL typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats.REFERENCE
Kumar V, Abbas AK, Aster JC. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 10th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
A 30-year-old patient complains of sharp pain in a maxillary premolar triggered by cold beverages, which subsides immediately after the stimulus is removed. There is no spontaneous pain, and the tooth is vital with no evidence of periapical pathology on radiographs.What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Removal of the causative factor and placement of a permanent restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Direct pulp capping – It is only indicated if there is a small pulp exposure.
⢠Root canal therapy – It is unnecessary unless the pulp becomes irreversibly damaged.
⢠Extraction – It is not required for a restorable tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reversible pulpitis is a mild inflammation of the pulp that occurs due to caries, exposed dentin, or recent dental work.
⢠The pain is short-lasting and stimulus-dependent.
⢠Treatment involves eliminating the irritant (e.g., caries removal, placing a restoration, or desensitizing agents if due to exposed dentin).REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
Removal of the causative factor and placement of a permanent restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Direct pulp capping – It is only indicated if there is a small pulp exposure.
⢠Root canal therapy – It is unnecessary unless the pulp becomes irreversibly damaged.
⢠Extraction – It is not required for a restorable tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reversible pulpitis is a mild inflammation of the pulp that occurs due to caries, exposed dentin, or recent dental work.
⢠The pain is short-lasting and stimulus-dependent.
⢠Treatment involves eliminating the irritant (e.g., caries removal, placing a restoration, or desensitizing agents if due to exposed dentin).REFERENCE
Hargreaves KM, Berman LH. Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp. 12th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 96 of 150
96. Question

A 60-year-old female presents with a painful ulcer on the palate that appeared suddenly a few days ago. She reports a history of minor trauma from a hot beverage before the lesion developed. The ulcer is well-defined, with punched-out borders and an erythematous base. No signs of bone exposure or malignancy are noted. The patient is otherwise healthy, and there is no history of tobacco or alcohol use.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Necrotizing sialometaplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Aphthous ulcer – Aphthous ulcers are typically smaller, more superficial, and located on non-keratinized mucosa.
⢠Primary Syphilitic chancre – Primary syphilitic chancres present as painless ulcers with a clean base, unlike the painful presentation of NS.SYNOPSIS
⢠Necrotizing sialometaplasia (NS) is a self-limiting, benign inflammatory condition of the minor salivary glands, often misdiagnosed as malignancy due to its ulcerative appearance.
⢠It frequently occurs on the posterior hard palate, typically after ischemic injury (e.g., trauma, local anesthesia, or thermal injury).
⢠Unlike squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), NS heals spontaneously within 6-8 weeks without requiring surgical intervention.REFERENCE
Greenberg MS, Glick M, Ship JA. Burketās Oral Medicine. 12th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Necrotizing sialometaplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Aphthous ulcer – Aphthous ulcers are typically smaller, more superficial, and located on non-keratinized mucosa.
⢠Primary Syphilitic chancre – Primary syphilitic chancres present as painless ulcers with a clean base, unlike the painful presentation of NS.SYNOPSIS
⢠Necrotizing sialometaplasia (NS) is a self-limiting, benign inflammatory condition of the minor salivary glands, often misdiagnosed as malignancy due to its ulcerative appearance.
⢠It frequently occurs on the posterior hard palate, typically after ischemic injury (e.g., trauma, local anesthesia, or thermal injury).
⢠Unlike squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), NS heals spontaneously within 6-8 weeks without requiring surgical intervention.REFERENCE
Greenberg MS, Glick M, Ship JA. Burketās Oral Medicine. 12th ed. -
Question 97 of 150
97. Question
A 22-year-old male presents with a painless, bluish, dome-shaped swelling on the lower lip. The lesion is soft, fluctuant, and has been recurrent for the past two months. The patient recalls that the swelling appeared after accidentally biting his lip. On examination, the lesion is approximately 6 mm in diameter, with no signs of infection or tenderness.What is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Surgical excision along with removal of the associated minor salivary glandOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Incision and drainage – Simple incision and drainage is ineffective because it does not remove the source of mucous accumulation.
⢠Corticosteroids – Corticosteroids are not indicated, as the lesion is not inflammatory or immune-mediatedSYNOPSIS
⢠Mucocele is a salivary gland disorder caused by the rupture of a minor salivary gland duct, leading to mucous extravasation into the surrounding tissues.
⢠Common sites include the lower lip, followed by the buccal mucosa and floor of the mouth (ranula).
⢠Small mucoceles may resolve spontaneously, but recurrent or persistent lesions require surgical excision.
⢠The best approach is surgical excision with removal of the involved minor salivary gland lobules to prevent recurrence.REFERENCE
Greenberg MS, Glick M, Ship JA. Burketās Oral Medicine. 12th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Surgical excision along with removal of the associated minor salivary glandOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Incision and drainage – Simple incision and drainage is ineffective because it does not remove the source of mucous accumulation.
⢠Corticosteroids – Corticosteroids are not indicated, as the lesion is not inflammatory or immune-mediatedSYNOPSIS
⢠Mucocele is a salivary gland disorder caused by the rupture of a minor salivary gland duct, leading to mucous extravasation into the surrounding tissues.
⢠Common sites include the lower lip, followed by the buccal mucosa and floor of the mouth (ranula).
⢠Small mucoceles may resolve spontaneously, but recurrent or persistent lesions require surgical excision.
⢠The best approach is surgical excision with removal of the involved minor salivary gland lobules to prevent recurrence.REFERENCE
Greenberg MS, Glick M, Ship JA. Burketās Oral Medicine. 12th ed. -
Question 98 of 150
98. Question
A 60 kg adult patient requires local anesthesia for an extraction procedure. The dentist decides to use 2% Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. What is the maximum number of cartridges that can be safely administered to this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
10OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The maximum allowable dose = MRD x weight of the patient
= 7×60
= 420mg
⢠Amount of lidocaine in 1 catridge = 1 catridge contains 1.8ml LA
⢠1ml contains 20mg lidocaine, so 1.8ml contains 36mg
⢠Now, no of catridges =420/36 =11.6. Here nearest value is 10REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
10OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The maximum allowable dose = MRD x weight of the patient
= 7×60
= 420mg
⢠Amount of lidocaine in 1 catridge = 1 catridge contains 1.8ml LA
⢠1ml contains 20mg lidocaine, so 1.8ml contains 36mg
⢠Now, no of catridges =420/36 =11.6. Here nearest value is 10REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 99 of 150
99. Question
A 5-year-old child weighing 20 kg requires local anesthesia for a restorative dental procedure. The dentist plans to use 2% Lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine.What is the maximum number of cartridges that can be safely administered to this child?
Correct
ANSWER
2OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠MRD of Lidocaine for children = 4.4 mg/kg
⢠For a 20 kg child – 20Ć4.4=88Ā mgĀ
⢠2% Lidocaine = 20 mg/mL
⢠Each cartridge (1.8 mL) contains, 20Ć1.8=36Ā mgĀ ofĀ Lidocaine
⢠No of catridge = 88/36 = 2.4 catridgesREFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
2OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠MRD of Lidocaine for children = 4.4 mg/kg
⢠For a 20 kg child – 20Ć4.4=88Ā mgĀ
⢠2% Lidocaine = 20 mg/mL
⢠Each cartridge (1.8 mL) contains, 20Ć1.8=36Ā mgĀ ofĀ Lidocaine
⢠No of catridge = 88/36 = 2.4 catridgesREFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
A 45-year-old male presents with tooth mobility, wear facets, and localized gingival recession. He reports pain on biting and sensitivity in certain teeth. Clinical examination reveals premature contacts and fremitus in the anterior region. Radiographic evaluation shows widening of the periodontal ligament (PDL) space without significant bone loss.When does an occlusion become traumatic?
Correct
ANSWER
When there is excessive force on a tooth exceeding its adaptive capacityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic occlusion occurs when excessive occlusal forces exceed the toothās adaptive capacity, leading to damage to the periodontium.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive force is applied to a tooth with a normal periodontium.
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when normal occlusal forces cause damage due to a weakened periodontium (e.g., due to periodontitis).
⢠Clinical Signs of Traumatic Occlusion:
Increased tooth mobility
Widening of the PDL space
Fremitus (vibration of teeth during occlusion)
Tooth migration and abfraction lesionsREFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
When there is excessive force on a tooth exceeding its adaptive capacityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic occlusion occurs when excessive occlusal forces exceed the toothās adaptive capacity, leading to damage to the periodontium.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive force is applied to a tooth with a normal periodontium.
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when normal occlusal forces cause damage due to a weakened periodontium (e.g., due to periodontitis).
⢠Clinical Signs of Traumatic Occlusion:
Increased tooth mobility
Widening of the PDL space
Fremitus (vibration of teeth during occlusion)
Tooth migration and abfraction lesionsREFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed. -
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
A 14-year-old male presents with a long face, increased lower facial height, and open bite. Clinical examination reveals
– Steep mandibular plane angle
– Increased anterior facial height
– Posterior teeth overeruption
– Skeletal Class II malocclusion with clockwise mandibular rotation
The orthodontist decides to use an appliance to control vertical growth and improve mandibular positioning.Which appliance is most suitable for managing this patientās hyperdivergent mandible?Correct
ANSWER
High pull headgearOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Twin Block appliance – Twin Block Appliance is used for Class II malocclusion correction but does not effectively control vertical growth.
⢠Herbst appliance – Herbst Appliance is primarily used to advance the mandible in Class II cases but does not control vertical facial height.
⢠Frankel II Appliance – It is a functional regulator for Class II malocclusion, but it does not specifically address vertical growth control.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hyperdivergent mandible (skeletal open bite) is characterized by excessive vertical growth of the face, often due to overeruption of molars and clockwise rotation of the mandible.
⢠The goal of treatment is to control vertical maxillary growth, restrict molar eruption, and reduce mandibular clockwise rotation.
⢠High-Pull Headgear applies an upward and backward force on the maxilla, limiting downward growth and controlling the occlusal plane.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson BE, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
High pull headgearOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Twin Block appliance – Twin Block Appliance is used for Class II malocclusion correction but does not effectively control vertical growth.
⢠Herbst appliance – Herbst Appliance is primarily used to advance the mandible in Class II cases but does not control vertical facial height.
⢠Frankel II Appliance – It is a functional regulator for Class II malocclusion, but it does not specifically address vertical growth control.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hyperdivergent mandible (skeletal open bite) is characterized by excessive vertical growth of the face, often due to overeruption of molars and clockwise rotation of the mandible.
⢠The goal of treatment is to control vertical maxillary growth, restrict molar eruption, and reduce mandibular clockwise rotation.
⢠High-Pull Headgear applies an upward and backward force on the maxilla, limiting downward growth and controlling the occlusal plane.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson BE, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2018. -
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
A dentist is setting up a new dental clinic and wants to ensure that it meets all essential functional requirements. The clinic should be designed for efficient patient management, proper sterilization, and ergonomic workflow. Which of the following are the three essential components of a well-equipped dental clinic?
Correct
ANSWER
Reception and waiting area, treatment area, and sterilization zoneOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A well-planned dental clinic must ensure proper patient care, infection control, and efficiency. The three essential components are
⢠Reception and Waiting Area:
– First point of contact for patients.
– Should be comfortable and welcoming.
– Includes administrative support, appointment scheduling, and patient records.
⢠Treatment Area (Operatory)
– Equipped with dental chair, instruments, and diagnostic tools.
– Should be ergonomically designed for dentist and assistant workflow.
– Proper lighting and ventilation are essential.
Sterilization Zone
– Dedicated area for cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing instruments.
– Must follow infection control protocols (e.g., autoclave, ultrasonic cleaner).REFERENCE
Miller CH, Palenik CJ. Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2017.Incorrect
ANSWER
Reception and waiting area, treatment area, and sterilization zoneOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠A well-planned dental clinic must ensure proper patient care, infection control, and efficiency. The three essential components are
⢠Reception and Waiting Area:
– First point of contact for patients.
– Should be comfortable and welcoming.
– Includes administrative support, appointment scheduling, and patient records.
⢠Treatment Area (Operatory)
– Equipped with dental chair, instruments, and diagnostic tools.
– Should be ergonomically designed for dentist and assistant workflow.
– Proper lighting and ventilation are essential.
Sterilization Zone
– Dedicated area for cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing instruments.
– Must follow infection control protocols (e.g., autoclave, ultrasonic cleaner).REFERENCE
Miller CH, Palenik CJ. Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2017. -
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
Who is the most important person in a dental clinic?
Correct
ANSWER
The patientOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The patient is the central focus of any healthcare practice, including dentistry.
⢠The primary goal of a dental clinic is to provide safe, effective, and ethical dental care to patients.
⢠While the dentist, dental assistant, and front office assistant are essential team members, their roles exist to serve the needs of the patient.
⢠Patient-centered care emphasizes respect for patient autonomy, safety, and satisfaction.REFERENCE
Ozar DT, Sokol DJ. Dental Ethics at Chairside: Professional Principles and Practical Applications. 3rd ed. Georgetown University Press; 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
The patientOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The patient is the central focus of any healthcare practice, including dentistry.
⢠The primary goal of a dental clinic is to provide safe, effective, and ethical dental care to patients.
⢠While the dentist, dental assistant, and front office assistant are essential team members, their roles exist to serve the needs of the patient.
⢠Patient-centered care emphasizes respect for patient autonomy, safety, and satisfaction.REFERENCE
Ozar DT, Sokol DJ. Dental Ethics at Chairside: Professional Principles and Practical Applications. 3rd ed. Georgetown University Press; 2018. -
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
A 45-year-old male patient presents to the dental clinic with complaints of fluid leakage from the nose while drinking, along with a whistling sound from the upper jaw. The patient underwent extraction of the upper first molar two weeks ago. Clinical examination reveals a 2 mm communication between the oral cavity and maxillary sinus. What is the best initial management approach for this patientās 2 mm oroantral fistula?
Correct
ANSWER
Observe and allow spontaneous healingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Buccal Advancement Flap – Suitable for larger (greater than 5 mm) or non-healing OAFs.
⢠Palatal Flap Closure – Used for recurrent or large defects, not primary management for small OAFs.
⢠Bone Graft Placement – Used in large bony defects or pre-implant surgeries, not required for a small OAF.SYNOPSIS
⢠Oroantral fistula (OAF) is an abnormal communication between the oral cavity and maxillary sinus, commonly occurring after extraction of maxillary posterior teeth.
⢠Small fistulas (<2ā3 mm) often close spontaneously within a few weeks due to natural healing of the sinus membrane.
⢠For a 2 mm OAF, initial management includes:
- Avoiding nose blowing (to prevent pressure buildup).
- Antibiotic therapy (if needed) to prevent sinus infection.
- Observation for spontaneous closure within 4-6 weeks.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Observe and allow spontaneous healingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Buccal Advancement Flap – Suitable for larger (greater than 5 mm) or non-healing OAFs.
⢠Palatal Flap Closure – Used for recurrent or large defects, not primary management for small OAFs.
⢠Bone Graft Placement – Used in large bony defects or pre-implant surgeries, not required for a small OAF.SYNOPSIS
⢠Oroantral fistula (OAF) is an abnormal communication between the oral cavity and maxillary sinus, commonly occurring after extraction of maxillary posterior teeth.
⢠Small fistulas (<2ā3 mm) often close spontaneously within a few weeks due to natural healing of the sinus membrane.
⢠For a 2 mm OAF, initial management includes:
- Avoiding nose blowing (to prevent pressure buildup).
- Antibiotic therapy (if needed) to prevent sinus infection.
- Observation for spontaneous closure within 4-6 weeks.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2019. -
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
A 65-year-old male patient on low-dose aspirin (75 mg/day) for cardiovascular disease presents with multiple missing teeth and requests a fixed prosthesis. He has well-controlled systemic health, no history of excessive bleeding, and adequate bone volume for implant placement.What is the most suitable prosthetic option for this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Implant-supported prosthesisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠RPD – Suitable but less stable and less preferred for long-term function.
⢠FPD – Requires preparation of adjacent teeth, which is not ideal when implants are possible.SYNOPSIS
⢠Aspirin (75 mg/day) is a low-dose antiplatelet therapy commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions.
⢠Studies suggest that aspirin does not significantly increase bleeding risk in minor oral surgical procedures, including implant placement (Malik et al., J Oral Maxillofac Surg, 2018).
⢠An implant-supported prosthesis offers:
Better function and aesthetics compared to removable options.
Prevention of bone resorption due to osseointegration.
No need to prepare adjacent teeth, unlike an FPD.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
Implant-supported prosthesisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠RPD – Suitable but less stable and less preferred for long-term function.
⢠FPD – Requires preparation of adjacent teeth, which is not ideal when implants are possible.SYNOPSIS
⢠Aspirin (75 mg/day) is a low-dose antiplatelet therapy commonly prescribed for cardiovascular conditions.
⢠Studies suggest that aspirin does not significantly increase bleeding risk in minor oral surgical procedures, including implant placement (Malik et al., J Oral Maxillofac Surg, 2018).
⢠An implant-supported prosthesis offers:
Better function and aesthetics compared to removable options.
Prevention of bone resorption due to osseointegration.
No need to prepare adjacent teeth, unlike an FPD.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia. 7th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
A 50-year-old patient presents with missing maxillary first premolar (14) and second molar (17). The patient prefers a fixed partial denture (FPD) instead of implants. Clinical examination shows healthy abutment teeth (13 and 16), normal occlusion, and adequate interocclusal space.What special consideration should be given while fabricating this long-span FPD?
Correct
ANSWER
Use a non-rigid connector (precision attachment) between 15 and 16OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cantilever Design – A single abutment (13 alone) cannot support a long-span FPD, leading to excessive stress and failure.
⢠Double Abutments – Using 18 as an abutment is risky due to its variable root morphology and increased stress on the distal segment.
⢠Increasing Occlusal Table Width – Wider occlusal tables increase occlusal forces, leading to higher torque on abutments and failure riskSYNOPSIS
⢠A long-span FPD replacing 14 and 17 places high stress on the abutments (13 and 16) due to differential movement and bending forces.
⢠A non-rigid connector (precision attachment) between 15 and 16 allows independent movement of anterior and posterior segments, reducing stress concentration.
⢠This design prevents debonding or fracture of the prosthesis by allowing a slight flexing motion.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2022.Incorrect
ANSWER
Use a non-rigid connector (precision attachment) between 15 and 16OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cantilever Design – A single abutment (13 alone) cannot support a long-span FPD, leading to excessive stress and failure.
⢠Double Abutments – Using 18 as an abutment is risky due to its variable root morphology and increased stress on the distal segment.
⢠Increasing Occlusal Table Width – Wider occlusal tables increase occlusal forces, leading to higher torque on abutments and failure riskSYNOPSIS
⢠A long-span FPD replacing 14 and 17 places high stress on the abutments (13 and 16) due to differential movement and bending forces.
⢠A non-rigid connector (precision attachment) between 15 and 16 allows independent movement of anterior and posterior segments, reducing stress concentration.
⢠This design prevents debonding or fracture of the prosthesis by allowing a slight flexing motion.REFERENCE
Rosenstiel SF, Land MF, Fujimoto J. Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics. 6th ed. Elsevier; 2022. -
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
A 15-year-old patient presents with a complaint of sharp pain while chewing on the mandibular premolar. Clinical examination reveals a small extra cusp-like projection on the occlusal surface with signs of enamel wear and dentinal exposure. Radiographic findings show a thin pulp horn extending into the extra cusp.What is the most appropriate initial management for this case of dens evaginatus?
Correct
ANSWER
Reduce the extra cusp gradually and place a protective restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Perform direct pulp capping and monitor – Direct Pulp Capping is only considered if pulp exposure has already occurred. Preventive measures should be prioritized.
⢠Extract the tooth to prevent future complications – Not necessary unless there is severe pain, infection, or non-restorable pulp damage.
⢠Leave it untreated and advise the patient to avoid hard foods – Increases the risk of cusp fracture, pulp exposure, and infection over time.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dens evaginatus is a developmental anomaly where an extra cusp-like projection forms on the occlusal surface, often containing pulp tissue.
⢠The risk of pulp exposure is high if the extra cusp fractures or wears down due to occlusal forces.
⢠Gradual occlusal reduction with periodic fluoride application allows dentin deposition (tertiary dentin formation), preventing pulp exposure.
⢠A protective resin-based restoration (sealant or composite) prevents further wear and pulp involvement.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016Incorrect
ANSWER
Reduce the extra cusp gradually and place a protective restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Perform direct pulp capping and monitor – Direct Pulp Capping is only considered if pulp exposure has already occurred. Preventive measures should be prioritized.
⢠Extract the tooth to prevent future complications – Not necessary unless there is severe pain, infection, or non-restorable pulp damage.
⢠Leave it untreated and advise the patient to avoid hard foods – Increases the risk of cusp fracture, pulp exposure, and infection over time.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dens evaginatus is a developmental anomaly where an extra cusp-like projection forms on the occlusal surface, often containing pulp tissue.
⢠The risk of pulp exposure is high if the extra cusp fractures or wears down due to occlusal forces.
⢠Gradual occlusal reduction with periodic fluoride application allows dentin deposition (tertiary dentin formation), preventing pulp exposure.
⢠A protective resin-based restoration (sealant or composite) prevents further wear and pulp involvement.REFERENCE
Neville BW, Damm DD, Allen CM, Chi AC. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology. 4th ed. Elsevier; 2016 -
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
What can possibly occur as a side effect of calcium hydroxide pulp therapy in primary teeth?
Correct
ANSWER
Internal root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide is commonly used endodontics due to its antimicrobial effect and potential to stimulate mineralized repair of pulp and periapical tissues.
⢠But calcium hydroxide is less used in primary teeth because it can cause chronic pulpal inflammation and internal root resorption.
⢠Chronic inflammation influence macrophages to fuse to form odontoblasts which starts resorption.REFERENCE
Article on Calcium Hydroxide Induced Resorption of Deciduous teeth – Possible Explanation.Incorrect
ANSWER
Internal root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide is commonly used endodontics due to its antimicrobial effect and potential to stimulate mineralized repair of pulp and periapical tissues.
⢠But calcium hydroxide is less used in primary teeth because it can cause chronic pulpal inflammation and internal root resorption.
⢠Chronic inflammation influence macrophages to fuse to form odontoblasts which starts resorption.REFERENCE
Article on Calcium Hydroxide Induced Resorption of Deciduous teeth – Possible Explanation. -
Question 109 of 150
109. Question
What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient with an interincisal opening of 30 mm before feeling pain and a maximum opening of 44 mm with pain?
Correct
ANSWER
Myofacial painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement of TMJ without reduction – This condition typically presents with a hard-end feel and a severe mechanical restriction, usually limited to approximately 25ā30 mm. Because the disc is permanently displaced and blocking the condyle, the mouth cannot be significantly opened further even with force.
ā Internal derangement of TMJ with reduction – While this involves pain and clicking, it does not typically limit the maximum opening to this extent unless there is an acute locking episode.
ā Subluxation of TMJ – This refers to the joint hypermobility where the condyle moves too far forward (beyond the articular eminence). This results in an excessive opening (often more than 50 mm) or the jaw getting stuck in an open positionSYNOPSIS
ā In cases of myofascial pain, the restriction in opening is caused by muscle tension or spasms rather than a structural blockage within the joint.
ā An initial comfortable opening ofĀ 30 mmĀ followed by a maximum assisted opening ofĀ 44 mmĀ indicates that the joint itself is capable of a near-normal range of motion (normal is typically 40ā55 mm).Ā
ā The 14 mm difference between pain-free and maximum opening strongly suggests a muscular limitation rather than a mechanical one.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Myofacial painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Internal derangement of TMJ without reduction – This condition typically presents with a hard-end feel and a severe mechanical restriction, usually limited to approximately 25ā30 mm. Because the disc is permanently displaced and blocking the condyle, the mouth cannot be significantly opened further even with force.
ā Internal derangement of TMJ with reduction – While this involves pain and clicking, it does not typically limit the maximum opening to this extent unless there is an acute locking episode.
ā Subluxation of TMJ – This refers to the joint hypermobility where the condyle moves too far forward (beyond the articular eminence). This results in an excessive opening (often more than 50 mm) or the jaw getting stuck in an open positionSYNOPSIS
ā In cases of myofascial pain, the restriction in opening is caused by muscle tension or spasms rather than a structural blockage within the joint.
ā An initial comfortable opening ofĀ 30 mmĀ followed by a maximum assisted opening ofĀ 44 mmĀ indicates that the joint itself is capable of a near-normal range of motion (normal is typically 40ā55 mm).Ā
ā The 14 mm difference between pain-free and maximum opening strongly suggests a muscular limitation rather than a mechanical one.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
A 62-year-old male presents to your dental clinic for extraction of a grossly carious mandibular molar. He has a history of hypertension and had a myocardial infarction 8 months ago. He is currently on aspirin and beta-blockers. His blood pressure today is 128/78 mmHg, and heart rate is 68 bpm. He reports no chest pain or shortness of breath recently. You plan to administer an inferior alveolar nerve block.What is the maximum recommended epinephrine concentration in the local anesthetic for this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
0.04mgOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Cardiac patients, particularly those with recent myocardial infarction, should receive minimal doses of epinephrine due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension, and increased myocardial oxygen demand.
⢠The American Heart Association (AHA) and American Dental Association (ADA) recommend that for patients with significant cardiovascular disease, the maximum dose of epinephrine should not exceed 0.04 mg per appointment.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition. Elsevier, 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
0.04mgOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Cardiac patients, particularly those with recent myocardial infarction, should receive minimal doses of epinephrine due to the risk of cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension, and increased myocardial oxygen demand.
⢠The American Heart Association (AHA) and American Dental Association (ADA) recommend that for patients with significant cardiovascular disease, the maximum dose of epinephrine should not exceed 0.04 mg per appointment.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Handbook of Local Anesthesia, 7th Edition. Elsevier, 2020. -
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
A 24-year-old patient presents with pain and swelling in the lower right posterior region. Clinical and radiographic examination reveal a horizontally impacted mandibular third molar. The occlusal surface of the impacted tooth is located below the cervical line of the adjacent second molar. Radiographically, the impacted third molar is positioned completely within the mandibular ramus, with no part anterior to the anterior border of the ramus.According to Pell and Gregory classification, what is the correct classification of this impacted tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Class III, Position COTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The Pell and Gregory classification assesses impacted mandibular third molars based on two parameters
1. Class I, II, III – Relationship to the anterior border of the mandibular ramus.
– Class I: Entire crown is anterior to the ramus.
– Class II: Partially covered by the ramus.
– Class III: Entire crown is within the ramus.
2. Position A, B, C – Depth relative to the adjacent second molar
– Position A: At the same level as the occlusal plane of the second molar.
– Position B: Between the occlusal plane and cervical line of the second molar.
– Position C: Below the cervical line of the second molar.
⢠In this case, the tooth is completely within the ramus so Class III.
⢠The occlusal surface is below the cervical line of the second molar so Position C.
⢠Thus, it is classified as Class III, Position C.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th Edition, Elsevier, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Class III, Position COTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The Pell and Gregory classification assesses impacted mandibular third molars based on two parameters
1. Class I, II, III – Relationship to the anterior border of the mandibular ramus.
– Class I: Entire crown is anterior to the ramus.
– Class II: Partially covered by the ramus.
– Class III: Entire crown is within the ramus.
2. Position A, B, C – Depth relative to the adjacent second molar
– Position A: At the same level as the occlusal plane of the second molar.
– Position B: Between the occlusal plane and cervical line of the second molar.
– Position C: Below the cervical line of the second molar.
⢠In this case, the tooth is completely within the ramus so Class III.
⢠The occlusal surface is below the cervical line of the second molar so Position C.
⢠Thus, it is classified as Class III, Position C.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ, Ellis E, Hupp JR, Tucker MR. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th Edition, Elsevier, 2019. -
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
A 47-year-old male presents for a periodontal evaluation. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily. Clinical examination reveals generalized periodontal pockets of 5ā6 mm, clinical attachment loss (CAL) of 4ā5 mm, and radiographic bone loss extending to the middle third of the root. No tooth loss has occurred due to periodontitis. His plaque control is fair, and there are no systemic conditions other than smoking.According to the 2017 AAP/EFP classification, what is the most appropriate stage and grade for this patientās periodontitis?
Correct
ANSWER
Stage III, Grade BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Staging reflects severity and extent of periodontal destruction
Stage I – CAL 1-2 mm, coronal third bone loss (less than 15 percent), no tooth loss.
Stage II – CAL 3-4 mm, coronal third bone loss (15-33percent), no tooth loss.
Stage III – CAL greater than or equal to 5 mm, bone loss extending to mid-third of the root and beyond, possible tooth loss due to periodontitis, potential for complex rehabilitation.
Stage IV – Extensive tooth loss and masticatory dysfunction
⢠In this case,CAL of 4-5 mm is border between Stage II and Stage III.But bone loss to mid-third of root suggests Stage III.
⢠Grading reflects rate of progression and risk factors (e.g., smoking, diabetes)
Grade A – Slow progression (no risk factors).
Grade B – Moderate progression (less than 10 cigarettes per day or HbA1c less than 7 in diabetics).
Grade C – Rapid progression (more than 10 cigarettes/day or HbA1c greater than or equal to 7).
⢠In this case smokes half a pack per day (approx 10 cigarettes per day) fits Grade B.REFERENCE
Tonetti MS, Greenwell H, Kornman KS. Staging and grading of periodontitis: Framework and proposal of a new classification and case definition. J Periodontol. 2018;89(Suppl 1):S159-S172.Incorrect
ANSWER
Stage III, Grade BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Staging reflects severity and extent of periodontal destruction
Stage I – CAL 1-2 mm, coronal third bone loss (less than 15 percent), no tooth loss.
Stage II – CAL 3-4 mm, coronal third bone loss (15-33percent), no tooth loss.
Stage III – CAL greater than or equal to 5 mm, bone loss extending to mid-third of the root and beyond, possible tooth loss due to periodontitis, potential for complex rehabilitation.
Stage IV – Extensive tooth loss and masticatory dysfunction
⢠In this case,CAL of 4-5 mm is border between Stage II and Stage III.But bone loss to mid-third of root suggests Stage III.
⢠Grading reflects rate of progression and risk factors (e.g., smoking, diabetes)
Grade A – Slow progression (no risk factors).
Grade B – Moderate progression (less than 10 cigarettes per day or HbA1c less than 7 in diabetics).
Grade C – Rapid progression (more than 10 cigarettes/day or HbA1c greater than or equal to 7).
⢠In this case smokes half a pack per day (approx 10 cigarettes per day) fits Grade B.REFERENCE
Tonetti MS, Greenwell H, Kornman KS. Staging and grading of periodontitis: Framework and proposal of a new classification and case definition. J Periodontol. 2018;89(Suppl 1):S159-S172. -
Question 113 of 150
113. Question
A 17-year-old male presents for routine dental radiographs. A panoramic radiograph reveals a well-defined, unilocular radiolucency in the posterior mandible, extending between the roots of vital teeth without causing root resorption or cortical expansion. The lesion is asymptomatic. A tentative diagnosis of a traumatic bone cyst is made.What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this lesion?
Correct
ANSWER
Curettage of the bony walls to induce bleedingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Surgical enucleation and bone grafting – Bone grafting is not necessary unless the defect is very large.
⢠Observation only, no intervention needed – Observation without intervention is not preferred because the diagnosis must be confirmed surgically, and curettage promotes healing.
⢠Extraction of associated teeth and curettage – Extraction is not indicated because the teeth are healthy and unrelated to the cause.SYNOPSIS
⢠A traumatic bone cyst (TBC), also known as a simple bone cyst, is not a true cyst because it lacks an epithelial lining.
⢠It is usually discovered incidentally on radiographs in younger individuals, especially in the posterior mandible.
⢠The standard treatment is surgical exploration and curettage of the bony cavity walls.
⢠The goal of curettage is to induce bleeding into the cavity, which then leads to new bone formation and healing.REFERENCE
Marx RE, Stern D. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology: A Rationale for Diagnosis and Treatment, 2nd Edition, Quintessence Publishing, 2012.Incorrect
ANSWER
Curettage of the bony walls to induce bleedingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Surgical enucleation and bone grafting – Bone grafting is not necessary unless the defect is very large.
⢠Observation only, no intervention needed – Observation without intervention is not preferred because the diagnosis must be confirmed surgically, and curettage promotes healing.
⢠Extraction of associated teeth and curettage – Extraction is not indicated because the teeth are healthy and unrelated to the cause.SYNOPSIS
⢠A traumatic bone cyst (TBC), also known as a simple bone cyst, is not a true cyst because it lacks an epithelial lining.
⢠It is usually discovered incidentally on radiographs in younger individuals, especially in the posterior mandible.
⢠The standard treatment is surgical exploration and curettage of the bony cavity walls.
⢠The goal of curettage is to induce bleeding into the cavity, which then leads to new bone formation and healing.REFERENCE
Marx RE, Stern D. Oral and Maxillofacial Pathology: A Rationale for Diagnosis and Treatment, 2nd Edition, Quintessence Publishing, 2012. -
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
A 55-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for periodontal therapy. She reports that her diabetes is under good control.Her most recent laboratory report shows a HbA1c level of 8.2 percent . Clinically, she has generalized moderate periodontitis. How would you interpret this patientās glycemic control?
Correct
ANSWER
Poor controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠HbA1c (Glycated Hemoglobin) reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 3 months.
⢠According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA)
– Less than 5.7 – Normal (non-diabetic)
– 5.7-6.4 – Prediabetes
– Greater than or equal to 6.5 – Diagnostic for diabetes
– Less than 7 – Goal for good control in diabetics
– 7-8 – Fair control (may be acceptable depending on patient factors)
– Greater than 8 – Poor controlREFERENCE
American Diabetes Association. Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2024. Diabetes Care. 2024,47(Suppl 1)S1-S210.Incorrect
ANSWER
Poor controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠HbA1c (Glycated Hemoglobin) reflects the average blood glucose level over the past 3 months.
⢠According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA)
– Less than 5.7 – Normal (non-diabetic)
– 5.7-6.4 – Prediabetes
– Greater than or equal to 6.5 – Diagnostic for diabetes
– Less than 7 – Goal for good control in diabetics
– 7-8 – Fair control (may be acceptable depending on patient factors)
– Greater than 8 – Poor controlREFERENCE
American Diabetes Association. Standards of Medical Care in Diabetes-2024. Diabetes Care. 2024,47(Suppl 1)S1-S210. -
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
What is the best treatment for severe bony undercuts?
Correct
ANSWER
Remove the undercut on one sideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Remove both undercut so that no undercut exists ā excessive bone removal is unnecessary and undesirable
ā Nothing but do only alveolar ridge contouring ā ridge contouring itself is the management, but severe bilateral undercuts are usually corrected selectivelySYNOPSIS
ā Severe bony undercuts may interfere with insertion and removal of dentures or prostheses
ā Management usually involves surgical correction of the most problematic undercut rather than aggressive removal of all undercuts
ā Excessive bone removal can compromise ridge support and denture stability, so conservative alveoloplasty is preferredREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Remove the undercut on one sideOTHER OPTIONS
ā Remove both undercut so that no undercut exists ā excessive bone removal is unnecessary and undesirable
ā Nothing but do only alveolar ridge contouring ā ridge contouring itself is the management, but severe bilateral undercuts are usually corrected selectivelySYNOPSIS
ā Severe bony undercuts may interfere with insertion and removal of dentures or prostheses
ā Management usually involves surgical correction of the most problematic undercut rather than aggressive removal of all undercuts
ā Excessive bone removal can compromise ridge support and denture stability, so conservative alveoloplasty is preferredREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
A 52-year-old male with a history of chronic liver cirrhosis presents for extraction of a grossly decayed molar. He reports a known allergy to acetaminophen (rash and swelling after use). His physician notes impaired liver function (elevated INR and bilirubin). You plan to prescribe a postoperative analgesic. Which of the following is the most appropriate analgesic choice for this patient?
Correct
ANSWER
Ibuprofen at standard dosesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Regular-dose acetaminophen – Acetaminophen is primarily metabolized by the liver. In patients with liver impairment and acetaminophen allergy, it must be avoided.
⢠Aspirin 325 mg every 6 hours – Aspirin is avoided because it can increase bleeding risk (especially dangerous in cirrhosis patients who often have coagulation problems).
⢠Codeine with acetaminophen combination – Codeine with acetaminophen is contraindicated because of the acetaminophen allergy and the liver metabolism concerns.SYNOPSIS
⢠Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can be used with caution
⢠It does not rely on liver metabolism as heavily as acetaminophen.
⢠However, NSAIDs should still be used carefully in liver patients because they can cause renal issues and gastrointestinal bleeding – but if short-term pain control is needed and bleeding risk is managed, standard-dose ibuprofen is the better choice among the options provided.REFERENCE
Little JW, Falace DA, Miller CS, Rhodus NLIncorrect
ANSWER
Ibuprofen at standard dosesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Regular-dose acetaminophen – Acetaminophen is primarily metabolized by the liver. In patients with liver impairment and acetaminophen allergy, it must be avoided.
⢠Aspirin 325 mg every 6 hours – Aspirin is avoided because it can increase bleeding risk (especially dangerous in cirrhosis patients who often have coagulation problems).
⢠Codeine with acetaminophen combination – Codeine with acetaminophen is contraindicated because of the acetaminophen allergy and the liver metabolism concerns.SYNOPSIS
⢠Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can be used with caution
⢠It does not rely on liver metabolism as heavily as acetaminophen.
⢠However, NSAIDs should still be used carefully in liver patients because they can cause renal issues and gastrointestinal bleeding – but if short-term pain control is needed and bleeding risk is managed, standard-dose ibuprofen is the better choice among the options provided.REFERENCE
Little JW, Falace DA, Miller CS, Rhodus NL -
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
A 35-year-old woman is undergoing root canal therapy on tooth #14. During irrigation with 5.25% sodium hypochlorite, she suddenly experiences severe pain, swelling of the face, and spontaneous bleeding from the canal. Within minutes, bruising appears under the skin near the treatment area. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this sodium hypochlorite accident?
Correct
ANSWER
Copious saline irrigation, Apply cold compress, administer analgesics, and closely monitorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Continue irrigation with saline and complete the root canal – Continuing irrigation would worsen chemical injury
⢠Administer local anesthesia and continue working apically – Working apically increases the risk of pushing more irrigant into tissues.
⢠Perform immediate surgical drainage of the swelling – Immediate surgical drainage is not indicated unless there is a secondary infection or abscess formation (usually days later).SYNOPSIS
⢠A sodium hypochlorite accident happens when the irrigant extrudes beyond the apex into the periapical tissues, causing
– Severe, immediate pain
– Facial swelling and bruising (hematoma)
– Spontaneous bleeding
⢠Management involves
– Irrigation – The primary goal is to dilute the sodium hypochlorite and remove it from the tissue. This is usually done by irrigating the area with copious amounts of saline or distilled water.
– Immediate cessation of endodontic treatment.
– Cold compresses in the first 24 hours to minimize swelling.
– Analgesics for pain control (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs preferred).
– Observation and monitoring for resolution over days.
– Antibiotics are sometimes prescribed if infection risk is suspected.
– If swelling or signs of infection worsen, further intervention (like drainage) might be needed later, but not immediatelyREFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Copious saline irrigation, Apply cold compress, administer analgesics, and closely monitorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Continue irrigation with saline and complete the root canal – Continuing irrigation would worsen chemical injury
⢠Administer local anesthesia and continue working apically – Working apically increases the risk of pushing more irrigant into tissues.
⢠Perform immediate surgical drainage of the swelling – Immediate surgical drainage is not indicated unless there is a secondary infection or abscess formation (usually days later).SYNOPSIS
⢠A sodium hypochlorite accident happens when the irrigant extrudes beyond the apex into the periapical tissues, causing
– Severe, immediate pain
– Facial swelling and bruising (hematoma)
– Spontaneous bleeding
⢠Management involves
– Irrigation – The primary goal is to dilute the sodium hypochlorite and remove it from the tissue. This is usually done by irrigating the area with copious amounts of saline or distilled water.
– Immediate cessation of endodontic treatment.
– Cold compresses in the first 24 hours to minimize swelling.
– Analgesics for pain control (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs preferred).
– Observation and monitoring for resolution over days.
– Antibiotics are sometimes prescribed if infection risk is suspected.
– If swelling or signs of infection worsen, further intervention (like drainage) might be needed later, but not immediatelyREFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019. -
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
Which of the following is a true characteristic of AH 26 sealer?
Correct
ANSWER
It releases formaldehyde during settingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠AH 26 is a well-known epoxy resinābased endodontic sealer.
Its key features are
– Resin Based
– During the setting reaction, small amounts of formaldehyde are released, which initially raised biocompatibility concerns. However, modern studies suggest that this release is minimal and well-tolerated.
– It has a long setting time (can take up to 24 hours or longer)
– It is designed specifically as a root canal sealer, NOT for temporary fillings
⢠AH 26 provides
– Good adhesion to dentin
– Excellent sealing ability
– Good radiopacityREFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
It releases formaldehyde during settingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠AH 26 is a well-known epoxy resinābased endodontic sealer.
Its key features are
– Resin Based
– During the setting reaction, small amounts of formaldehyde are released, which initially raised biocompatibility concerns. However, modern studies suggest that this release is minimal and well-tolerated.
– It has a long setting time (can take up to 24 hours or longer)
– It is designed specifically as a root canal sealer, NOT for temporary fillings
⢠AH 26 provides
– Good adhesion to dentin
– Excellent sealing ability
– Good radiopacityREFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingle’s Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019. -
Question 119 of 150
119. Question

Which of the following best describes the mechanism and location of the given complication in RCT
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral perforation due to excessive thinning of the root wall in curved canalsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Apical transportation – Refers to deviation of the canal’s path at the apex, not lateral thinning.
⢠Vertical root fracture – Different mechanism; related to obturation or post placement forces.
⢠Ledging – Formation of an artificial irregularity, not a perforation.SYNOPSIS
⢠Stripping is a specific type of lateral perforation that occurs when
– Aggressive instrumentation or over-enlargement in thin-walled curved roots (especially mesial roots of mandibular molars, and mesio-buccal roots of maxillary molars) causes excessive thinning, leading to perforation.
– Most commonly seen in the danger zone – the concave side of curved roots (furcal side).
– Risk is increased when using large or stiff files without respecting canal anatomy.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019.Incorrect
ANSWER
Lateral perforation due to excessive thinning of the root wall in curved canalsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Apical transportation – Refers to deviation of the canal’s path at the apex, not lateral thinning.
⢠Vertical root fracture – Different mechanism; related to obturation or post placement forces.
⢠Ledging – Formation of an artificial irregularity, not a perforation.SYNOPSIS
⢠Stripping is a specific type of lateral perforation that occurs when
– Aggressive instrumentation or over-enlargement in thin-walled curved roots (especially mesial roots of mandibular molars, and mesio-buccal roots of maxillary molars) causes excessive thinning, leading to perforation.
– Most commonly seen in the danger zone – the concave side of curved roots (furcal side).
– Risk is increased when using large or stiff files without respecting canal anatomy.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th Edition, 2019. -
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
A 16-year-old patient presents with a deeply intruded mandibular second premolar following traumatic occlusion from a mesially tilted first molar. You plan to upright the molar orthodontically and address the intruded premolar. What is the best orthodontic management strategy for this situation?
Correct
ANSWER
Orthodontic uprighting of the molar first, followed by extrusion of the intruded premolarOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Simultaneous extrusion of the premolar and molar uprighting with a continuous archwire – Attempting simultaneous extrusion and uprighting can result in uncontrolled forces and anchorage loss, making it unpredictable.
⢠Allow natural eruption of the premolar before uprighting the molar – Allowing natural eruption is slow and often unsuccessful in significant intrusion caused by trauma or tipping.
⢠Immediate surgical extraction of the intruded premolar – Immediate extraction is too aggressive unless the tooth is non-restorable.SYNOPSIS
⢠In cases where molar tipping has led to occlusal trauma and intrusion of adjacent teeth, the first priority is to correct the molar angulation.
⢠Molar uprighting re-establishes space and corrects occlusal forces.
⢠After uprighting the molar, extrusion (forced eruption) of the intruded tooth can be safely initiated.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson BE, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Elsevier, 2018.Incorrect
ANSWER
Orthodontic uprighting of the molar first, followed by extrusion of the intruded premolarOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Simultaneous extrusion of the premolar and molar uprighting with a continuous archwire – Attempting simultaneous extrusion and uprighting can result in uncontrolled forces and anchorage loss, making it unpredictable.
⢠Allow natural eruption of the premolar before uprighting the molar – Allowing natural eruption is slow and often unsuccessful in significant intrusion caused by trauma or tipping.
⢠Immediate surgical extraction of the intruded premolar – Immediate extraction is too aggressive unless the tooth is non-restorable.SYNOPSIS
⢠In cases where molar tipping has led to occlusal trauma and intrusion of adjacent teeth, the first priority is to correct the molar angulation.
⢠Molar uprighting re-establishes space and corrects occlusal forces.
⢠After uprighting the molar, extrusion (forced eruption) of the intruded tooth can be safely initiated.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Larson BE, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th Edition, Elsevier, 2018. -
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
Which of the following statements about periodontal fibers in primary teeth is most accurate?
Correct
ANSWER
Periodontal fibers in primary teeth are less dense and less organized compared to permanent teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The periodontal ligament (PDL) in primary teeth is
– Present and functional (it anchors the tooth to the alveolar bone).
– However, periodontal fibers are generally less dense, thinner, and less organized than in permanent teeth.
⢠The principal fiber groups (such as oblique, horizontal, apical fibers) do exist in primary teeth, but they are less well developed.
⢠These characteristics are thought to relate to the temporary nature of primary teeth and their role in guiding the eruption of permanent teeth.
⢠Alveolar bone attachment is present in primary teeth unless extensive root resorption is occurring very late.REFERENCE
Nanci A. Ten Cateās Oral Histology: Development, Structure, and Function, 9th Edition, Elsevier, 2017.Incorrect
ANSWER
Periodontal fibers in primary teeth are less dense and less organized compared to permanent teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The periodontal ligament (PDL) in primary teeth is
– Present and functional (it anchors the tooth to the alveolar bone).
– However, periodontal fibers are generally less dense, thinner, and less organized than in permanent teeth.
⢠The principal fiber groups (such as oblique, horizontal, apical fibers) do exist in primary teeth, but they are less well developed.
⢠These characteristics are thought to relate to the temporary nature of primary teeth and their role in guiding the eruption of permanent teeth.
⢠Alveolar bone attachment is present in primary teeth unless extensive root resorption is occurring very late.REFERENCE
Nanci A. Ten Cateās Oral Histology: Development, Structure, and Function, 9th Edition, Elsevier, 2017. -
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
What is the best time to do dental surgical procedures for the pregnant lady?
Correct
ANSWER
Fourth to sixth monthOTHER OPTIONS
ā First to third month ā organogenesis occurs during first trimester, elective surgery is avoided
ā Seventh to ninth month ā prolonged procedures are avoided due to patient discomfort and risk of supine hypotensionSYNOPSIS
ā The safest period for elective dental surgical procedures during pregnancy is the second trimester (4thā6th month)
ā During this period, fetal organogenesis is complete and the mother is generally more comfortable
ā Elective procedures are preferably postponed during the first and third trimesters unless emergency treatment is requiredREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Fourth to sixth monthOTHER OPTIONS
ā First to third month ā organogenesis occurs during first trimester, elective surgery is avoided
ā Seventh to ninth month ā prolonged procedures are avoided due to patient discomfort and risk of supine hypotensionSYNOPSIS
ā The safest period for elective dental surgical procedures during pregnancy is the second trimester (4thā6th month)
ā During this period, fetal organogenesis is complete and the mother is generally more comfortable
ā Elective procedures are preferably postponed during the first and third trimesters unless emergency treatment is requiredREFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 123 of 150
123. Question
You are treating a 62-year-old female patient who recently got new dentures. She complains that her dentures tend to displace posteriorly (towards the back of her mouth) when she smiles. The patient has no relevant medical history, and her oral examination shows well-fitting dentures with no apparent issues. You suspect a specific reason for this denture displacement during smiling. What is the most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures while the patient smiles?
Correct
ANSWER
Inadequate vertical dimension of occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inadequate denture adhesive – Inadequate denture adhesive is not the most likely reason in this case, as the patient’s dentures have been described as well-fitting with no apparent issues.
⢠Improper denture base material – Improper denture base material is not the most likely reason, as there are no indications of material-related problems in the scenario.
⢠Overextended denture borders – Overextended denture borders may cause discomfort or sore spots but are less likely to be the primary reason for posterior displacement during smiling.SYNOPSIS
⢠The most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures during smiling is an inadequate vertical dimension of occlusion.
⢠The vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) refers to the space between the upper and lower jaws when the teeth are in contact.
⢠Proper VDO is crucial for maintaining the stability and function of dentures.
⢠If the VDO is too low, it can cause the dentures to displace backward during muscle activity like smiling.
⢠In this case, since the patient has no apparent issues with the denture fit or oral examination, the problem is likely related to the VDO.
To address this issue, the dentist should assess and adjust the VDO to ensure the patient’s dentures have proper stability and do not displace during function.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics – Deepak NallaswamyIncorrect
ANSWER
Inadequate vertical dimension of occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Inadequate denture adhesive – Inadequate denture adhesive is not the most likely reason in this case, as the patient’s dentures have been described as well-fitting with no apparent issues.
⢠Improper denture base material – Improper denture base material is not the most likely reason, as there are no indications of material-related problems in the scenario.
⢠Overextended denture borders – Overextended denture borders may cause discomfort or sore spots but are less likely to be the primary reason for posterior displacement during smiling.SYNOPSIS
⢠The most likely reason for the posterior displacement of the dentures during smiling is an inadequate vertical dimension of occlusion.
⢠The vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO) refers to the space between the upper and lower jaws when the teeth are in contact.
⢠Proper VDO is crucial for maintaining the stability and function of dentures.
⢠If the VDO is too low, it can cause the dentures to displace backward during muscle activity like smiling.
⢠In this case, since the patient has no apparent issues with the denture fit or oral examination, the problem is likely related to the VDO.
To address this issue, the dentist should assess and adjust the VDO to ensure the patient’s dentures have proper stability and do not displace during function.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics – Deepak Nallaswamy -
Question 124 of 150
124. Question
For how long does the patient is advised not rinse out the mouth after dental surgery?
Correct
ANSWER
24 hoursOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā After dental surgery or extraction, patients are advised not to rinse vigorously for the first 24 hours
ā Early rinsing can dislodge the blood clot and lead to complications such as dry socket (alveolar osteitis)
ā After 24 hours, gentle warm saline mouth rinses are usually recommended to maintain oral hygiene and promote healing.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
24 hoursOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā After dental surgery or extraction, patients are advised not to rinse vigorously for the first 24 hours
ā Early rinsing can dislodge the blood clot and lead to complications such as dry socket (alveolar osteitis)
ā After 24 hours, gentle warm saline mouth rinses are usually recommended to maintain oral hygiene and promote healing.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
You dispose waste materials after doing treatment for a hepatitis B patient carelessly. Your dental clinic cleaning staff was got needle prick injury. Which infection control is failed here?
Correct
ANSWER
Active infection controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Without proper infection control techniques, many of the things in a dental clinic, including people, instruments, and even computer components can be carriers for cross-contamination and contribute to the spreading of germs and disease.
⢠Active Infection control prevents or stops the spread of infections in healthcare settings.
ā¢.Non-disposable items like dental tools are cleaned and sterilized between patients.
⢠Disposable dental tools and needles are never reused.
⢠Infection control precautions also require all dental staff involved in patient care to use appropriate protective equipment such as gloves, masks, gowns, and eyewear when needed.
⢠Failure to follow any of the above guidelines means failure of active infection control.REFERENCE
Hepatitis B- Penina Haber, MPH and Sarah Schillie, MD, MPH, MBAIncorrect
ANSWER
Active infection controlOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Without proper infection control techniques, many of the things in a dental clinic, including people, instruments, and even computer components can be carriers for cross-contamination and contribute to the spreading of germs and disease.
⢠Active Infection control prevents or stops the spread of infections in healthcare settings.
ā¢.Non-disposable items like dental tools are cleaned and sterilized between patients.
⢠Disposable dental tools and needles are never reused.
⢠Infection control precautions also require all dental staff involved in patient care to use appropriate protective equipment such as gloves, masks, gowns, and eyewear when needed.
⢠Failure to follow any of the above guidelines means failure of active infection control.REFERENCE
Hepatitis B- Penina Haber, MPH and Sarah Schillie, MD, MPH, MBA -
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
In Ellis classification of injured teeth, a class IV represents?
Correct
ANSWER
Non vital toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Class I – Simple crown fracture with little or no dentin affected.
⢠Class II – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin, but with the pulp not affected.
⢠Class III – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin and pulp exposure.
⢠Class IV – A tooth devitalized by trauma with or without loss of tooth structure.
⢠Class V – Teeth lost as a result of trauma.
⢠Class VI – Root fracture with or without the loss of crown structure.
⢠Class VII – Displacement of the tooth with neither root nor crown fracture
⢠Class VIII – Complete crown fracture and its replacement.
⢠Class IX – Traumatic injuries of primary teeth.REFERENCE
An overview of the classification of dental trauma-Sasikala PagadalaIncorrect
ANSWER
Non vital toothOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Class I – Simple crown fracture with little or no dentin affected.
⢠Class II – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin, but with the pulp not affected.
⢠Class III – Extensive crown fracture with considerable loss of dentin and pulp exposure.
⢠Class IV – A tooth devitalized by trauma with or without loss of tooth structure.
⢠Class V – Teeth lost as a result of trauma.
⢠Class VI – Root fracture with or without the loss of crown structure.
⢠Class VII – Displacement of the tooth with neither root nor crown fracture
⢠Class VIII – Complete crown fracture and its replacement.
⢠Class IX – Traumatic injuries of primary teeth.REFERENCE
An overview of the classification of dental trauma-Sasikala Pagadala -
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
Which among the following muscles is not involved in the elevation of the mandible?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Masseter – The large muscle which raises the lower jaw, and assists in mastication.
⢠Temporalis – A broad muscle that fans out to cover much of the temporal bone on the side of the skull that elevates and retracts the jaw.
⢠Medial pterygoid – The medial pterygoid elevates and closes the jaw, contributes to protrusion of the mandible, and assists in mastication.SYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid.
⢠The lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that actively opens the jaw.
⢠Unilateral action of a lateral pterygoid produces lateral movement in the jaw, usually performed in concert with the medial pterygoidsREFERENCE
Muscles of mastication – Pocket DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Lateral pterygoidOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Masseter – The large muscle which raises the lower jaw, and assists in mastication.
⢠Temporalis – A broad muscle that fans out to cover much of the temporal bone on the side of the skull that elevates and retracts the jaw.
⢠Medial pterygoid – The medial pterygoid elevates and closes the jaw, contributes to protrusion of the mandible, and assists in mastication.SYNOPSIS
⢠Lateral pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid.
⢠The lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that actively opens the jaw.
⢠Unilateral action of a lateral pterygoid produces lateral movement in the jaw, usually performed in concert with the medial pterygoidsREFERENCE
Muscles of mastication – Pocket Dentistry -
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
Which type of bone graft is used for a two-walled defect?
Correct
ANSWER
Cortical decalcified freeze dried bone graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠If the defect is lined by only two walls of bone, the defect is a two-wall defect.
⢠Cortical decalcified freeze-dried bone allograft is used for 2 walled osseous defects
⢠Cortical bone contains pure cortex-dense bone, hence it is used for weight or force-bearing areas
⢠Freeze drying decreases antigenicity and facilitates long-term storage
⢠Decalcifying improves osteostimulatory properties
⢠Cancellous bone provides more open spaces for faster revascularisation, but it lacks mechanical strength, particularly when used for non-weight or non-force-bearing areasREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Cortical decalcified freeze dried bone graftOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Explained belowSYNOPSIS
⢠If the defect is lined by only two walls of bone, the defect is a two-wall defect.
⢠Cortical decalcified freeze-dried bone allograft is used for 2 walled osseous defects
⢠Cortical bone contains pure cortex-dense bone, hence it is used for weight or force-bearing areas
⢠Freeze drying decreases antigenicity and facilitates long-term storage
⢠Decalcifying improves osteostimulatory properties
⢠Cancellous bone provides more open spaces for faster revascularisation, but it lacks mechanical strength, particularly when used for non-weight or non-force-bearing areasREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
What are the features does not found in Le Fort III fracture?
Correct
ANSWER
Mobility at infraorbital marginOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort III fracture is also called craniofacial dysjunction and involves separation of the midface from the cranial base.
ā Clinical features include bilateral periorbital ecchymosis, subconjunctival haemorrhage, mobility of the entire midface, and mobility at the frontozygomatic and frontonasal sutures.
ā Mobility at the infraorbital margin is more characteristic of Le Fort II fractures because the fracture line traverses the infraorbital rim in the pyramidal fracture pattern.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Mobility at infraorbital marginOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Le Fort III fracture is also called craniofacial dysjunction and involves separation of the midface from the cranial base.
ā Clinical features include bilateral periorbital ecchymosis, subconjunctival haemorrhage, mobility of the entire midface, and mobility at the frontozygomatic and frontonasal sutures.
ā Mobility at the infraorbital margin is more characteristic of Le Fort II fractures because the fracture line traverses the infraorbital rim in the pyramidal fracture pattern.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
A patient with severe thrombocytopenia is being evaluated for platelet transfusion. In which of the following conditions is platelet transfusion generally not indicated because the transfused platelets are rapidly destroyed?
Correct
ANSWER
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Dilutional thrombocytopenia ā Platelet transfusion is indicated to restore platelet counts after massive blood loss or transfusion.
ā Aplastic anemia ā Platelet transfusions are used to prevent or control bleeding due to marrow failure.
ā Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) ā Platelet transfusions may be required in patients with active bleeding and significant thrombocytopenia.SYNOPSIS
ā Platelet transfusions are indicated in thrombocytopenic states associated with decreased platelet production or excessive consumption.
ā In immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), platelet destruction is antibody-mediated, resulting in rapid destruction of transfused platelets.
ā Therefore, platelet transfusion is generally reserved for life-threatening hemorrhage or prior to emergency surgery in patients with ITP.REFERENCE
Hoffbrand’s Essential Haematology – 8th Edition.Incorrect
ANSWER
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)OTHER OPTIONS
ā Dilutional thrombocytopenia ā Platelet transfusion is indicated to restore platelet counts after massive blood loss or transfusion.
ā Aplastic anemia ā Platelet transfusions are used to prevent or control bleeding due to marrow failure.
ā Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) ā Platelet transfusions may be required in patients with active bleeding and significant thrombocytopenia.SYNOPSIS
ā Platelet transfusions are indicated in thrombocytopenic states associated with decreased platelet production or excessive consumption.
ā In immune thrombocytopenia (ITP), platelet destruction is antibody-mediated, resulting in rapid destruction of transfused platelets.
ā Therefore, platelet transfusion is generally reserved for life-threatening hemorrhage or prior to emergency surgery in patients with ITP.REFERENCE
Hoffbrand’s Essential Haematology – 8th Edition. -
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
A routine radiographic examination of a 50 year old patient showed thickening of the root, of molars and diagnosed to be hypercementosis. Which is the synonym you can use for hypercementosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Cemental hyperplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cementoma – Cementomas areĀ benign jaw tumors that originate from periodontal ligament elements.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia) is a nonneoplastic deposition of excessive cementum that is continuous with the normal radicular cementum.
ā¢Ā It may affect a single tooth or multiple teeth.
⢠The condition is asymptomatic and is detected on radiographic examination.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Cemental hyperplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cementoma – Cementomas areĀ benign jaw tumors that originate from periodontal ligament elements.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypercementosis (cemental hyperplasia) is a nonneoplastic deposition of excessive cementum that is continuous with the normal radicular cementum.
ā¢Ā It may affect a single tooth or multiple teeth.
⢠The condition is asymptomatic and is detected on radiographic examination.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Pathology -
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
A patient returned after endodontic treatment followed by post and core management complaints of spontaneous dull pain on mastication shows mild mobility of tooth . You suspects a vertical root fracture. Which is the best radiographic technique to confirm a vertical root fracture?
Correct
ANSWER
CBCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bitewing – For interproximal lesions
⢠Occlusal – Diagnosis of cysts and canine impactionsSYNOPSIS
⢠Periapical radiographs (PRs) are the most used imaging modalities.
⢠However, the X-ray beam needs to be set at the same angle of the root fracture line in order to become visible.
⢠On the other hand, cone beam CT (CBCT) images are tridimensional exams, presenting the entire volume for that patient, without superimposing anatomic structures over the teeth.
⢠This exam gives a perception of dimension and allows the maxillofacial radiologist (MFR) to perform a complete diagnosis of pathologies, facial fractures, surgical planning and root fracturesREFERENCE
Radiographic diagnosis of root fractures- a systematic review, meta-analyses and sources of heterogeneity – British Institute of Radiology – Dentomaxillofacial RadiologyIncorrect
ANSWER
CBCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Bitewing – For interproximal lesions
⢠Occlusal – Diagnosis of cysts and canine impactionsSYNOPSIS
⢠Periapical radiographs (PRs) are the most used imaging modalities.
⢠However, the X-ray beam needs to be set at the same angle of the root fracture line in order to become visible.
⢠On the other hand, cone beam CT (CBCT) images are tridimensional exams, presenting the entire volume for that patient, without superimposing anatomic structures over the teeth.
⢠This exam gives a perception of dimension and allows the maxillofacial radiologist (MFR) to perform a complete diagnosis of pathologies, facial fractures, surgical planning and root fracturesREFERENCE
Radiographic diagnosis of root fractures- a systematic review, meta-analyses and sources of heterogeneity – British Institute of Radiology – Dentomaxillofacial Radiology -
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A patient underwent orthodontic fixed applaince therapy one year back shows large radiolucent area at the midroot region of tooth 11. What will be the treatment plan?
Correct
ANSWER
RCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Root hemisection is sectioning of multi-rooted teeth with its crown portion, with the loss of periodontal attachment and is performed to retain the original tooth structure and attain the fixed prosthodontic prosthesis.
ā¢Apexification- Its a procedure of inducing root end closure of an incompletely formed non vital permanent tooth by removing the coronal and non vital radicular tissue just short of the root end and placing a biocompatible agent such as CaOH in the canals for 2 weeks to 1month to disinfect the canal space and root end closure is accomplished with an apical barrier such as MTASYNOPSIS
⢠Midroot radiolucency during Orthodontic treatment may be due to Internal Root Resorption
⢠Internal resorption  originates in a vital pulp, and the pulp must remain vital for the resorption to be progressive. Teeth with internal resorption usually are asymptomatic and often identified radiographically. Clinically, internal resorption teeth sometimes can be identified when resorption is in the coronal area and the tooth takes on a pink hue. Radiographically, internal resorption usually is round or oval-shaped and centered on the root canal, and the canal is not visible through the resorption area. Also, the defect for internal resorption is a widening of the canal.
⢠Treatment Perspectives
– In general, there are three treatment options for internal resorption
1. No treatment with eventual extraction if and when the tooth becomes symptomatic.
2. Immediate extraction.
3. Saving it by doing internal treatment that include conventional root canal treatment.
⢠Treatment must be based on prognosis of the tooth.
– If the resorption is contained within the root with no perforation, good prognosis for treatment with conventional endodontic treatment can be achieved.
– If the resorption perforates the root the prognosis is reduced.
– If the resorption is in the cervical area of the tooth, long term predictability of the tooth needs to be considered from a structural point, especially for anterior teeth. If the tooth is restorable and has a reasonable prognosis, root canal treatment is the choice.REFERENCE
Management of Internal Root Resorption in Orthodontics- Turkish Journal of Orthodontics- November 2016Incorrect
ANSWER
RCTOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Root hemisection is sectioning of multi-rooted teeth with its crown portion, with the loss of periodontal attachment and is performed to retain the original tooth structure and attain the fixed prosthodontic prosthesis.
ā¢Apexification- Its a procedure of inducing root end closure of an incompletely formed non vital permanent tooth by removing the coronal and non vital radicular tissue just short of the root end and placing a biocompatible agent such as CaOH in the canals for 2 weeks to 1month to disinfect the canal space and root end closure is accomplished with an apical barrier such as MTASYNOPSIS
⢠Midroot radiolucency during Orthodontic treatment may be due to Internal Root Resorption
⢠Internal resorption  originates in a vital pulp, and the pulp must remain vital for the resorption to be progressive. Teeth with internal resorption usually are asymptomatic and often identified radiographically. Clinically, internal resorption teeth sometimes can be identified when resorption is in the coronal area and the tooth takes on a pink hue. Radiographically, internal resorption usually is round or oval-shaped and centered on the root canal, and the canal is not visible through the resorption area. Also, the defect for internal resorption is a widening of the canal.
⢠Treatment Perspectives
– In general, there are three treatment options for internal resorption
1. No treatment with eventual extraction if and when the tooth becomes symptomatic.
2. Immediate extraction.
3. Saving it by doing internal treatment that include conventional root canal treatment.
⢠Treatment must be based on prognosis of the tooth.
– If the resorption is contained within the root with no perforation, good prognosis for treatment with conventional endodontic treatment can be achieved.
– If the resorption perforates the root the prognosis is reduced.
– If the resorption is in the cervical area of the tooth, long term predictability of the tooth needs to be considered from a structural point, especially for anterior teeth. If the tooth is restorable and has a reasonable prognosis, root canal treatment is the choice.REFERENCE
Management of Internal Root Resorption in Orthodontics- Turkish Journal of Orthodontics- November 2016 -
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
A 14 year old patient came after 24 months of tooth replantation, which had ankylosis with no root resorption. The probability to develop root resorption after ankylosis will?
Correct
ANSWER
IncreaseĀ after 2 yearsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Replacement resorption or ankylosis occurs when there is partial root resorption which is followed by repair with either cementum or dentine.
⢠This unites the root of the tooth with the alveolar bone, and typically occurs after trauma.
⢠The primary factor influencing the progress of replacement resorption is age.
⢠Being of the age around which the growth spurt takes place affects the prognosis of replanted teeth, as such patients have a rapid rate of bone remodeling. Therefore, replacement root resorption will progress rapidly.
⢠The root will completely resorb, and the patient will eventually end up with tooth loss.
⢠Most studies report that replacement root resorption is usually detected within one to two years after avulsion and that the replanted ankylotic teeth are usually lost within four to six years.
⢠Andersson et al. also concluded that replanted teeth will become ankylosed and resorbed within three to seven years in patients aged 8-16 years, whereas teeth under the same condition may remain functional for a longer period in patients older than 17 years old.REFERENCE
Long-Term Retention of Avulsed Maxillary Incisors with Replacement Root Resorption -A 9-Year Follow-Up – Case Reports in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
IncreaseĀ after 2 yearsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Replacement resorption or ankylosis occurs when there is partial root resorption which is followed by repair with either cementum or dentine.
⢠This unites the root of the tooth with the alveolar bone, and typically occurs after trauma.
⢠The primary factor influencing the progress of replacement resorption is age.
⢠Being of the age around which the growth spurt takes place affects the prognosis of replanted teeth, as such patients have a rapid rate of bone remodeling. Therefore, replacement root resorption will progress rapidly.
⢠The root will completely resorb, and the patient will eventually end up with tooth loss.
⢠Most studies report that replacement root resorption is usually detected within one to two years after avulsion and that the replanted ankylotic teeth are usually lost within four to six years.
⢠Andersson et al. also concluded that replanted teeth will become ankylosed and resorbed within three to seven years in patients aged 8-16 years, whereas teeth under the same condition may remain functional for a longer period in patients older than 17 years old.REFERENCE
Long-Term Retention of Avulsed Maxillary Incisors with Replacement Root Resorption -A 9-Year Follow-Up – Case Reports in Dentistry -
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
GIC restoration done for a patient can be polished by?
Correct
ANSWER
All are correctOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Finishing and polishing of GIC is done by the following methods
1. Best surface finish obtained if cement is allowed to set under matrix.
2. Carving the cement external to the cavity margins with sharp knives or scalers.
3. Finest abrasive should be used to minimize tearing.
4. Finishing with rotary instruments should be done at a subsequent visit.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental MaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
All are correctOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Finishing and polishing of GIC is done by the following methods
1. Best surface finish obtained if cement is allowed to set under matrix.
2. Carving the cement external to the cavity margins with sharp knives or scalers.
3. Finest abrasive should be used to minimize tearing.
4. Finishing with rotary instruments should be done at a subsequent visit.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental Materials -
Question 136 of 150
136. Question

In an OPG you observe multiple unerupted supernumerary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, and a persistence of deciduous teeth. Additionally, there is a notable absence of clavicular structures in the patient on clinical observation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Cleidocranial dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cherubism – Cherubism is a rare disease of autosomal dominant inheritance characterized by painless, frequently symmetrical, enlargement of the jaws as a result of the replacement of bone with fibrous tissue
⢠Hypophosphatasia – Hypophosphatasia weakens and softens the bones, causing skeletal abnormalities similar to another childhood bone disorder calledĀ rickets. Affected infants are born with short limbs, an abnormally shaped chest, and soft skull bones.
⢠Gardners syndrome – Gardner syndrome is a genetic disease that comprises the clinical triad ofĀ osteomas, polyposis coli, and mesenchymal tumors of the skin and soft tissue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Cleidocranial dysplasia is a rare genetic condition that affects teeth and bones, such as the skull, face, spine, collarbones, and legs.
⢠The bones in people with Cleidocranial dysplasia might be formed differently or might be more fragile than normal, and certain bones such as collarbones may be absent.
⢠The oral manifestations include delayed exfoliation, delayed or failing eruption of the permanent dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth, protruding mandible, and mid-face retrusion.REFERENCE
Shafers Textbook of Oral Pathology 8th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Cleidocranial dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cherubism – Cherubism is a rare disease of autosomal dominant inheritance characterized by painless, frequently symmetrical, enlargement of the jaws as a result of the replacement of bone with fibrous tissue
⢠Hypophosphatasia – Hypophosphatasia weakens and softens the bones, causing skeletal abnormalities similar to another childhood bone disorder calledĀ rickets. Affected infants are born with short limbs, an abnormally shaped chest, and soft skull bones.
⢠Gardners syndrome – Gardner syndrome is a genetic disease that comprises the clinical triad ofĀ osteomas, polyposis coli, and mesenchymal tumors of the skin and soft tissue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Cleidocranial dysplasia is a rare genetic condition that affects teeth and bones, such as the skull, face, spine, collarbones, and legs.
⢠The bones in people with Cleidocranial dysplasia might be formed differently or might be more fragile than normal, and certain bones such as collarbones may be absent.
⢠The oral manifestations include delayed exfoliation, delayed or failing eruption of the permanent dentition with multiple supernumerary teeth, protruding mandible, and mid-face retrusion.REFERENCE
Shafers Textbook of Oral Pathology 8th Edition -
Question 137 of 150
137. Question
A 40-year-old patient presents with trismus, swelling in the posterior mandibular region, and difficulty swallowing. The infection is localized to the pterygomandibular space. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct
ANSWER
Incision and drainage under general anesthesiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Antibiotics alone is inadequate for abscess management.
⢠Incision and drainage under local anesthesia is difficult due to limited access.
⢠Administer corticosteroids does not address the infection itself.SYNOPSIS
⢠Pterygomandibular space infections are severe and can lead to airway compromise.
⢠Immediate intervention with incision and drainage is critical.
⢠Due to the depth and anatomical location, general anesthesia is often required for adequate drainage and airway management..REFERENCE
Topazian, R. G., et al. Oral and Maxillofacial Infections.Incorrect
ANSWER
Incision and drainage under general anesthesiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Antibiotics alone is inadequate for abscess management.
⢠Incision and drainage under local anesthesia is difficult due to limited access.
⢠Administer corticosteroids does not address the infection itself.SYNOPSIS
⢠Pterygomandibular space infections are severe and can lead to airway compromise.
⢠Immediate intervention with incision and drainage is critical.
⢠Due to the depth and anatomical location, general anesthesia is often required for adequate drainage and airway management..REFERENCE
Topazian, R. G., et al. Oral and Maxillofacial Infections. -
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
A 12-year-old patient presents with a transverse maxillary deficiency requiring expansion. The orthodontist wants to use an appliance that distributes forces to both the teeth and the palatal tissues for a balanced expansion. Which of the following is a tooth-tissue borne expander?
Correct
ANSWER
Haas expanderOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Activator – doesnt help in expansion.SYNOPSIS
⢠Maxillary expansion appliances can be categorized based on how they distribute the expansion forces – whether through the teeth, the soft tissues, or a combination of both.
⢠Tooth-Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances rely solely on the teeth to anchor and apply the expansion forces, meaning the forces are transmitted directly through the dental structures without significant involvement of the palatal tissues.
Examples – Hyrax Expander, Quad Helix
⢠Tissue-Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances primarily rely on the palatal soft tissues (mucosa) for anchorage and expansion, minimizing the load on the teeth. Tissue-borne expanders are less common but useful in certain cases.
Example – Williams Appliance
⢠Tooth-Tissue Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances utilize both the teeth and the palatal tissues for anchorage and force distribution. The forces are shared between the teeth and the soft tissues, allowing for a broader and more balanced expansion.
Examples – Haas Expander, SARME (Surgically Assisted Rapid Maxillary Expansion),Schwartz Appliance.REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Page 436.Incorrect
ANSWER
Haas expanderOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Activator – doesnt help in expansion.SYNOPSIS
⢠Maxillary expansion appliances can be categorized based on how they distribute the expansion forces – whether through the teeth, the soft tissues, or a combination of both.
⢠Tooth-Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances rely solely on the teeth to anchor and apply the expansion forces, meaning the forces are transmitted directly through the dental structures without significant involvement of the palatal tissues.
Examples – Hyrax Expander, Quad Helix
⢠Tissue-Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances primarily rely on the palatal soft tissues (mucosa) for anchorage and expansion, minimizing the load on the teeth. Tissue-borne expanders are less common but useful in certain cases.
Example – Williams Appliance
⢠Tooth-Tissue Borne Maxillary Expansion Appliances – These appliances utilize both the teeth and the palatal tissues for anchorage and force distribution. The forces are shared between the teeth and the soft tissues, allowing for a broader and more balanced expansion.
Examples – Haas Expander, SARME (Surgically Assisted Rapid Maxillary Expansion),Schwartz Appliance.REFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Page 436. -
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
A 28-year-old patient confides to the dentist that they have tested positive for HIV but requests that the dentist keep this information private. The dentist thought that disclosure may prevent harm to others.What is the most appropriate action for the dentist?
Correct
ANSWER
Counsel the patient and encourage voluntary disclosureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Report the case to public health authorities without informing the patient – Reporting without informing the patient may only be justified in legally mandated cases.
⢠Disclose the information to the patientās employer – Informing employers is inappropriate and a breach of confidentiality.SYNOPSIS
⢠Confidentiality is a cornerstone of medical ethics, but it can be breached under specific circumstances to prevent serious harm to others.
⢠Dentists should prioritize counseling patient to disclose his or her condition voluntarily, balancing ethical obligations to the patient and public safety.REFERENCE
General Dental Council. (2013). Standards for the Dental Team.Incorrect
ANSWER
Counsel the patient and encourage voluntary disclosureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Report the case to public health authorities without informing the patient – Reporting without informing the patient may only be justified in legally mandated cases.
⢠Disclose the information to the patientās employer – Informing employers is inappropriate and a breach of confidentiality.SYNOPSIS
⢠Confidentiality is a cornerstone of medical ethics, but it can be breached under specific circumstances to prevent serious harm to others.
⢠Dentists should prioritize counseling patient to disclose his or her condition voluntarily, balancing ethical obligations to the patient and public safety.REFERENCE
General Dental Council. (2013). Standards for the Dental Team. -
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
Which material is commonly used in ART method?
Correct
ANSWER
GICOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Atraumatic restorative treatment is removal of decalcified tissue using only hand instruments and restoring cavity with an adhesive filling material.
⢠Conventional glass ionomer restorative cement (GIC) is the material of choice that has been used for ART.
⢠This is because of its fluoride release properties, including its ability to bond to enamel and dentine, its pulpal biocompatibility, and its ease of manipulation.
⢠A minimally invasive approach to both prevent dental carious lesions and stop its further progression.
⢠Indicated when coventional restorative procedures are impossible, anxious child and physically or mentally handicapped patients.
⢠Mostly used in public health programs.REFERENCE
Fundamentals of Pediatric Dentistry.Incorrect
ANSWER
GICOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Atraumatic restorative treatment is removal of decalcified tissue using only hand instruments and restoring cavity with an adhesive filling material.
⢠Conventional glass ionomer restorative cement (GIC) is the material of choice that has been used for ART.
⢠This is because of its fluoride release properties, including its ability to bond to enamel and dentine, its pulpal biocompatibility, and its ease of manipulation.
⢠A minimally invasive approach to both prevent dental carious lesions and stop its further progression.
⢠Indicated when coventional restorative procedures are impossible, anxious child and physically or mentally handicapped patients.
⢠Mostly used in public health programs.REFERENCE
Fundamentals of Pediatric Dentistry. -
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
A 58-year-old patient with a history of angina complains of chest pain during a dental procedure. The pain does not subside with rest.What is the first step the dentist should take?
Correct
ANSWER
Administer nitroglycerin and stop the procedureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Administer oxygen and continue treatment – Continuing treatment after oxygen administration is inappropriate without addressing the underlying cause.
⢠Begin chest compressions immediately – Chest compressions are reserved for cardiac arrest.
⢠Administer aspirin and send the patient home – Aspirin is used for suspected myocardial infarction, not angina.SYNOPSIS
⢠In a known cardiac patient, chest pain during a dental procedure is likely due to angina.
⢠The immediate action is to stop the procedure, administer sublingual nitroglycerin, and monitor the patient.REFERENCE
American Dental Association. Guidelines for the Management of Medical Emergencies in Dental Practice.Incorrect
ANSWER
Administer nitroglycerin and stop the procedureOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Administer oxygen and continue treatment – Continuing treatment after oxygen administration is inappropriate without addressing the underlying cause.
⢠Begin chest compressions immediately – Chest compressions are reserved for cardiac arrest.
⢠Administer aspirin and send the patient home – Aspirin is used for suspected myocardial infarction, not angina.SYNOPSIS
⢠In a known cardiac patient, chest pain during a dental procedure is likely due to angina.
⢠The immediate action is to stop the procedure, administer sublingual nitroglycerin, and monitor the patient.REFERENCE
American Dental Association. Guidelines for the Management of Medical Emergencies in Dental Practice. -
Question 142 of 150
142. Question
There is a little space between maxillary central incisors in a 9 year old child and there is no deep bite. What treatment could be done?
Correct
ANSWER
There is no need for treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠This is a normal stage of dental development, usually between the ages of 9 and 12 years, preceding the eruption of the permanent canines(Ugly Duckling stage).
⢠It is caused when the upper central and lateral incisors are tipped laterally due to the crowding created by the unerupted canines.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2nd-Edition-Chapter 5-Page 46.Incorrect
ANSWER
There is no need for treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠This is a normal stage of dental development, usually between the ages of 9 and 12 years, preceding the eruption of the permanent canines(Ugly Duckling stage).
⢠It is caused when the upper central and lateral incisors are tipped laterally due to the crowding created by the unerupted canines.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2nd-Edition-Chapter 5-Page 46. -
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
What is correct statement about dentine permeability?
Correct
ANSWER
Permeability of dentine decrease toward the dentinoenamel junctionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentin permeability is not uniform throughout the tooth.
⢠Coronal dentin is much more permeable than root dentin.
⢠Dentin permeability primarily depends on the remaining dentin thickness (i.e., length of the tubules), patency, and the diameter of the tubules. The greater the functional diameter, the higher the flow rate and thus the rate of permeation.
⢠Therefore tubular occlusion, smear layer formation and lack of tubular communication between primary and irregular secondary dentin will result in reduced permeability.
⢠Dentin permeability increases rapidly as the pulp chamber is approached because the number and diameter of the tubules are more per unit area towards the pulp than towards the periphery.
⢠The density and diameter of the dentinal tubules increase with dentine depth from the DEJ (Dentino-Enamel junction) to the pulp region. The permeability of dentine is lowest at the DEJ and highest at the pulpal ends.REFERENCE
Permeability of Dentine – Malaysian Journal of Dental SciencesIncorrect
ANSWER
Permeability of dentine decrease toward the dentinoenamel junctionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentin permeability is not uniform throughout the tooth.
⢠Coronal dentin is much more permeable than root dentin.
⢠Dentin permeability primarily depends on the remaining dentin thickness (i.e., length of the tubules), patency, and the diameter of the tubules. The greater the functional diameter, the higher the flow rate and thus the rate of permeation.
⢠Therefore tubular occlusion, smear layer formation and lack of tubular communication between primary and irregular secondary dentin will result in reduced permeability.
⢠Dentin permeability increases rapidly as the pulp chamber is approached because the number and diameter of the tubules are more per unit area towards the pulp than towards the periphery.
⢠The density and diameter of the dentinal tubules increase with dentine depth from the DEJ (Dentino-Enamel junction) to the pulp region. The permeability of dentine is lowest at the DEJ and highest at the pulpal ends.REFERENCE
Permeability of Dentine – Malaysian Journal of Dental Sciences -
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
A 45-year-old patient is awake with a swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and edema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had swelling, pain, or dental problems. Examination shows, several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth. But the examination was negative for caries, thermal test, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical rarefaction. The patient’s temperature was normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and it was given a clean bill of health. The condition is?
Correct
ANSWER
Angioneurotic edemaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Acute apical periodontitis – Acute apical periodontitis isĀ a condition in which the apical portion of a tooth’s root (i.e. its tip) becomes inflamed, following trauma or infection. The presence of inflammation makes it tender when tapping or chewing on it
⢠Infectious mononucleosis – Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by swollen lymph glands, fever, sore throat, and extreme fatigue. Itās often spread through contact with infected saliva from the mouth. Symptoms can take between 4 to 6 weeks to appear and usually do not last beyond 4 months.
⢠Acute periapical abscess – A periapical tooth abscessĀ usually occurs as a result of an untreated dental cavity, an injury or prior dental work. The resulting infection with irritation and swelling (inflammation) can cause an abscess at the tip of the root.ĀSYNOPSIS
⢠Angioedema is swelling that is similar to hives, but the swelling is under the skin instead of on the surface.
⢠Angioedema may be caused by an allergic reaction to pollen, certain foods or medicines. During the reaction, histamine and other chemicals are released into the bloodstream.
⢠The main symptom is sudden swelling below the skin surface.Other symptoms may include
– Abdominal cramping
– Breathing difficulty
– Swollen eyes and mouth
– The swollen lining of the eyes (chemosis)
⢠Mild symptoms may not need treatment. Moderate to severe symptoms may need to be treated. Breathing difficulty is an emergency condition.
⢠People with angioedema should
– Avoid any known allergen or trigger that causes their symptoms.
– Avoid any medicines, herbs, or supplements that are not prescribed by a provider.
– Cool compresses or soaks can relieve pain.
⢠Medicines used to treat angioedema include
– Antihistamines
– Anti-inflammatory medicines (corticosteroids)
– Epinephrine shots (people with a history of severe symptoms can carry these with them)
– Inhaler medicines that help open up the airwaysREFERENCE
Angioedema – Penn MedicineIncorrect
ANSWER
Angioneurotic edemaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Acute apical periodontitis – Acute apical periodontitis isĀ a condition in which the apical portion of a tooth’s root (i.e. its tip) becomes inflamed, following trauma or infection. The presence of inflammation makes it tender when tapping or chewing on it
⢠Infectious mononucleosis – Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by swollen lymph glands, fever, sore throat, and extreme fatigue. Itās often spread through contact with infected saliva from the mouth. Symptoms can take between 4 to 6 weeks to appear and usually do not last beyond 4 months.
⢠Acute periapical abscess – A periapical tooth abscessĀ usually occurs as a result of an untreated dental cavity, an injury or prior dental work. The resulting infection with irritation and swelling (inflammation) can cause an abscess at the tip of the root.ĀSYNOPSIS
⢠Angioedema is swelling that is similar to hives, but the swelling is under the skin instead of on the surface.
⢠Angioedema may be caused by an allergic reaction to pollen, certain foods or medicines. During the reaction, histamine and other chemicals are released into the bloodstream.
⢠The main symptom is sudden swelling below the skin surface.Other symptoms may include
– Abdominal cramping
– Breathing difficulty
– Swollen eyes and mouth
– The swollen lining of the eyes (chemosis)
⢠Mild symptoms may not need treatment. Moderate to severe symptoms may need to be treated. Breathing difficulty is an emergency condition.
⢠People with angioedema should
– Avoid any known allergen or trigger that causes their symptoms.
– Avoid any medicines, herbs, or supplements that are not prescribed by a provider.
– Cool compresses or soaks can relieve pain.
⢠Medicines used to treat angioedema include
– Antihistamines
– Anti-inflammatory medicines (corticosteroids)
– Epinephrine shots (people with a history of severe symptoms can carry these with them)
– Inhaler medicines that help open up the airwaysREFERENCE
Angioedema – Penn Medicine -
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
A 21 year old male patient came to your clinic with extrusion of 11 followed by a trauma happened 30 minutes ago. What treatment will you recommended?
Correct
ANSWER
Repositioned into socket with gentle pressure and splintOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Extrusion is partial displacement of tooth from its alveolar socket.
⢠Extruded teeth should be forced back into socket as soon as possible by means of gentle pressure, after accident and preferably done after anesthetizing the region.
⢠When extruded teeth are repositioned they are quite likely to be retained for a lifetime.
⢠Then the tooth should be splinted with a flexible splint for a period of 2 weeks.
⢠Tooth should be tested for vitality once a month and if non vital, perform RCT.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 434.Incorrect
ANSWER
Repositioned into socket with gentle pressure and splintOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Extrusion is partial displacement of tooth from its alveolar socket.
⢠Extruded teeth should be forced back into socket as soon as possible by means of gentle pressure, after accident and preferably done after anesthetizing the region.
⢠When extruded teeth are repositioned they are quite likely to be retained for a lifetime.
⢠Then the tooth should be splinted with a flexible splint for a period of 2 weeks.
⢠Tooth should be tested for vitality once a month and if non vital, perform RCT.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 434. -
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
A patient with abrasion on the teeth and gingivitis complains of bleeding on brushing. On examination, the patient’s oral hygiene measures show brushing twice and using floss too. What change has to be advised for him for better periodontal health?
Correct
ANSWER
Change the brushing techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Changing the brushing technique can improve the condition of this patient
⢠Bass Method or Sulcular cleaning method is the most accepted and effective method for the removal of dental plaque present adjacent to and underneath the gingival margin
⢠Indications
– Open interproximal areas
– Cervical areas beneath the height of the contour of enamel
– Exposed root surface
– Recommended for patients with or without periodontal involvement
⢠Technique
– The bristles are held at a 45-degree angle toward the gum line.
– Very slight pressure and vibratory motions are made so that the bristles go slightly beneath the gum line.
– Only small groups of teeth can be done at a time.
– Once an area is complete, move on to the next set of teeth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Change the brushing techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Changing the brushing technique can improve the condition of this patient
⢠Bass Method or Sulcular cleaning method is the most accepted and effective method for the removal of dental plaque present adjacent to and underneath the gingival margin
⢠Indications
– Open interproximal areas
– Cervical areas beneath the height of the contour of enamel
– Exposed root surface
– Recommended for patients with or without periodontal involvement
⢠Technique
– The bristles are held at a 45-degree angle toward the gum line.
– Very slight pressure and vibratory motions are made so that the bristles go slightly beneath the gum line.
– Only small groups of teeth can be done at a time.
– Once an area is complete, move on to the next set of teeth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 147 of 150
147. Question

A 25-year-old techie presents with tooth sensitivity and enamel loss on the palatal surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth. The patient admits to frequent consumption of acidic beverages. What type of tooth wear is most likely responsible for these clinical findings?
Correct
ANSWER
ErosionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Attrition – Dental attrition isĀ a type of tooth wear caused by tooth-to-tooth contact, resulting in loss of tooth tissue, usually starting at the incisal or occlusal surfaces.Ā
⢠Abrasion – Abrasion isĀ the wearing away of tooth surface caused by friction or a mechanical process
⢠Abfraction – Abfraction is the loss of tooth structure from flexural forces.SYNOPSIS
⢠Erosion is the wearing away of the tooth surface by an acid, which dissolves the enamel and the dentine.
⢠The causes may include dietary, acid regurgitation, environmental, etc
⢠The erosion is seen as a light yellow patch on the tooth. This indicates that the enamel has been dissolved and the sensitive dentine under the enamel has been exposed.
⢠This exposure of the dentine will result in pain from sweet, hot, and cold food and drinks. If the erosion penetrates deeper and reaches the nerves and blood vessels, the pain can become severe.
⢠Treatment includes
– Treating the underlying medical disorder or disease.
– Changing the patientās lifestyle to avoid the food or beverage.
– Applying fluoride gels or varnishes to the teeth.
– Drinking milk or using other dairy products.
– Using a neutralizing agent such as antacid tablets.
– Applying dentine bonding agents to areas of exposed dentin.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
ErosionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Attrition – Dental attrition isĀ a type of tooth wear caused by tooth-to-tooth contact, resulting in loss of tooth tissue, usually starting at the incisal or occlusal surfaces.Ā
⢠Abrasion – Abrasion isĀ the wearing away of tooth surface caused by friction or a mechanical process
⢠Abfraction – Abfraction is the loss of tooth structure from flexural forces.SYNOPSIS
⢠Erosion is the wearing away of the tooth surface by an acid, which dissolves the enamel and the dentine.
⢠The causes may include dietary, acid regurgitation, environmental, etc
⢠The erosion is seen as a light yellow patch on the tooth. This indicates that the enamel has been dissolved and the sensitive dentine under the enamel has been exposed.
⢠This exposure of the dentine will result in pain from sweet, hot, and cold food and drinks. If the erosion penetrates deeper and reaches the nerves and blood vessels, the pain can become severe.
⢠Treatment includes
– Treating the underlying medical disorder or disease.
– Changing the patientās lifestyle to avoid the food or beverage.
– Applying fluoride gels or varnishes to the teeth.
– Drinking milk or using other dairy products.
– Using a neutralizing agent such as antacid tablets.
– Applying dentine bonding agents to areas of exposed dentin.REFERENCE
Shafer’s textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 148 of 150
148. Question
A 12-year-old boy was brought to the clinic by his parents for a routine dental check up. On examination, you noticed a deep pit and fissure of newly erupted molars. What will you do to protect the newly erupted molars?
Correct
ANSWER
Apply pit and fissure sealantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The use of pit and fissure sealants provides a physical barrier that inhibits microorganisms and food particles accumulation, preventing caries initiation, and arresting caries progression
⢠The indications for placing a pit and fissure sealant are as follow
– Pits and fissures of deciduous teeth in children when the tooth, or the patient, is at an increased risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Pits and fissures of permanent teeth in children and adolescents when the tooth, or the patient, is at risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Pits and fissures of permanent teeth in adults when the tooth, or the patient, is at risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Incipient carious lesions (non-cavitated) of pits and fissures in children, adolescents, and adultsĀ .
– Pit and fissures of primary and permanent teeth should be considered in children and young people with medical, physical, or intellectual disabilities, mostly when systemic health could be jeopardized by dental disease or the need for dental treatmentĀREFERENCE
Pit and fissure Sealants – NCBI Book ShelfIncorrect
ANSWER
Apply pit and fissure sealantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The use of pit and fissure sealants provides a physical barrier that inhibits microorganisms and food particles accumulation, preventing caries initiation, and arresting caries progression
⢠The indications for placing a pit and fissure sealant are as follow
– Pits and fissures of deciduous teeth in children when the tooth, or the patient, is at an increased risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Pits and fissures of permanent teeth in children and adolescents when the tooth, or the patient, is at risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Pits and fissures of permanent teeth in adults when the tooth, or the patient, is at risk of experiencing cariesĀ
– Incipient carious lesions (non-cavitated) of pits and fissures in children, adolescents, and adultsĀ .
– Pit and fissures of primary and permanent teeth should be considered in children and young people with medical, physical, or intellectual disabilities, mostly when systemic health could be jeopardized by dental disease or the need for dental treatmentĀREFERENCE
Pit and fissure Sealants – NCBI Book Shelf -
Question 149 of 150
149. Question

A 45 year-old woman presents with symptoms of unexplained weight loss, increased appetite, sweating, and tremors. On physical examination, she has a noticeable swelling in the neck and exophthalmos (see image). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Graves’ diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – It typically causes hypothyroidism and is associated with a firm, non-tender goiter but does not cause exophthalmos.
⢠Subacute thyroiditis – It presents with a painful, tender thyroid gland and is usually associated with a temporary period of hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism.
⢠Thyroid cancer – It can present with a thyroid nodule but is less likely to cause the systemic symptoms and eye findings seen in Graves’ disease.SYNOPSIS
⢠Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.
⢠It is characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, increased appetite, sweating, tremors, and heat intolerance.
⢠The hallmark features include exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland (goiter), both of which are commonly seen in patients with Graves’ disease.REFERENCE
Gravesā Disease: Pathophysiology, Genetics and Management – Frontiers in PharmacologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Graves’ diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – It typically causes hypothyroidism and is associated with a firm, non-tender goiter but does not cause exophthalmos.
⢠Subacute thyroiditis – It presents with a painful, tender thyroid gland and is usually associated with a temporary period of hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism.
⢠Thyroid cancer – It can present with a thyroid nodule but is less likely to cause the systemic symptoms and eye findings seen in Graves’ disease.SYNOPSIS
⢠Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.
⢠It is characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, increased appetite, sweating, tremors, and heat intolerance.
⢠The hallmark features include exophthalmos (bulging eyes) and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland (goiter), both of which are commonly seen in patients with Graves’ disease.REFERENCE
Gravesā Disease: Pathophysiology, Genetics and Management – Frontiers in Pharmacology -
Question 150 of 150
150. Question
A 52-year-old male patient presents with chronic fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and generalized weakness over the past several months. He reports episodes of dizziness, especially when standing up quickly, and increased skin pigmentation, particularly in areas exposed to the sun and at pressure points like the elbows and knuckles. On examination, his blood pressure is 90-60 mmHg while seated and drops significantly upon standing. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis and the initial management step?
Correct
ANSWER
Addison’s disease, initiate corticosteroid replacement therapyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cushing’s syndrome, recommends surgical resection of adrenal tumor – Cushing’s syndrome typically presents with opposite symptoms such as weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.
⢠Hypothyroidism, start levothyroxine – Hypothyroidism usually presents with fatigue and weight gain, but it does not explain the hyperpigmentation, electrolyte abnormalities, or hypotension.
⢠Pheochromocytoma, initiate alpha-blockade before surgery – Pheochromocytoma is characterized by episodic hypertension, palpitations, and headaches, not the chronic hypotension and skin changes seen in Addison’s disease.SYNOPSIS
⢠The patientās symptoms of chronic fatigue, weight loss, weakness, hypotension (particularly postural hypotension), and hyperpigmentation, along with laboratory findings of hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels, are highly suggestive of Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency).
⢠This condition is characterized by the inadequate production of cortisol and, often, aldosterone, due to the destruction of the adrenal glands.
⢠The management of Addison’s disease is the initiation of corticosteroid replacement therapy to compensate for the deficient adrenal hormones.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral pathology – 9th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Addison’s disease, initiate corticosteroid replacement therapyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cushing’s syndrome, recommends surgical resection of adrenal tumor – Cushing’s syndrome typically presents with opposite symptoms such as weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.
⢠Hypothyroidism, start levothyroxine – Hypothyroidism usually presents with fatigue and weight gain, but it does not explain the hyperpigmentation, electrolyte abnormalities, or hypotension.
⢠Pheochromocytoma, initiate alpha-blockade before surgery – Pheochromocytoma is characterized by episodic hypertension, palpitations, and headaches, not the chronic hypotension and skin changes seen in Addison’s disease.SYNOPSIS
⢠The patientās symptoms of chronic fatigue, weight loss, weakness, hypotension (particularly postural hypotension), and hyperpigmentation, along with laboratory findings of hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels, are highly suggestive of Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency).
⢠This condition is characterized by the inadequate production of cortisol and, often, aldosterone, due to the destruction of the adrenal glands.
⢠The management of Addison’s disease is the initiation of corticosteroid replacement therapy to compensate for the deficient adrenal hormones.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral pathology – 9th Edition
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