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Question 1 of 150
1. Question

A 28-year-old patient reports severe spontaneous pain in the lower right first molar. Pain lingers for several minutes after cold stimulus and worsens at night. On examination, a deep occlusal caries is seen. Tooth is tender to percussion.
Radiograph shows deep caries approximating the pulp with slight widening of periodontal ligament (PDL) space but no periapical radiolucency.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis?Correct
ANSWER
Irreversible pulpitisĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reversible pulpitis – pain disappearing on removal of stimulus.
⢠Periapical abscess – No changes are seen in the periapical area so not an abscess.
⢠Cracked Tooth Syndrome – Pain relief on biting or pain aggravating upon bite release would be mentioned.SYNOPSIS
⢠Spontaneous pain
⢠Lingering response to cold
⢠Night pain
⢠Radiograph – deep caries approaching pulp, PDL widening may be present due to early apical involvement
⢠These are classic features of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
⢠A clinical diagnosis characterized by lingering pain to thermal stimulus, spontaneous pain, or referred pain, indicating that the pulp is vital but inflamed beyond repair.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition)Incorrect
ANSWER
Irreversible pulpitisĀOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reversible pulpitis – pain disappearing on removal of stimulus.
⢠Periapical abscess – No changes are seen in the periapical area so not an abscess.
⢠Cracked Tooth Syndrome – Pain relief on biting or pain aggravating upon bite release would be mentioned.SYNOPSIS
⢠Spontaneous pain
⢠Lingering response to cold
⢠Night pain
⢠Radiograph – deep caries approaching pulp, PDL widening may be present due to early apical involvement
⢠These are classic features of symptomatic irreversible pulpitis.
⢠A clinical diagnosis characterized by lingering pain to thermal stimulus, spontaneous pain, or referred pain, indicating that the pulp is vital but inflamed beyond repair.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition) -
Question 2 of 150
2. Question

A 35-year-old patient presents with food lodgement in upper left second premolar. There is no spontaneous pain. Cold test produces mild discomfort that lingers for 20ā30 seconds.
Radiograph reveals deep proximal caries involving dentin and approximating pulp with normal periapical structures.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Correct
ANSWER
Asymptomatic Irreversible pulpitsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Reversible pulpitis – Reversible pulpitis does not present with spontaneous or lingering pain.
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis – A clinical diagnosis characterized by lingering pain to thermal stimulus, spontaneous pain, or referred pain, indicating that the pulp is vital but inflamed beyond repair.
ā Necrotic pulp – Pulp necrosis usually gives no response to vitality tests.SYNOPSIS
ā No spontaneous pain
ā Lingering cold response
ā Deep caries near pulp
ā No periapical pathology
ā These features points to asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition)Incorrect
ANSWER
Asymptomatic Irreversible pulpitsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Reversible pulpitis – Reversible pulpitis does not present with spontaneous or lingering pain.
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis – A clinical diagnosis characterized by lingering pain to thermal stimulus, spontaneous pain, or referred pain, indicating that the pulp is vital but inflamed beyond repair.
ā Necrotic pulp – Pulp necrosis usually gives no response to vitality tests.SYNOPSIS
ā No spontaneous pain
ā Lingering cold response
ā Deep caries near pulp
ā No periapical pathology
ā These features points to asymptomatic irreversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition) -
Question 3 of 150
3. Question
Related question – How can you manage the above case?
Correct
ANSWER
Root Canal treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Even though the patient does not complain of pain, the pulp is irreversibly inflamed, and conservative pulp therapy (indirect or direct pulp capping) is contraindicated.
ā For Asymptomatic Irreversible Pulpitis
– Complete removal of pulp tissue (Pulpectomy)
– Cleaning and shaping
– Obturation
– Final coronal restoration
ā So if the tooth is restorable, Root Canal Treatment is the treatment of choiceREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition)Incorrect
ANSWER
Root Canal treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Even though the patient does not complain of pain, the pulp is irreversibly inflamed, and conservative pulp therapy (indirect or direct pulp capping) is contraindicated.
ā For Asymptomatic Irreversible Pulpitis
– Complete removal of pulp tissue (Pulpectomy)
– Cleaning and shaping
– Obturation
– Final coronal restoration
ā So if the tooth is restorable, Root Canal Treatment is the treatment of choiceREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics (7th Edition) -
Question 4 of 150
4. Question
Related question – If Endodontic treatment is initiated in the above case, during cleaning and shaping, the dentist wants an irrigant that provides maximum antimicrobial action and dissolves organic tissue remnants inside the canal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate irrigant?Correct
ANSWER
Sodium hypochloriteOTHER OPTIONS
ā Normal saline – Only flushing action, no antimicrobial or tissue dissolving property
ā Chlorhexidine – Good antimicrobial action but does NOT dissolve organic tissue.
ā Hydrogen peroxide – Limited antibacterial effect and no tissue dissolving ability; not recommended as primary irrigant.SYNOPSIS
ā Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) is the gold standard irrigant in endodontics because
– It has excellent antimicrobial activity
– It dissolves necrotic and vital pulp tissue (organic tissue dissolution)
– It disrupts biofilm
– Effective even in difficult-to-instrument areas
ā Concentrations commonly used: 0.5 – 5.25%REFERENCE
Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp (12th Edition)Incorrect
ANSWER
Sodium hypochloriteOTHER OPTIONS
ā Normal saline – Only flushing action, no antimicrobial or tissue dissolving property
ā Chlorhexidine – Good antimicrobial action but does NOT dissolve organic tissue.
ā Hydrogen peroxide – Limited antibacterial effect and no tissue dissolving ability; not recommended as primary irrigant.SYNOPSIS
ā Sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) is the gold standard irrigant in endodontics because
– It has excellent antimicrobial activity
– It dissolves necrotic and vital pulp tissue (organic tissue dissolution)
– It disrupts biofilm
– Effective even in difficult-to-instrument areas
ā Concentrations commonly used: 0.5 – 5.25%REFERENCE
Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp (12th Edition) -
Question 5 of 150
5. Question

A 22-year-old female reports mild pain in the lower right back tooth for 5 days. The pain is sharp and occurs only when she drinks cold water. It subsides immediately after removal of the stimulus. There is no spontaneous pain or night pain. On examination
Deep occlusal caries in 46
No tenderness to percussion
No mobility
Normal periodontal probing
Cold test – sharp response lasting 2ā3 seconds
EPT – positive.
IOPA – deep caries approximating pulp. What is the probable diagnosis?Correct
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pulp necrosis – Pulp test will be negative
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis – Pain will be spontaneous and will linger even after removal of stimulis
ā Chronic apical periodontitis – Radiographic changes will be seenSYNOPSIS
ā Pain is stimulus-dependent
ā Pain does not linger
ā No spontaneous pain
ā No percussion tenderness
ā No periapical changes
ā These features are classical for reversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Reversible pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Pulp necrosis – Pulp test will be negative
ā Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis – Pain will be spontaneous and will linger even after removal of stimulis
ā Chronic apical periodontitis – Radiographic changes will be seenSYNOPSIS
ā Pain is stimulus-dependent
ā Pain does not linger
ā No spontaneous pain
ā No percussion tenderness
ā No periapical changes
ā These features are classical for reversible pulpitis.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Related question – Which of the following best describes the pulpal status in this condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Localized mild inflammatory responseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Reversible pulpitis shows
– Mild vascular dilation
– Limited inflammatory cell infiltration
– No widespread pulpal destruction
ā The pulp retains healing potential if irritant is removed.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Localized mild inflammatory responseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Reversible pulpitis shows
– Mild vascular dilation
– Limited inflammatory cell infiltration
– No widespread pulpal destruction
ā The pulp retains healing potential if irritant is removed.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 7 of 150
7. Question
Related question – What is the most appropriate treatment for this tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Removal of caries and placement of definitive restorationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Since pulp inflammation is reversible
– Remove etiologic factor (caries)
– Place protective liner or base if required
– Restore tooth
ā RCT is not indicated unless symptoms progress.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Removal of caries and placement of definitive restorationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Since pulp inflammation is reversible
– Remove etiologic factor (caries)
– Place protective liner or base if required
– Restore tooth
ā RCT is not indicated unless symptoms progress.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 8 of 150
8. Question
Related question – Which pulp test finding best supports your diagnosis in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
Short sharp response that subsides immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Diagnostic criteria for reversible pulpitis
– Exaggerated response to cold
– Pain lasts only few seconds after removal of stimulus
– No spontaneous pain
– No percussion tenderness
– No radiohraphic changesREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Short sharp response that subsides immediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Diagnostic criteria for reversible pulpitis
– Exaggerated response to cold
– Pain lasts only few seconds after removal of stimulus
– No spontaneous pain
– No percussion tenderness
– No radiohraphic changesREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 9 of 150
9. Question
There is a little space between maxillary central incisors in a 9 year old child and there is no deep bite. What treatment could be done?
Correct
ANSWER
There is no need for treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠This is a normal stage of dental development, usually between the ages of 9 and 12 years, preceding the eruption of the permanent canines(Ugly Duckling stage).
⢠It is caused when the upper central and lateral incisors are tipped laterally due to the crowding created by the unerupted canines.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2nd-Edition-Chapter 5-Page 46.Incorrect
ANSWER
There is no need for treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠This is a normal stage of dental development, usually between the ages of 9 and 12 years, preceding the eruption of the permanent canines(Ugly Duckling stage).
⢠It is caused when the upper central and lateral incisors are tipped laterally due to the crowding created by the unerupted canines.REFERENCE
Gurkeerat-Singh-Textbook-Of-Orthodontics-2nd-Edition-Chapter 5-Page 46. -
Question 10 of 150
10. Question
A 7-year-old child reports with an anterior crossbite involving a maxillary central incisor. The mandibular central incisors have already erupted, and the maxillary central incisors are erupting. There is no skeletal discrepancy. When is the ideal time to correct this crossbite?
Correct
ANSWER
During eruption of maxillary central incisorsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Anterior dental crossbite should be corrected as early as possible, preferably during eruption of maxillary central incisors in the early mixed dentition.
ā Early correction
– Prevents traumatic occlusion
– Avoids gingival recession
– Prevents skeletal Class III development
– Improves incisor guidance
ā Delaying correction may result in functional shift and skeletal adaptation.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
During eruption of maxillary central incisorsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Anterior dental crossbite should be corrected as early as possible, preferably during eruption of maxillary central incisors in the early mixed dentition.
ā Early correction
– Prevents traumatic occlusion
– Avoids gingival recession
– Prevents skeletal Class III development
– Improves incisor guidance
ā Delaying correction may result in functional shift and skeletal adaptation.REFERENCE
Proffit WR, Fields HW, Sarver DM. Contemporary Orthodontics, 6th ed. -
Question 11 of 150
11. Question
A 35-year-old patient with known chronic Hepatitis B infection requires extraction of a grossly decayed mandibular molar. Which is the most significant concern during the procedure?
Correct
ANSWER
Excessive bleeding due to hepatic dysfunctionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā In Hepatitis B patients liver dysfunction may impair synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).
ā This increases bleeding tendency. PT-INR must be assessed before extraction.
ā Transmission risk is controlled with universal precautions, but bleeding due to coagulopathy is the primary clinical complication during extraction.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental OfficeIncorrect
ANSWER
Excessive bleeding due to hepatic dysfunctionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā In Hepatitis B patients liver dysfunction may impair synthesis of clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X).
ā This increases bleeding tendency. PT-INR must be assessed before extraction.
ā Transmission risk is controlled with universal precautions, but bleeding due to coagulopathy is the primary clinical complication during extraction.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office -
Question 12 of 150
12. Question
During extraction of a maxillary third molar, a large maxillary tuberosity fracture occurs. The fractured segment is firmly attached to the tooth and cannot be separated. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Stabilize the segment and postpone extractionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā If a large tuberosity fracture occurs and the fragment is attached to the tooth
– Do NOT remove it immediately (risk of sinus perforation and loss of bone support).
– Reposition and stabilize (splinting).
– Postpone extraction for 4ā6 weeks to allow healing.
ā Removing large tuberosity compromises denture stability and sinus integrity.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 6th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Stabilize the segment and postpone extractionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā If a large tuberosity fracture occurs and the fragment is attached to the tooth
– Do NOT remove it immediately (risk of sinus perforation and loss of bone support).
– Reposition and stabilize (splinting).
– Postpone extraction for 4ā6 weeks to allow healing.
ā Removing large tuberosity compromises denture stability and sinus integrity.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 6th ed -
Question 13 of 150
13. Question

A 28-year-old patient presents with swelling near a maxillary lateral incisor. The tooth is non-carious and responds normally to pulp testing. There is a localized deep periodontal pocket with vertical bone loss and radiolucency along the root on radiograph. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Periodontal abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
– Non-carious tooth
– Vital pulp
– Isolated deep pocket
– Localized swelling
– Vertical bone loss
ā These features indicate a periodontal origin, specifically a lateral periodontal abscess.
ā Apical abscess would present with non-vital pulp.REFERENCE
Carranza FA. Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Periodontal abscessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
– Non-carious tooth
– Vital pulp
– Isolated deep pocket
– Localized swelling
– Vertical bone loss
ā These features indicate a periodontal origin, specifically a lateral periodontal abscess.
ā Apical abscess would present with non-vital pulp.REFERENCE
Carranza FA. Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed. -
Question 14 of 150
14. Question
A 12-year-old child presents 10 minutes after avulsion of a maxillary central incisor. The tooth was kept dry for 5 minutes and then placed in milk. What is the immediate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Replant immediately and splint for 2 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Extraoral dry time less than 60 minutes
ā Stored in milk (physiologic medium) so PDL cells are likely viable
ā Immediate replantation is indicated with flexible splint for 2 weeks
ā Follow-up
– RCT within 7ā10 days (for closed apex)
– Monitor for inflammatory resorptionREFERENCE
IADT Guidelines (2020)Incorrect
ANSWER
Replant immediately and splint for 2 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Extraoral dry time less than 60 minutes
ā Stored in milk (physiologic medium) so PDL cells are likely viable
ā Immediate replantation is indicated with flexible splint for 2 weeks
ā Follow-up
– RCT within 7ā10 days (for closed apex)
– Monitor for inflammatory resorptionREFERENCE
IADT Guidelines (2020) -
Question 15 of 150
15. Question
A 42-year-old male with a history of prosthetic cardiac valve is scheduled for extraction of 36. He has no drug allergy. The dentist plans antibiotic prophylaxis with amoxicillin. When should the antibiotic ideally be administered?
Correct
ANSWER
1 hour before the procedureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For prevention of infective endocarditis in high-risk patients, amoxicillin 2 g orally (adult dose) is given 30ā60 minutes before the procedure to ensure adequate serum concentration at the time of bacteremia.
ā Post-procedure administration alone is not effective.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Petersonās Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
1 hour before the procedureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā For prevention of infective endocarditis in high-risk patients, amoxicillin 2 g orally (adult dose) is given 30ā60 minutes before the procedure to ensure adequate serum concentration at the time of bacteremia.
ā Post-procedure administration alone is not effective.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Petersonās Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 16 of 150
16. Question
A 50-year-old patient complains of persistent foul odor from the mouth despite good oral hygiene. Intraoral examination is unremarkable. Which systemic condition is classically associated with a characteristic acetone-like odor?
Correct
ANSWER
DiabetesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā In diabetic ketoacidosis, patients exhibit a characteristic fruity or acetone odor due to ketone body accumulation.
ā While rhinitis and tonsillitis may contribute to halitosis, the classic systemic fetor is seen in uncontrolled diabetes.REFERENCE
Burketās Oral Medicine, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
DiabetesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā In diabetic ketoacidosis, patients exhibit a characteristic fruity or acetone odor due to ketone body accumulation.
ā While rhinitis and tonsillitis may contribute to halitosis, the classic systemic fetor is seen in uncontrolled diabetes.REFERENCE
Burketās Oral Medicine, 13th ed. -
Question 17 of 150
17. Question
A 25-year-old female presents with clicking sound in the right TMJ during mouth opening and closing. There is no pain and no limitation in mouth opening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Disc displacement with reductionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Disc displacement without reduction – Disc displacement without reduction presents with limited opening (closed lock).
ā Rheumatoid arthritis – Rheumatoid arthritis shows pain, stiffness, and radiographic changes.
ā Condylar fracture – Condylar fracture presents with trauma history and occlusal changes.SYNOPSIS
ā A clicking sound with normal mouth opening is characteristic of disc displacement with reduction, where the displaced disc returns to normal position during opening.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Disc displacement with reductionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Disc displacement without reduction – Disc displacement without reduction presents with limited opening (closed lock).
ā Rheumatoid arthritis – Rheumatoid arthritis shows pain, stiffness, and radiographic changes.
ā Condylar fracture – Condylar fracture presents with trauma history and occlusal changes.SYNOPSIS
ā A clicking sound with normal mouth opening is characteristic of disc displacement with reduction, where the displaced disc returns to normal position during opening.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 18 of 150
18. Question
12 years old patient presented with 4 mm midline diastema shows mesiodens and high frenal attachment on examination. What is the treatment option?
Correct
ANSWER
Immediate extraction of mesiodens and ortho treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Frenectomy and then extraction of mesiodens – If Frenectomy is performed before the orthodontic procedure, the scar tissue might impede the closure of diastema.SYNOPSIS
⢠First extraction is required to allow the diastema to close.
⢠Generally abnormal frenal attachment may require removal either before orthodontic treatment or at the end of active treatment.
⢠The advantage of excision before orthodontic treatment is the ease of surgical access. But, if the surgery is performed before the orthodontic procedure, the scar tissue might impede the closure of diastema.
⢠But the noted advantage of excision after orthodontic tooth movement is the scar tissue formation which helps maintain closure of diastema.REFERENCE
Spontaneous closure of midline diastema following frenectomy- Kiran Koora
April 2007 Journal of Indian Society of Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry.Incorrect
ANSWER
Immediate extraction of mesiodens and ortho treatmentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Frenectomy and then extraction of mesiodens – If Frenectomy is performed before the orthodontic procedure, the scar tissue might impede the closure of diastema.SYNOPSIS
⢠First extraction is required to allow the diastema to close.
⢠Generally abnormal frenal attachment may require removal either before orthodontic treatment or at the end of active treatment.
⢠The advantage of excision before orthodontic treatment is the ease of surgical access. But, if the surgery is performed before the orthodontic procedure, the scar tissue might impede the closure of diastema.
⢠But the noted advantage of excision after orthodontic tooth movement is the scar tissue formation which helps maintain closure of diastema.REFERENCE
Spontaneous closure of midline diastema following frenectomy- Kiran Koora
April 2007 Journal of Indian Society of Pedodontics and Preventive Dentistry. -
Question 19 of 150
19. Question
A patient reports trauma to the chin. On opening the mouth, the mandible deviates to the right side. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Right condylar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In unilateral condylar fracture, the mandible deviates toward the affected side due to loss of translatory movement of that condyle and unopposed action of the contralateral lateral pterygoid muscle.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Right condylar fractureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In unilateral condylar fracture, the mandible deviates toward the affected side due to loss of translatory movement of that condyle and unopposed action of the contralateral lateral pterygoid muscle.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 20 of 150
20. Question
A 22-year-old patient presents with intrinsic brown-gray discoloration of anterior teeth due to tetracycline ingestion during childhood. Oral hygiene is good. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct
ANSWER
Vital bleachingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Tetracycline stains are intrinsic stains incorporated into dentin during tooth development.
ā Scaling or polishing will not remove intrinsic stains.
ā Vital bleaching is the conservative first-line treatment.
ā Severe cases may require veneers or crowns.REFERENCE
Heymann HO, Swift EJ. Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Vital bleachingOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Tetracycline stains are intrinsic stains incorporated into dentin during tooth development.
ā Scaling or polishing will not remove intrinsic stains.
ā Vital bleaching is the conservative first-line treatment.
ā Severe cases may require veneers or crowns.REFERENCE
Heymann HO, Swift EJ. Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed. -
Question 21 of 150
21. Question
A 9-year-old boy reports 2 hours after trauma to maxillary central incisor. Clinical examination reveals a small pulp exposure (less than 1 mm), no mobility, and immature root with open apex. The tooth is asymptomatic except for mild tenderness. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Direct pulp cappingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulpotomy is carried out when there is a large pulp exposure
⢠Apexification – Apexification is a method of treatment for immature permanent teeth in which root growth and development cease due to pulp necrosis.SYNOPSIS
⢠The direct pulp cap is only indicated in small exposures that can be treated within a few hours of the injury.
⢠The chances for pulp healing decrease if the tissue is inflamed, has formed a clot, or is contaminated with foreign materials.
⢠The objective, then, is to preserve vital pulp tissue that is free of inflammation and physiologically walled off by a calcific barrier.
⢠In a young permanent tooth with recent traumatic pulp exposure and open apex, preserving pulp vitality is critical for continued root development (apexogenesis).REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 499Incorrect
ANSWER
Direct pulp cappingOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulpotomy is carried out when there is a large pulp exposure
⢠Apexification – Apexification is a method of treatment for immature permanent teeth in which root growth and development cease due to pulp necrosis.SYNOPSIS
⢠The direct pulp cap is only indicated in small exposures that can be treated within a few hours of the injury.
⢠The chances for pulp healing decrease if the tissue is inflamed, has formed a clot, or is contaminated with foreign materials.
⢠The objective, then, is to preserve vital pulp tissue that is free of inflammation and physiologically walled off by a calcific barrier.
⢠In a young permanent tooth with recent traumatic pulp exposure and open apex, preserving pulp vitality is critical for continued root development (apexogenesis).REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 499 -
Question 22 of 150
22. Question

During access opening of a maxillary central incisor, the clinician finds the canal orifice much earlier than expected and notices a large oval radiolucency within the root on preoperative radiograph. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Internal resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In internal resorption, the canal space appears ballooned radiographically, and clinically the canal may appear enlarged or encountered earlier during access due to internal dentinal destruction.
ā External resorption shows irregular root outline and canal remains intact radiographically.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Internal resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In internal resorption, the canal space appears ballooned radiographically, and clinically the canal may appear enlarged or encountered earlier during access due to internal dentinal destruction.
ā External resorption shows irregular root outline and canal remains intact radiographically.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 23 of 150
23. Question
A patient presents with fever (39°C), diffuse swelling of upper lip and nasal region. The maxillary anterior teeth are tender to percussion and non-vital. What is the immediate management?
Correct
ANSWER
Incision and drainage with antibioticsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā This is an acute odontogenic infection with systemic involvement (fever).
ā Management includes
– Establish drainage (I and D or through root canal)
– Empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
– Eliminate source of infection
ā Antibiotics alone are insufficient without drainage.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Incision and drainage with antibioticsOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā This is an acute odontogenic infection with systemic involvement (fever).
ā Management includes
– Establish drainage (I and D or through root canal)
– Empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics
– Eliminate source of infection
ā Antibiotics alone are insufficient without drainage.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ et al. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 24 of 150
24. Question

A 12-year-old child presents with a large carious lesion in mandibular first molar. A reddish, fleshy mass protrudes from the cavity, bleeds easily but is painless. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical granuloma – A periapical granuloma is a common, often asymptomatic, inflammatory lesion that develops at the root tip of a dead (necrotic) tooth, usually following untreated dental decay, trauma, or pulpal infection.
ā Pyogenic granuloma – Pyogenic granuloma is a reactive, non-neoplastic inflammatory hyperplasia of connective tissue characterized by an exuberant proliferation of granulation tissue in response to local irritation, trauma, or hormonal influences.
ā Peripheral giant cell granuloma – Peripheral giant cell granuloma is a reactive, non-neoplastic proliferative lesion of the gingiva or edentulous alveolar ridgeSYNOPSIS
ā In young patients with open carious exposure and good vascularity, chronic irritation leads to hyperplastic pulp tissue overgrowth (pulp polyp).
ā It appears as a red, painless, fleshy mass.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Periapical granuloma – A periapical granuloma is a common, often asymptomatic, inflammatory lesion that develops at the root tip of a dead (necrotic) tooth, usually following untreated dental decay, trauma, or pulpal infection.
ā Pyogenic granuloma – Pyogenic granuloma is a reactive, non-neoplastic inflammatory hyperplasia of connective tissue characterized by an exuberant proliferation of granulation tissue in response to local irritation, trauma, or hormonal influences.
ā Peripheral giant cell granuloma – Peripheral giant cell granuloma is a reactive, non-neoplastic proliferative lesion of the gingiva or edentulous alveolar ridgeSYNOPSIS
ā In young patients with open carious exposure and good vascularity, chronic irritation leads to hyperplastic pulp tissue overgrowth (pulp polyp).
ā It appears as a red, painless, fleshy mass.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th ed -
Question 25 of 150
25. Question
Related question – what will be the status of pulp in the above case?
Correct
ANSWER
Chronically inflamed but vital pulpOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp) is a form of chronic, irreversible pulpitis characterized by excessive proliferation of granulation tissue, typically in young, high-resistance teeth with large, open carious exposures.
ā The pulp isĀ actively inflamed, vascular, and often asymptomatic, appearing as a fleshy, reddish tissue mass protruding from the chamber.Ā The pulp tissue is not necrotic in this stage but in an irreversibly inflamed condition.
ā Due to the chronic nature, the lesion is often asymptomatic or only causes discomfort (pain, bleeding) when chewed upon.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Chronically inflamed but vital pulpOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp) is a form of chronic, irreversible pulpitis characterized by excessive proliferation of granulation tissue, typically in young, high-resistance teeth with large, open carious exposures.
ā The pulp isĀ actively inflamed, vascular, and often asymptomatic, appearing as a fleshy, reddish tissue mass protruding from the chamber.Ā The pulp tissue is not necrotic in this stage but in an irreversibly inflamed condition.
ā Due to the chronic nature, the lesion is often asymptomatic or only causes discomfort (pain, bleeding) when chewed upon.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th edition -
Question 26 of 150
26. Question
Related question – How will you treat the case?
Correct
ANSWER
PulpectomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp) is a form of chronic irreversible pulpitis.
ā Although the pulp is vital, it is irreversibly inflamed, so conservative pulp therapy like direct or indirect pulp capping is contraindicated.
ā Management depends on restorability of the tooth. In this case, it’s restorable so pulpectomy is the choice of treatment.
ā In non-restorable cases, extraction is the best choice.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
PulpectomyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp) is a form of chronic irreversible pulpitis.
ā Although the pulp is vital, it is irreversibly inflamed, so conservative pulp therapy like direct or indirect pulp capping is contraindicated.
ā Management depends on restorability of the tooth. In this case, it’s restorable so pulpectomy is the choice of treatment.
ā In non-restorable cases, extraction is the best choice.REFERENCE
Grossmanās Endodontic Practice, 13th edition -
Question 27 of 150
27. Question
What is the estimated percentage of the incidence of nerve damage during mandibular third molar surgery?
Correct
ANSWER
5% or lessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā During mandibular third molar surgery, injury to the inferior alveolar nerve and or lingual nerve is a known but uncommon complication.
ā Overall incidence of nerve injury – less than 5%
ā Permanent nerve damage – usually less than 1%
ā Most injuries are temporary (neuropraxia) and resolve within weeks to monthsREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
5% or lessOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā During mandibular third molar surgery, injury to the inferior alveolar nerve and or lingual nerve is a known but uncommon complication.
ā Overall incidence of nerve injury – less than 5%
ā Permanent nerve damage – usually less than 1%
ā Most injuries are temporary (neuropraxia) and resolve within weeks to monthsREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 28 of 150
28. Question
Where should be the position of the loop in band and loop space maintainer?
Correct
ANSWER
Above the gingival marginOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The loop portion made from 36-mil wire is carefully contoured to the abutment tooth without restricting lateral movement of the primary canine.
⢠The loop is also contoured to within 1.5 mm of the alveolar ridge. The solder joints should fill the angle between the band and wire to avoid food and debris accumulation.
⢠If placed at the gingival margin or below the gingival margin causes poor oral hygiene maintainance, high caries rate, and children with irregular attendance, as the gingival tissues may grow over the space maintainer.REFERENCE
⢠Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 11 -Page 389.Incorrect
ANSWER
Above the gingival marginOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The loop portion made from 36-mil wire is carefully contoured to the abutment tooth without restricting lateral movement of the primary canine.
⢠The loop is also contoured to within 1.5 mm of the alveolar ridge. The solder joints should fill the angle between the band and wire to avoid food and debris accumulation.
⢠If placed at the gingival margin or below the gingival margin causes poor oral hygiene maintainance, high caries rate, and children with irregular attendance, as the gingival tissues may grow over the space maintainer.REFERENCE
⢠Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 11 -Page 389. -
Question 29 of 150
29. Question
A 32-year-old patient is scheduled for ultrasonic scaling. As part of infection control protocol, the dentist asks the patient to rinse before starting the procedure to reduce aerosol contamination.Which of the following mouthrinses is most effective in reducing oral microbial load before dental treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Chlorhexidine gluconateOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Chlorhexidine (CHX) is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent with substantivity.
ā A 0.12ā0.2% rinse for 30ā60 seconds significantly reduces salivary microbial load and aerosol contamination during dental procedures.
ā Saline and distilled water lack antimicrobial action, hydrogen peroxide has limited short-term effect.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Chlorhexidine gluconateOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Chlorhexidine (CHX) is a broad-spectrum antimicrobial agent with substantivity.
ā A 0.12ā0.2% rinse for 30ā60 seconds significantly reduces salivary microbial load and aerosol contamination during dental procedures.
ā Saline and distilled water lack antimicrobial action, hydrogen peroxide has limited short-term effect.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed -
Question 30 of 150
30. Question
A dental intern removes gloves after a surgical extraction and immediately wears a new pair without washing hands. What is the correct recommendation regarding hand hygiene?
Correct
ANSWER
Wash hands before and after glove useOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Hand hygiene must be performed before donning gloves and after removing gloves, even if gloves appear intact.
ā Microperforations and contamination during removal can transmit microorganisms.REFERENCE
CDC Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care SettingsIncorrect
ANSWER
Wash hands before and after glove useOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Hand hygiene must be performed before donning gloves and after removing gloves, even if gloves appear intact.
ā Microperforations and contamination during removal can transmit microorganisms.REFERENCE
CDC Guidelines for Infection Control in Dental Health-Care Settings -
Question 31 of 150
31. Question
During working length determination, an electronic apex locator shows a reading beyond the apex despite correct radiographic length. The tooth has a history of attrition.Which condition most likely explains this finding?
Correct
ANSWER
Apical cementum appositionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā With age and attrition, secondary cementum deposition occurs at the apex, shifting the apical constriction coronally.
ā Radiographic apex does not correspond to apical constriction, causing discrepancy in apex locator readings.REFERENCE
Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp, 11th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Apical cementum appositionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā With age and attrition, secondary cementum deposition occurs at the apex, shifting the apical constriction coronally.
ā Radiographic apex does not correspond to apical constriction, causing discrepancy in apex locator readings.REFERENCE
Cohenās Pathways of the Pulp, 11th edition -
Question 32 of 150
32. Question

A 40-year-old female presents with a painful round ulcers on alveolar mucosa with erythematous halo and yellowish base. She reports similar episodes in the past. Lesion heals within 7ā10 days without scarring. Most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Recurrent aphthous stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (minor type) presents as small, painful ulcers on non-keratinized mucosa, healing in 7ā10 days without scarring.
ā Herpetic lesions typically affect keratinized mucosa and begin as vesicles.REFERENCE
Shaferās Textbook of Oral Pathology, 9th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Recurrent aphthous stomatitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Recurrent aphthous stomatitis (minor type) presents as small, painful ulcers on non-keratinized mucosa, healing in 7ā10 days without scarring.
ā Herpetic lesions typically affect keratinized mucosa and begin as vesicles.REFERENCE
Shaferās Textbook of Oral Pathology, 9th edition -
Question 33 of 150
33. Question
During periodontal screening, a 35-year-old patient shows a BPE score of 3 in the lower right sextant. What does this indicate?
Correct
ANSWER
Pocket depth 4ā5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Score 0 (Healthy) – No treatment needed. Plaque control, good brushing, and flossing recommended.
ā Score 1 (Gingivitis) – Bleeding on probing, no pockets. Improve oral hygiene, and interdental cleaning (e.g., floss).
ā Score 2 (Calculus or Plaque) – Plaque-retentive factors (calculus, overhanging fillings) present. Treatment – Professional cleaning (scaling) and removal of plaque traps.
ā Score 3 (Moderate Pocketing) – Pockets 3.5ā5.5 mm. Treatment – Initial periodontal therapy, including deep scaling or root planing and improved oral hygiene.
ā Score 4 (Deep Pocketing) – Pockets. Treatment – Comprehensive periodontal treatment, including deeper scaling, and potential specialist (periodontist) referral.
ā * (Furcation) – Used with codes 3 or 4 to indicate pocketing involves the area between the roots of multi-rooted teeth.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Pocket depth 4ā5 mmOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Score 0 (Healthy) – No treatment needed. Plaque control, good brushing, and flossing recommended.
ā Score 1 (Gingivitis) – Bleeding on probing, no pockets. Improve oral hygiene, and interdental cleaning (e.g., floss).
ā Score 2 (Calculus or Plaque) – Plaque-retentive factors (calculus, overhanging fillings) present. Treatment – Professional cleaning (scaling) and removal of plaque traps.
ā Score 3 (Moderate Pocketing) – Pockets 3.5ā5.5 mm. Treatment – Initial periodontal therapy, including deep scaling or root planing and improved oral hygiene.
ā Score 4 (Deep Pocketing) – Pockets. Treatment – Comprehensive periodontal treatment, including deeper scaling, and potential specialist (periodontist) referral.
ā * (Furcation) – Used with codes 3 or 4 to indicate pocketing involves the area between the roots of multi-rooted teeth.REFERENCE
Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology, 13th ed. -
Question 34 of 150
34. Question
A 28-year-old patient requires restoration of a large Class II cavity on mandibular first molar involving occlusal load-bearing area. Which composite is most appropriate?
Correct
ANSWER
Packable compositeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Flowable composite – Used as a liner or base in small cavities, cervical lesions, and for sealing pits and fissures due to its low viscosity and good adaptability.
ā Microfilled composite – Used mainly for anterior restorations where superior polishability and esthetics are required.
ā Compomer – Used commonly in pediatric and nonāstress-bearing restorations because it releases fluoride with better esthetics than GICSYNOPSIS
ā Packable composites have higher filler content, improved strength, and better resistance to occlusal forces, making them suitable for stress-bearing posterior restorations.REFERENCE
Anusavice. Phillipsā Science of Dental Materials, 12th edIncorrect
ANSWER
Packable compositeOTHER OPTIONS
ā Flowable composite – Used as a liner or base in small cavities, cervical lesions, and for sealing pits and fissures due to its low viscosity and good adaptability.
ā Microfilled composite – Used mainly for anterior restorations where superior polishability and esthetics are required.
ā Compomer – Used commonly in pediatric and nonāstress-bearing restorations because it releases fluoride with better esthetics than GICSYNOPSIS
ā Packable composites have higher filler content, improved strength, and better resistance to occlusal forces, making them suitable for stress-bearing posterior restorations.REFERENCE
Anusavice. Phillipsā Science of Dental Materials, 12th ed -
Question 35 of 150
35. Question
During endodontic treatment of a mandibular central incisor, correct access cavity design should be
Correct
ANSWER
OvalOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular incisors have narrow mesiodistal but broader labiolingual dimension
ā Therefore, access cavity is oval labiolingually to locate possible second canal.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
OvalOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Mandibular incisors have narrow mesiodistal but broader labiolingual dimension
ā Therefore, access cavity is oval labiolingually to locate possible second canal.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th ed. -
Question 36 of 150
36. Question
During radiographic evaluation of a primary molar, the permanent premolar crypt is seen developing
Correct
ANSWER
LinguallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Permanent successors develop lingual to primary teeth in early stages before erupting into proper alignment.REFERENCE
Wheelerās Dental Anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion, 11th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
LinguallyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Permanent successors develop lingual to primary teeth in early stages before erupting into proper alignment.REFERENCE
Wheelerās Dental Anatomy, Physiology and Occlusion, 11th edition -
Question 37 of 150
37. Question
A 26-year-old woman in her 8th week of pregnancy reports with mild dental pain. Which of the following is contraindicated in the first trimester?
Correct
ANSWER
RadiographOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lidocaine with epinephrine – Lidocaine (Category B) is considered safe.SYNOPSIS
ā Elective radiographs are not advisable because organogenesis occurs during weeks 2ā8 (highest teratogenic risk).
ā However, if absolutely necessary, dental radiographs can be taken with
– Lead apron
– Thyroid collar
– Digital or fast film
– Proper collimation
ā Aspirin or acetylsalicylic acid is contraindicated in third trimester due to risk of premature closure of ductus arteriosus, prolonged labor, increased maternal and fetal bleedingREFERENCE
Little and Falace. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
RadiographOTHER OPTIONS
ā Lidocaine with epinephrine – Lidocaine (Category B) is considered safe.SYNOPSIS
ā Elective radiographs are not advisable because organogenesis occurs during weeks 2ā8 (highest teratogenic risk).
ā However, if absolutely necessary, dental radiographs can be taken with
– Lead apron
– Thyroid collar
– Digital or fast film
– Proper collimation
ā Aspirin or acetylsalicylic acid is contraindicated in third trimester due to risk of premature closure of ductus arteriosus, prolonged labor, increased maternal and fetal bleedingREFERENCE
Little and Falace. Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th ed. -
Question 38 of 150
38. Question
The vertical overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors is called?
Correct
ANSWER
OverbiteOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Open bite – Openbite is a dental condition where there is a lack of vertical overlap between the upper and lower teeth when the jaws are closed, resulting in a gap between the teeth, either anteriorly or posteriorly.
⢠Deep bite – Deep bite or deep overbite is defined as excessive vertical overlapping of the mandibular incisors by the maxillary incisors in centric occlusion.
⢠Overjet – Horizontal overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors.SYNOPSIS
⢠Overbite is the vertical overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors.
⢠Normal overbite is 2-4mmREFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 8 -Page 249Incorrect
ANSWER
OverbiteOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Open bite – Openbite is a dental condition where there is a lack of vertical overlap between the upper and lower teeth when the jaws are closed, resulting in a gap between the teeth, either anteriorly or posteriorly.
⢠Deep bite – Deep bite or deep overbite is defined as excessive vertical overlapping of the mandibular incisors by the maxillary incisors in centric occlusion.
⢠Overjet – Horizontal overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors.SYNOPSIS
⢠Overbite is the vertical overlap of the maxillary central incisors over the mandibular central incisors.
⢠Normal overbite is 2-4mmREFERENCE
Contemporary Orthodontics-William R.Proffit,Henry W. Fields,Brent larson,David M.Sarver-Chapter 8 -Page 249 -
Question 39 of 150
39. Question
While fabricating a maxillary complete denture, the dentist is determining the posterior extension to achieve proper retention. The posterior palatal seal is established at the
Correct
ANSWER
Vibrating lineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā The posterior palatal seal is placed at or slightly posterior to the vibrating line (junction of movable and immovable soft palate) to ensure retention and compensate for polymerization shrinkage.
ā Hamular notch forms lateral boundary but not the posterior limit alone.
ā Retromolar pad is mandibular landmark.REFERENCE
Boucherās Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous PatientsIncorrect
ANSWER
Vibrating lineOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā The posterior palatal seal is placed at or slightly posterior to the vibrating line (junction of movable and immovable soft palate) to ensure retention and compensate for polymerization shrinkage.
ā Hamular notch forms lateral boundary but not the posterior limit alone.
ā Retromolar pad is mandibular landmark.REFERENCE
Boucherās Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients -
Question 40 of 150
40. Question
Which statement is FALSE regarding dentinal hypersensitivity?
Correct
ANSWER
It is the most successfully cured chronic dental diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Dentinal hypersensitivity is common and prevalent (8ā30%) especially in young adults.
ā It is explained by BrƤnnstrƶmās hydrodynamic theory.
ā However, it is not easily or permanently cured and often requires long-term management.REFERENCE
Addy M. Dentine hypersensitivity: new perspectives. J Clin Periodontol.Incorrect
ANSWER
It is the most successfully cured chronic dental diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Dentinal hypersensitivity is common and prevalent (8ā30%) especially in young adults.
ā It is explained by BrƤnnstrƶmās hydrodynamic theory.
ā However, it is not easily or permanently cured and often requires long-term management.REFERENCE
Addy M. Dentine hypersensitivity: new perspectives. J Clin Periodontol. -
Question 41 of 150
41. Question
A 65-year-old edentulous patient receives complete dentures. On review, posterior teeth overlap and instability is noted during mastication. The most probable cause is
Correct
ANSWER
Incorrect posterior tooth arrangementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Improper posterior tooth positioning (outside neutral zone or incorrect occlusal scheme) leads to instability and overlapping issues in complete dentures.REFERENCE
Boucherās Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous PatientsIncorrect
ANSWER
Incorrect posterior tooth arrangementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Improper posterior tooth positioning (outside neutral zone or incorrect occlusal scheme) leads to instability and overlapping issues in complete dentures.REFERENCE
Boucherās Prosthodontic Treatment for Edentulous Patients -
Question 42 of 150
42. Question
A patient has a completely edentulous maxilla opposing natural mandibular teeth. The dentist anticipates treatment challenges.The most common difficulty is
Correct
ANSWER
Maintaining occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā This situation predisposes to combination syndrome, where occlusal imbalance and excessive anterior forces cause bone resorption and instability.
ā Occlusion control is the main challenge.REFERENCE
Kelly E. āChanges caused by a mandibular removable partial denture opposing a maxillary complete denture – Journal of Prosthet Dentistry.Incorrect
ANSWER
Maintaining occlusionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā This situation predisposes to combination syndrome, where occlusal imbalance and excessive anterior forces cause bone resorption and instability.
ā Occlusion control is the main challenge.REFERENCE
Kelly E. āChanges caused by a mandibular removable partial denture opposing a maxillary complete denture – Journal of Prosthet Dentistry. -
Question 43 of 150
43. Question
A 40-year-old patient reports debonding of a zirconia crown 6 months after cementation. On examination, crown structure is intact. Most likely reason for failure
Correct
ANSWER
Weak bond between zirconia and resin cementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Zirconia is non-etchable by conventional hydrofluoric acid and does not bond well without surface treatment (air abrasion + MDP primer).
ā Poor bonding protocol leads to debonding.REFERENCE
Anusavice. Phillipsā Science of Dental Materials, 12th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Weak bond between zirconia and resin cementOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Zirconia is non-etchable by conventional hydrofluoric acid and does not bond well without surface treatment (air abrasion + MDP primer).
ā Poor bonding protocol leads to debonding.REFERENCE
Anusavice. Phillipsā Science of Dental Materials, 12th ed. -
Question 44 of 150
44. Question
During crown preparation, gingival retraction cord is removed prior to impression making. Optimal time to make impression after cord removal is
Correct
ANSWER
ImmediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Impression should be made promptly (within 1 minute) after removal of retraction cord before gingival tissues rebound and sulcus collapses.REFERENCE
Shillingburg. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
ImmediatelyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Impression should be made promptly (within 1 minute) after removal of retraction cord before gingival tissues rebound and sulcus collapses.REFERENCE
Shillingburg. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed. -
Question 45 of 150
45. Question
A 28-year-old patient undergoes Class II amalgam restoration on mandibular first molar. After cavity preparation, the dentist applies two coats of varnish before placing amalgam. What is the primary purpose of applying varnish in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
To reduce postoperative sensitivity by sealing dentinal tubulesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Cavity varnish forms a thin resin film that occludes dentinal tubules, thereby reducing microleakage and postoperative sensitivity in amalgam restorations.
ā It does not chemically bond amalgam nor increase its strength. It also does not release fluoride.REFERENCE
Sturdevant CM et al. Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
To reduce postoperative sensitivity by sealing dentinal tubulesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Cavity varnish forms a thin resin film that occludes dentinal tubules, thereby reducing microleakage and postoperative sensitivity in amalgam restorations.
ā It does not chemically bond amalgam nor increase its strength. It also does not release fluoride.REFERENCE
Sturdevant CM et al. Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed. -
Question 46 of 150
46. Question
A 22-year-old patient receives a Class II composite restoration. The dentist performs 37% phosphoric acid etching before applying bonding agent. What is the primary purpose of acid etching in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
To remove smear layer and create microporosities for micromechanical retentionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Acid etching removes the smear layer and demineralizes enamel or dentin, creating microporosities that allow resin infiltration and hybrid layer formation, improving micromechanical retention.REFERENCE
Sturdevant CM et al. Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th edIncorrect
ANSWER
To remove smear layer and create microporosities for micromechanical retentionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Acid etching removes the smear layer and demineralizes enamel or dentin, creating microporosities that allow resin infiltration and hybrid layer formation, improving micromechanical retention.REFERENCE
Sturdevant CM et al. Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 7th ed -
Question 47 of 150
47. Question
After completion of orthodontic treatment, the patient came complaining of pink discolouration in his anterior tooth. Radiograph shows resorption in the middle third of the root of upper anterior tooth. What is the treatment?Ā
Correct
ANSWER
Initiate RCT and apply Calcium hydroxide as intracanal medicament at the site of resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Internal root resorption is a pathologic process that occurs because of external stimuli that affect the pulp and result in the loss of dentinal tissue. The occurrence of IRR is considered relatively rare, and the etiology is not fully understood, although trauma is believed to be the main etiologic agent.
⢠Besides trauma, stimulation by infection or pressure (orthodontic force) can induce Internal root resorption.
⢠Root resorption in orthodontics is referred to as induced inflammatory resorption, and it is a form of pathological root resorption, in which orthodontic forces are transferred to the teeth.
⢠In the crown of the asymptomatic tooth, internal resorption may be manifested as a reddish area or pink spot often called the pink tooth of Mummery.
⢠Extraction is not the treatment of choice.
⢠The tooth can be saved by doing RCT depending on the extent of the lesion.
⢠Single visit endo is not indicated as Calcium hydroxide repeated dressing is needed for the healing.
⢠Calcium hydroxide is spun into the canal to facilitate the removal of the tissue in the irregular defect at the next visit.REFERENCE
1. Ingles endodontics pg 435
2. Grossman’s endodontic practice pg 65Incorrect
ANSWER
Initiate RCT and apply Calcium hydroxide as intracanal medicament at the site of resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Internal root resorption is a pathologic process that occurs because of external stimuli that affect the pulp and result in the loss of dentinal tissue. The occurrence of IRR is considered relatively rare, and the etiology is not fully understood, although trauma is believed to be the main etiologic agent.
⢠Besides trauma, stimulation by infection or pressure (orthodontic force) can induce Internal root resorption.
⢠Root resorption in orthodontics is referred to as induced inflammatory resorption, and it is a form of pathological root resorption, in which orthodontic forces are transferred to the teeth.
⢠In the crown of the asymptomatic tooth, internal resorption may be manifested as a reddish area or pink spot often called the pink tooth of Mummery.
⢠Extraction is not the treatment of choice.
⢠The tooth can be saved by doing RCT depending on the extent of the lesion.
⢠Single visit endo is not indicated as Calcium hydroxide repeated dressing is needed for the healing.
⢠Calcium hydroxide is spun into the canal to facilitate the removal of the tissue in the irregular defect at the next visit.REFERENCE
1. Ingles endodontics pg 435
2. Grossman’s endodontic practice pg 65 -
Question 48 of 150
48. Question
A 35-year-old patient reports pain in a previously root canal treated tooth. Retreatment is planned. The dentist decides to initially remove gutta-percha from the canal. Which is the preferred method for initial removal of gutta-percha in retreatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Rotary retreatment filesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Rotary NiTi retreatment systems are commonly used for efficient removal of gutta-percha.
ā Hand files may be used adjunctively, but rotary instruments are preferred for initial bulk removalREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Rotary retreatment filesOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Rotary NiTi retreatment systems are commonly used for efficient removal of gutta-percha.
ā Hand files may be used adjunctively, but rotary instruments are preferred for initial bulk removalREFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th Edition -
Question 49 of 150
49. Question
A 30-year-old patient presents with asymptomatic pink discoloration of crown. Radiograph shows a well-defined radiolucent enlargement of the root canal space with smooth margins. Which of the following is NOT true about internal resorption?
Correct
ANSWER
It shifts with change in angulationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Internal resorption remains centered within the canal and does not shift with parallax technique.
ā Shifting indicates external resorption. It presents as smooth, symmetrical ballooning of canal space.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
It shifts with change in angulationOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Internal resorption remains centered within the canal and does not shift with parallax technique.
ā Shifting indicates external resorption. It presents as smooth, symmetrical ballooning of canal space.REFERENCE
Ingleās Endodontics, 7th edition -
Question 50 of 150
50. Question
A 7-year-old child presents with infra-occluded primary mandibular first molar. Radiograph shows absence of PDL space and replacement of root by bone. Permanent successor is developing normally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Ankylosis of primary molarOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Ankylosed primary molars show infra-occlusion and absence of PDL space radiographically.
ā Bone directly fuses to root surface, preventing normal exfoliation.REFERENCE
McDonald RE, Avery DR. Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, 10th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Ankylosis of primary molarOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Ankylosed primary molars show infra-occlusion and absence of PDL space radiographically.
ā Bone directly fuses to root surface, preventing normal exfoliation.REFERENCE
McDonald RE, Avery DR. Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent, 10th ed. -
Question 51 of 150
51. Question
A 24-year-old patient requires surgical removal of impacted mandibular third molar. Preoperative radiographic assessment is done. Which is the most important factor influencing surgical difficulty?
Correct
ANSWER
Depth of impactionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Depth of impaction and angulation (Winterās classification) are key determinants of surgical difficulty.
ā Greater depth increases complexity.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Petersonās Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Depth of impactionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Depth of impaction and angulation (Winterās classification) are key determinants of surgical difficulty.
ā Greater depth increases complexity.REFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Petersonās Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – 7th Edition -
Question 52 of 150
52. Question
Which form of dentin is found in deep caries?
Correct
ANSWER
Reactionary dentineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Primary dentin – The dentin which forms before root completion is called primary dentin.
⢠Secondary dentin – Formed after root completion physiologically (age-related).
⢠Sclerotic dentin – Forms in earlier stages of caries by tubular occlusion (defense mechanism) but is not the main dentin deposited adjacent to the pulp in deep caries.SYNOPSIS
⢠In deep caries with a vital pulp, odontoblasts respond to mild to moderate irritation by depositing reactionary dentin (a type of tertiary dentin).
⢠Reactionary dentin – Formed by existing odontoblasts in response to slowly progressing caries.
⢠Reparative dentin – Formed by newly differentiated odontoblast-like cells when original odontoblasts are destroyed.
⢠Thus, in deep caries with vital pulp, reactionary dentin is most characteristic.REFERENCE
Goldberg M et al. Reactionary and reparative dentin formation. J Dent Res. 2011.Incorrect
ANSWER
Reactionary dentineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Primary dentin – The dentin which forms before root completion is called primary dentin.
⢠Secondary dentin – Formed after root completion physiologically (age-related).
⢠Sclerotic dentin – Forms in earlier stages of caries by tubular occlusion (defense mechanism) but is not the main dentin deposited adjacent to the pulp in deep caries.SYNOPSIS
⢠In deep caries with a vital pulp, odontoblasts respond to mild to moderate irritation by depositing reactionary dentin (a type of tertiary dentin).
⢠Reactionary dentin – Formed by existing odontoblasts in response to slowly progressing caries.
⢠Reparative dentin – Formed by newly differentiated odontoblast-like cells when original odontoblasts are destroyed.
⢠Thus, in deep caries with vital pulp, reactionary dentin is most characteristic.REFERENCE
Goldberg M et al. Reactionary and reparative dentin formation. J Dent Res. 2011. -
Question 53 of 150
53. Question
What could be the caries susceptibility of teeth which lost pits and fissure sealant?
Correct
ANSWER
Lower than nonsealed teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠A sealant is a clear or opaque plastic material that is applied to the pits and fissures of teeth where decay occurs most often. The purpose of the sealant is to provide a physical barrier to occlude pits and fissures and to protect them from bacteria and food.
⢠Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer lesions than control teeth.
⢠This is possible due to the presence of tags that are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the sealant has been sheared from the tooth surface.
⢠When the resin sealer flows over the prepared surface it penetrates the finger-like depressions created by etching solution and making the tooth less susceptible to caries.
⢠Thus etched tooth surfaces are more resistant to acid attack.REFERENCE
Pit and fissure sealants – Oral Health Foundation – Article.Incorrect
ANSWER
Lower than nonsealed teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠A sealant is a clear or opaque plastic material that is applied to the pits and fissures of teeth where decay occurs most often. The purpose of the sealant is to provide a physical barrier to occlude pits and fissures and to protect them from bacteria and food.
⢠Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer lesions than control teeth.
⢠This is possible due to the presence of tags that are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the sealant has been sheared from the tooth surface.
⢠When the resin sealer flows over the prepared surface it penetrates the finger-like depressions created by etching solution and making the tooth less susceptible to caries.
⢠Thus etched tooth surfaces are more resistant to acid attack.REFERENCE
Pit and fissure sealants – Oral Health Foundation – Article. -
Question 54 of 150
54. Question
What condition represents dentinal tubules getting blocked by the precipitate of hydroxyapatite and whitlockite crystals within the tubules?
Correct
ANSWER
Dentinal sclerosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dentinogenesis – Formation of dentineSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentinal sclerosis or transparent dentin sclerosis of primary dentin is a change in the structure of teeth characterized by calcification of dentinal tubules.
⢠It can occur as a result of injury to dentin by caries or abrasion, or as part of the normal aging process.
⢠This form of dentine can be easily distinguished on the surface of a tooth, and is much darker in appearance compared to primary dentine.
Sclerosis results from aging is physiological dentine sclerosis and that resulting from a mild irritation is reactive dentine sclerosis.REFERENCE
Orban’s oral histology and embryology, 14th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Dentinal sclerosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dentinogenesis – Formation of dentineSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentinal sclerosis or transparent dentin sclerosis of primary dentin is a change in the structure of teeth characterized by calcification of dentinal tubules.
⢠It can occur as a result of injury to dentin by caries or abrasion, or as part of the normal aging process.
⢠This form of dentine can be easily distinguished on the surface of a tooth, and is much darker in appearance compared to primary dentine.
Sclerosis results from aging is physiological dentine sclerosis and that resulting from a mild irritation is reactive dentine sclerosis.REFERENCE
Orban’s oral histology and embryology, 14th edition -
Question 55 of 150
55. Question
What will be the meassure of ANB angle in severe class II case?
Correct
ANSWER
IncreaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The ANB angle provides a general idea of the anteroposterior discrepancy of the maxilla to the mandibular apical bases.
⢠+2 is considered ideal or average and usually indicates a balanced skeletal profile (Class I).
⢠Higher positive values(more than+ 4) suggest increasing Class II tendencies.
⢠Negative values (less than 0)suggest a Class III pattern.REFERENCE
Radiographic Cephalometry-Basics to Videoimaging-Alexander Jacobson-Chapter 6-Page 78.Incorrect
ANSWER
IncreaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The ANB angle provides a general idea of the anteroposterior discrepancy of the maxilla to the mandibular apical bases.
⢠+2 is considered ideal or average and usually indicates a balanced skeletal profile (Class I).
⢠Higher positive values(more than+ 4) suggest increasing Class II tendencies.
⢠Negative values (less than 0)suggest a Class III pattern.REFERENCE
Radiographic Cephalometry-Basics to Videoimaging-Alexander Jacobson-Chapter 6-Page 78. -
Question 56 of 150
56. Question
A young patient came to your clinic with pain in amalgam restoration done a week ago. What could be the possible cause?
Correct
ANSWER
Zinc containing alloyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Zinc-containing amalgam restorations can cause delayed expansion, which would be a reason for pain after amalgam restoration.
⢠Delayed expansion of amalgam often causes intense pain.
⢠It is assumed that when an expansion of this magnitude occurs, the restoration may become wedged so tightly against the cavity walls that pressure toward the pulp chamber results.
⢠Such pain may be experienced 10 to 12 days after the insertion of the restoration.
⢠If it is not removed, a contaminated amalgam restoration continues to expand and can result in a protruding restoration.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th edition, page number 532.Incorrect
ANSWER
Zinc containing alloyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Zinc-containing amalgam restorations can cause delayed expansion, which would be a reason for pain after amalgam restoration.
⢠Delayed expansion of amalgam often causes intense pain.
⢠It is assumed that when an expansion of this magnitude occurs, the restoration may become wedged so tightly against the cavity walls that pressure toward the pulp chamber results.
⢠Such pain may be experienced 10 to 12 days after the insertion of the restoration.
⢠If it is not removed, a contaminated amalgam restoration continues to expand and can result in a protruding restoration.REFERENCE
Phillips Science of Dental Materials, 11th edition, page number 532. -
Question 57 of 150
57. Question
Which has the highest coefficient of thermal expansion?
Correct
ANSWER
AmalgamOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The change in length per unit length of a material for a 1degree C change in temperature is called the linear coefficient of thermal expansion
⢠Materials such as acrylic resin and amalgam expand more than tooth tissue, whereas ceramic expands less.
⢠Amalgam has the highest coefficient of thermal expansion among the given materials, followed by gold, tooth, and glass ionomer.REFERENCE
Sturdevants Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 5th edition, page number 64.Incorrect
ANSWER
AmalgamOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The change in length per unit length of a material for a 1degree C change in temperature is called the linear coefficient of thermal expansion
⢠Materials such as acrylic resin and amalgam expand more than tooth tissue, whereas ceramic expands less.
⢠Amalgam has the highest coefficient of thermal expansion among the given materials, followed by gold, tooth, and glass ionomer.REFERENCE
Sturdevants Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 5th edition, page number 64. -
Question 58 of 150
58. Question
What type of amalgam is used as retrograde filling material?
Correct
ANSWER
Zinc freeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Amalgam without zinc tends to be less plastic and less workable.
⢠These alloys are used only for cases where it is difficult to control moisture, e.g. patients having excessive salivation, retrograde root canal filling, subgingival lesions, etc.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 139.Incorrect
ANSWER
Zinc freeOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Amalgam without zinc tends to be less plastic and less workable.
⢠These alloys are used only for cases where it is difficult to control moisture, e.g. patients having excessive salivation, retrograde root canal filling, subgingival lesions, etc.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 139. -
Question 59 of 150
59. Question
Arrange the steps of following materials in amalgam restoration?
1. Varnish
2.Calcium hydroxide
3.Amalgam
4.Zinc phosphateCorrect
ANSWER
2-4-1-3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
SYNOPSIS
⢠A variety of supplemental dental materials can be incorporated into a restorative procedure for the health and well-being of the tooth that is being restored.
⢠The order of placement of these materials in a restoration is liner, base, varnish, and restoration.
⢠In the case of amalgam, the order is Calcium hydroxide, Zinc Phosphate, varnish, and amalgam.REFERENCE
Liners, Bases, and Cements in Clinical Dentistry A Review Article.Incorrect
ANSWER
2-4-1-3OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
SYNOPSIS
⢠A variety of supplemental dental materials can be incorporated into a restorative procedure for the health and well-being of the tooth that is being restored.
⢠The order of placement of these materials in a restoration is liner, base, varnish, and restoration.
⢠In the case of amalgam, the order is Calcium hydroxide, Zinc Phosphate, varnish, and amalgam.REFERENCE
Liners, Bases, and Cements in Clinical Dentistry A Review Article. -
Question 60 of 150
60. Question
Which of the following property is achieved by the presence of tin in amalgam?
Correct
ANSWER
Decrease strengthOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Tin decreases strength and expansion and lengthens the setting time.
⢠Copper increases strength, reduces tarnish and corrosion, and reduces creep and, therefore, marginal deteriorationREFERENCE
Tarnish of Metallic Biomaterials – A Review – Decisions in dentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Decrease strengthOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Tin decreases strength and expansion and lengthens the setting time.
⢠Copper increases strength, reduces tarnish and corrosion, and reduces creep and, therefore, marginal deteriorationREFERENCE
Tarnish of Metallic Biomaterials – A Review – Decisions in dentistry -
Question 61 of 150
61. Question
A 62-year-old female on oral alendronate therapy for osteoporosis for 4 years requires extraction of a non-restorable molar. What is the most appropriate preventive measure to reduce the risk of MRONJ?
Correct
ANSWER
Atraumatic extraction with primary closure and antibiotic coverageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā To reduce MRONJ risk
– Atraumatic technique
– Smooth sharp bone edges
– Primary wound closure
– Chlorhexidine rinse
– Antibiotic prophylaxis when indicatedREFERENCE
Ruggiero SL et al. Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw – 2022 AAOMS Position Paper. J Oral Maxillofac Surg. 2022.Incorrect
ANSWER
Atraumatic extraction with primary closure and antibiotic coverageOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā To reduce MRONJ risk
– Atraumatic technique
– Smooth sharp bone edges
– Primary wound closure
– Chlorhexidine rinse
– Antibiotic prophylaxis when indicatedREFERENCE
Ruggiero SL et al. Medication-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw – 2022 AAOMS Position Paper. J Oral Maxillofac Surg. 2022. -
Question 62 of 150
62. Question
A 55-year-old hypertensive patient presents for RCT. Preoperative vitals are
Respiratory rate – 18 per min
BP – 158-90 mmHg
Temperature – 37°C
Which vital sign is most critical to evaluate before proceeding?Correct
ANSWER
Blood pressureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In dental practice, especially before invasive procedures, blood pressure is the most critical parameter to assess cardiovascular risk.
ā A reading of 158-90 mmHg indicates Stage 2 hypertension (ACC/AHA classification) and requires stress reduction measures.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 8th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Blood pressureOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā In dental practice, especially before invasive procedures, blood pressure is the most critical parameter to assess cardiovascular risk.
ā A reading of 158-90 mmHg indicates Stage 2 hypertension (ACC/AHA classification) and requires stress reduction measures.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 8th ed. -
Question 63 of 150
63. Question

A 10-year-old child presents with generalized enlargement of the gingiva, giving them a bulldog appearance. The gingiva is firm, pale pink, and covers a significant portion of the teeth. There is no evidence of inflammation or bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Correct
ANSWER
Gingival fibromatosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pericoronitis – Pericoronitis isĀ swelling of the gum tissue around the wisdom teeth.
⢠Periodontitis – Periodontitis is a gum infection that damages the soft tissue and bone that supports the tooth
⢠Pyogenic granuloma – OralĀ mucosalĀ pyogenicĀ granulomasĀ typicallyĀ developĀ on the lip and gums (gingiva) asĀ pedunculatedĀ orĀ sessileĀ slow-growing painless redĀ papulesĀ ranging in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters. The surface can be ulcerated with a yellow-fibrinous surface and easy bleeding.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hereditary gingival fibromatosis (HGF) is a rare disorder characterized by a benign, non-hemorrhagic, fibrous gingival overgrowth that can appear in isolation or as part of a syndrome.
⢠Clinically, a pink gingiva with marked stippling can be seen to cover almost all the tooth, in many cases preventing eruption.
⢠It usually begins during the transition from primary to permanent teeth, giving rise to a condition that can have negative psychological effects at that age.
⢠As it does not resolve spontaneously, the treatment of choice is gingivectomy.REFERENCE
Hereditary gingival fibromatosis – Characteristics and treatment approach Journal of Clinical and Experimental DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Gingival fibromatosisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pericoronitis – Pericoronitis isĀ swelling of the gum tissue around the wisdom teeth.
⢠Periodontitis – Periodontitis is a gum infection that damages the soft tissue and bone that supports the tooth
⢠Pyogenic granuloma – OralĀ mucosalĀ pyogenicĀ granulomasĀ typicallyĀ developĀ on the lip and gums (gingiva) asĀ pedunculatedĀ orĀ sessileĀ slow-growing painless redĀ papulesĀ ranging in size from a few millimeters to several centimeters. The surface can be ulcerated with a yellow-fibrinous surface and easy bleeding.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hereditary gingival fibromatosis (HGF) is a rare disorder characterized by a benign, non-hemorrhagic, fibrous gingival overgrowth that can appear in isolation or as part of a syndrome.
⢠Clinically, a pink gingiva with marked stippling can be seen to cover almost all the tooth, in many cases preventing eruption.
⢠It usually begins during the transition from primary to permanent teeth, giving rise to a condition that can have negative psychological effects at that age.
⢠As it does not resolve spontaneously, the treatment of choice is gingivectomy.REFERENCE
Hereditary gingival fibromatosis – Characteristics and treatment approach Journal of Clinical and Experimental Dentistry -
Question 64 of 150
64. Question
How much of reduction of non functioning cusps should done for onlay preparation?Ā
Correct
ANSWER
1 mmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠2mm – The amount of functional cusp reduction in amalgam is 2 mm and that of non-functional cusp is 1.5mm.SYNOPSIS
⢠The amount of functional cusp reduction in onlay is 1.5mm and that of nonfunctional cusp is 1 mm.
⢠Buccal and palatal inclinations of the palatal cusps were reduced evenly by 1.5 mm using a 1.4 fissure bur.
⢠For the buccal cusps, a 1 mm reduction was performed following cuspal inclinations.REFERENCE
Dental decks, Operative – Amalgam, card number 10.
Dental decks, Operative – Gold, card number 1.Incorrect
ANSWER
1 mmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠2mm – The amount of functional cusp reduction in amalgam is 2 mm and that of non-functional cusp is 1.5mm.SYNOPSIS
⢠The amount of functional cusp reduction in onlay is 1.5mm and that of nonfunctional cusp is 1 mm.
⢠Buccal and palatal inclinations of the palatal cusps were reduced evenly by 1.5 mm using a 1.4 fissure bur.
⢠For the buccal cusps, a 1 mm reduction was performed following cuspal inclinations.REFERENCE
Dental decks, Operative – Amalgam, card number 10.
Dental decks, Operative – Gold, card number 1. -
Question 65 of 150
65. Question
Which type of local anesthetic will you recommend for a pregnant woman who came to your clinic?
Correct
ANSWER
LignocaineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠The second trimester is weeks 14 through 27 in terms of gestational age.
⢠The risk of the teratogenic effects of drugs is lower during this period than during the first trimester.
⢠Elective dental treatment has been reported to be relatively safe during this period.
⢠Moreover, as the extent of physiological changes that occur during the second trimester is not too considerable, anesthesia is safer to perform in pregnant women for non-obstetric surgery in the second trimester than in the first or third trimester.
⢠Lidocaine with adrenaline is considered safe in pregnancy.
⢠Vasoconstrictors, mostly epinephrine, are added to lidocaine to reduce the absorption of the local anesthetic, reduce toxicity, and increase the analgesic effects.
⢠Vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine delays the absorption of local anesthetics by the mother, allowing the absorption of lidocaine to gradually occur in the maternal systemic circulation, while also allowing blood levels of lidocaine to gradually increase.
⢠The local anesthetic is transferred to the fetus slowly, and its margin of safety is also increased.REFERENCE
Use of local anesthetics for dental treatment during pregnancy, safety for parturient – Journal of Dental Anesthesia and Pain MedicineIncorrect
ANSWER
LignocaineOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠The second trimester is weeks 14 through 27 in terms of gestational age.
⢠The risk of the teratogenic effects of drugs is lower during this period than during the first trimester.
⢠Elective dental treatment has been reported to be relatively safe during this period.
⢠Moreover, as the extent of physiological changes that occur during the second trimester is not too considerable, anesthesia is safer to perform in pregnant women for non-obstetric surgery in the second trimester than in the first or third trimester.
⢠Lidocaine with adrenaline is considered safe in pregnancy.
⢠Vasoconstrictors, mostly epinephrine, are added to lidocaine to reduce the absorption of the local anesthetic, reduce toxicity, and increase the analgesic effects.
⢠Vasoconstriction induced by epinephrine delays the absorption of local anesthetics by the mother, allowing the absorption of lidocaine to gradually occur in the maternal systemic circulation, while also allowing blood levels of lidocaine to gradually increase.
⢠The local anesthetic is transferred to the fetus slowly, and its margin of safety is also increased.REFERENCE
Use of local anesthetics for dental treatment during pregnancy, safety for parturient – Journal of Dental Anesthesia and Pain Medicine -
Question 66 of 150
66. Question
What are the characteristics of amalgam restoration?
a)Micro leakage decreases with aging of the amalgam restoration
b)It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations
c)High dimensional changesCorrect
ANSWER
A and BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Dental amalgam has an exceptionally fine record of clinical performance because of its tendency to minimize marginal leakage as the restoration ages.
⢠Amalgam is not overly technique sensitive.
⢠Amalgams may expand or contract, depending on its manipulation. Ideally, dimensional change should be small.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 138, 154.Incorrect
ANSWER
A and BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Dental amalgam has an exceptionally fine record of clinical performance because of its tendency to minimize marginal leakage as the restoration ages.
⢠Amalgam is not overly technique sensitive.
⢠Amalgams may expand or contract, depending on its manipulation. Ideally, dimensional change should be small.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 138, 154. -
Question 67 of 150
67. Question
A 40 year old male patient cames to your clinic for routine implant evaluation. On examination, implant seems to be healthy. On probing around an implant, you are expected to find the pocket around implant to be?
Correct
ANSWER
Deeper than natural teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Probing depths of 1 mm to 3 mm are normal around natural teeth.
⢠Around dental implants desirable probing depths are 2.5 mm to 4 mm.
⢠Probing depths may be greater around implants than teeth, because there are no connective tissue fibres inserting into implants, and connective tissue adhesions adjacent to implants do not impede probe penetration as in natural teeth.REFERENCE
Dental implantology Article by Nicholas D Shumaker.Incorrect
ANSWER
Deeper than natural teethOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Probing depths of 1 mm to 3 mm are normal around natural teeth.
⢠Around dental implants desirable probing depths are 2.5 mm to 4 mm.
⢠Probing depths may be greater around implants than teeth, because there are no connective tissue fibres inserting into implants, and connective tissue adhesions adjacent to implants do not impede probe penetration as in natural teeth.REFERENCE
Dental implantology Article by Nicholas D Shumaker. -
Question 68 of 150
68. Question
What is the best method of disinfection for instruments that cannot be sterilized by heat or by other chemicals?
Correct
ANSWER
Full immersion in disinfectantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Immersion disinfectants are used for items that cannot be sterilized by heat or by other chemicals.
⢠Rinse out the bio burden and immerse completely in disinfectants.
⢠Then rinse out the disinfectants.
⢠Water based disinfectants are used better than alcohol based disinfectants.REFERENCE
Indian Journal of Infection control and Prevention in Dentistry.Incorrect
ANSWER
Full immersion in disinfectantsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Immersion disinfectants are used for items that cannot be sterilized by heat or by other chemicals.
⢠Rinse out the bio burden and immerse completely in disinfectants.
⢠Then rinse out the disinfectants.
⢠Water based disinfectants are used better than alcohol based disinfectants.REFERENCE
Indian Journal of Infection control and Prevention in Dentistry. -
Question 69 of 150
69. Question
What is the percentage of gutta percha in a gutta percha cone?
Correct
ANSWER
20 percentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Gutta percha is the most commonly used obturating material in root canal treatment.
⢠Composition of gutta percha includes –
⢠Matrix – gutta percha 20 percent
⢠Filler – zinc oxide 66 percent
⢠Radioopacifiers – heavy metal sulfates 11 percent
⢠Plasticizers – waxes or resins 3 percentREFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 346.Incorrect
ANSWER
20 percentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Gutta percha is the most commonly used obturating material in root canal treatment.
⢠Composition of gutta percha includes –
⢠Matrix – gutta percha 20 percent
⢠Filler – zinc oxide 66 percent
⢠Radioopacifiers – heavy metal sulfates 11 percent
⢠Plasticizers – waxes or resins 3 percentREFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 346. -
Question 70 of 150
70. Question
Which bleaching agent is safest to use in internal bleaching?
Correct
ANSWER
Sodium perborateOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Sodium perborate is a stable, white powder used for internal bleaching.
⢠Sodium perborate alone, rather than in combination with hydrogen peroxide should be used as the primary bleaching agent.
⢠Sodium perborate may bleach more slowly, it is safer for the tooth.
⢠Sodium perborate cause less chances for cervical resorption.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 510.Incorrect
ANSWER
Sodium perborateOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Sodium perborate is a stable, white powder used for internal bleaching.
⢠Sodium perborate alone, rather than in combination with hydrogen peroxide should be used as the primary bleaching agent.
⢠Sodium perborate may bleach more slowly, it is safer for the tooth.
⢠Sodium perborate cause less chances for cervical resorption.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 510. -
Question 71 of 150
71. Question
A 42 years old female patient came to your clinic with erythema, desquamation and ulceration of free and attached gingiva. You diagnosed the condition as desquamative gingivitis. What is the effective treatment for this type of gingivitis?
Correct
ANSWER
Topical steroidsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Scaling – Scaling and plaque control alone cannot control desquamative gingivitis.
⢠Gingivoplasty and Gingivectomy – Both these methods are commonly used to treat gingival enlargment, suprabony pockets or gingival abscess.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by intense erythema, desquamation and ulceration of the free and attached gingiva.
⢠Etiology of most cases is lichen planus, cicatricial pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris.
⢠Treatment is usually using topical steroids.
⢠In some cases dermatological or internal medicine assistance might be required depending on the severity of underlying condition.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No. 288Incorrect
ANSWER
Topical steroidsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Scaling – Scaling and plaque control alone cannot control desquamative gingivitis.
⢠Gingivoplasty and Gingivectomy – Both these methods are commonly used to treat gingival enlargment, suprabony pockets or gingival abscess.SYNOPSIS
⢠Desquamative gingivitis is characterized by intense erythema, desquamation and ulceration of the free and attached gingiva.
⢠Etiology of most cases is lichen planus, cicatricial pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris.
⢠Treatment is usually using topical steroids.
⢠In some cases dermatological or internal medicine assistance might be required depending on the severity of underlying condition.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No. 288 -
Question 72 of 150
72. Question
On which of the following factors does the outline form of cavity preparation depend in a class V cavity?
Correct
ANSWER
Extent of cariesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Factors that affect the outline form and initial depth
– Extension of carious lesion
– Proximity of the lesion to the other deep structural surface defects
– Relationship with adjacent and opposing teeth
– Caries index of the patient
– Need for esthetics
– Restorative material to be used
– Removal of all weakened and friable tooth structureREFERENCE
Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry – 5th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
Extent of cariesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Factors that affect the outline form and initial depth
– Extension of carious lesion
– Proximity of the lesion to the other deep structural surface defects
– Relationship with adjacent and opposing teeth
– Caries index of the patient
– Need for esthetics
– Restorative material to be used
– Removal of all weakened and friable tooth structureREFERENCE
Sturdevantās Art and Science of Operative Dentistry – 5th edition -
Question 73 of 150
73. Question
A patient came to your clinic with pain in tooth with simple class I cavity containing amalgam restoration which was restored one month back. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Delayed expansionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulpal involvement – Pain will be immediate after restoration if there is a pulpal involvement.
⢠Occlusal trauma – The signs and symptoms experienced by patients with occlusal trauma are mobility of teeth,Ā temperomandibular joint pain, pain on mastication and periodontal disease.
⢠Secondary caries – It is most often located on the gingival margins of Class II through V restorations (rarely have they been diagnosed on Class I restorations), and you might seeĀ a visually graying look, a translucent area on the radiograph or find a hypersensitive area.SYNOPSIS
⢠The gradual expansion of a zinc-containing amalgam over a period o weeks to months is called delayed expansion.
⢠This expansion is associated with the development of hydrogen gas, which is caused by incorporating moisture in the plastic mass during its manipulation in cavity preparation.
⢠Possible remedies are using zinc-free alloys and careful attention given to rubber dam isolation of the prepared tooth.REFERENCE
CRAIGs Restorative dental materials, 13th edition, page number 201.Incorrect
ANSWER
Delayed expansionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Pulpal involvement – Pain will be immediate after restoration if there is a pulpal involvement.
⢠Occlusal trauma – The signs and symptoms experienced by patients with occlusal trauma are mobility of teeth,Ā temperomandibular joint pain, pain on mastication and periodontal disease.
⢠Secondary caries – It is most often located on the gingival margins of Class II through V restorations (rarely have they been diagnosed on Class I restorations), and you might seeĀ a visually graying look, a translucent area on the radiograph or find a hypersensitive area.SYNOPSIS
⢠The gradual expansion of a zinc-containing amalgam over a period o weeks to months is called delayed expansion.
⢠This expansion is associated with the development of hydrogen gas, which is caused by incorporating moisture in the plastic mass during its manipulation in cavity preparation.
⢠Possible remedies are using zinc-free alloys and careful attention given to rubber dam isolation of the prepared tooth.REFERENCE
CRAIGs Restorative dental materials, 13th edition, page number 201. -
Question 74 of 150
74. Question
While suturing an extraction socket, the correct principle is
Correct
ANSWER
Approximation without tensionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Proper suturing
– Approximate edges
– No excessive tension
– Knot placed away from incision line
– Avoid tissue blanchingREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Approximation without tensionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Proper suturing
– Approximate edges
– No excessive tension
– Knot placed away from incision line
– Avoid tissue blanchingREFERENCE
Peterson LJ. Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 75 of 150
75. Question
Which of the following includes percutaneous injury?
Correct
ANSWER
Needle prickOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Percutaneous injuries (PI) pose the greatest risk for occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
⢠The most serious exposures include hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV.
⢠Percutaneous injuries can result from contact with contaminated needles, burs, scalpels, instruments, or other sharps that can penetrate, abrade, or cut skin.REFERENCE
Percutaneous injury prevention – Charles John PalenikIncorrect
ANSWER
Needle prickOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Percutaneous injuries (PI) pose the greatest risk for occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
⢠The most serious exposures include hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV.
⢠Percutaneous injuries can result from contact with contaminated needles, burs, scalpels, instruments, or other sharps that can penetrate, abrade, or cut skin.REFERENCE
Percutaneous injury prevention – Charles John Palenik -
Question 76 of 150
76. Question
A patient reports facial swelling 6 hours after extraction. What is the most appropriate advice?
Correct
ANSWER
Cold compress intermittentlyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Within first 24 hours
– Cold compress reduces edema via vasoconstriction
– Heat is indicated after 24ā48 hoursREFERENCE
Petersonās Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Cold compress intermittentlyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Within first 24 hours
– Cold compress reduces edema via vasoconstriction
– Heat is indicated after 24ā48 hoursREFERENCE
Petersonās Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, 7th ed. -
Question 77 of 150
77. Question
A 32-year-old patient presents with localized deep probing on the cervical aspect of a maxillary central incisor following trauma 6 months ago. The tooth is asymptomatic but shows a āpinkish hueā near the CEJ. The clinician uses a periodontal probe circumferentially around the tooth. What is the most important purpose of using the periodontal probe in this case?
Correct
ANSWER
To confirm cervical root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā A periodontal probe is used in endodontics to detect isolated deep periodontal pockets, which may indicate external cervical resorption or vertical root fracture.
ā According to Ingleās Endodontics, circumferential probing is essential in suspected cases of cervical resorption to detect localized defects.
ā It does not assess pulp vitality or working length.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th editionIncorrect
ANSWER
To confirm cervical root resorptionOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā A periodontal probe is used in endodontics to detect isolated deep periodontal pockets, which may indicate external cervical resorption or vertical root fracture.
ā According to Ingleās Endodontics, circumferential probing is essential in suspected cases of cervical resorption to detect localized defects.
ā It does not assess pulp vitality or working length.REFERENCE
Ingle JI, Bakland LK, Baumgartner JC. Ingleās Endodontics, 7th edition -
Question 78 of 150
78. Question
A 60-year-old male with a history of ischemic heart disease develops chest discomfort while lying in supine position during extraction. The procedure was uneventful until he reported tightness in the chest. What is the most probable precipitating factor?
Correct
ANSWER
Increased anxiety and anticipation of painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Stress and anxiety increase endogenous catecholamine release, elevating heart rate and blood pressure, potentially precipitating angina.
ā Supine positioning may also increase venous return, but anxiety is the most common trigger.
ā Malamed emphasizes stress reduction protocol as essential in cardiac patients.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 8th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
Increased anxiety and anticipation of painOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Stress and anxiety increase endogenous catecholamine release, elevating heart rate and blood pressure, potentially precipitating angina.
ā Supine positioning may also increase venous return, but anxiety is the most common trigger.
ā Malamed emphasizes stress reduction protocol as essential in cardiac patients.REFERENCE
Malamed SF. Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office, 8th ed. -
Question 79 of 150
79. Question
Patient with normal SNA shows decreased SNB and increased ANB. What will be the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Mandibular deficiencyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Maxillary advancement and mandibular deficiency – since the SNA is normal it is not considered as maxillary advancement.
⢠Horizontal growth of mandible and Vertical growth of mandible cannot be predicted by just SNA,SNB, and ANB values.SYNOPSIS
⢠The ANB angle provides a general idea of the anteroposterior discrepancy of the maxilla to the mandibular apical bases.
⢠+2 is considered ideal or average and usually indicates a balanced skeletal profile (Class I).
⢠Higher positive values(more than+ 4) suggest increasing Class II tendencies.
⢠Negative values (less than 0)suggest a Class III pattern.REFERENCE
Radiographic Cephalometry-Basics to Videoimaging-Alexander Jacobson-Chapter 6-Page 78.Incorrect
ANSWER
Mandibular deficiencyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Maxillary advancement and mandibular deficiency – since the SNA is normal it is not considered as maxillary advancement.
⢠Horizontal growth of mandible and Vertical growth of mandible cannot be predicted by just SNA,SNB, and ANB values.SYNOPSIS
⢠The ANB angle provides a general idea of the anteroposterior discrepancy of the maxilla to the mandibular apical bases.
⢠+2 is considered ideal or average and usually indicates a balanced skeletal profile (Class I).
⢠Higher positive values(more than+ 4) suggest increasing Class II tendencies.
⢠Negative values (less than 0)suggest a Class III pattern.REFERENCE
Radiographic Cephalometry-Basics to Videoimaging-Alexander Jacobson-Chapter 6-Page 78. -
Question 80 of 150
80. Question
In what conditions veneer is contraindicated?
Correct
ANSWER
BruxismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Contraindications for veneer placement include
– Insufficient tooth substrate (enamel for bonding)
– Labial version
– Excessive interdental spacing
– Poor oral hygiene or caries
– Parafunctional habits (clenching, bruxism)
– Moderate to severe malposition or crowdingREFERENCE
Advances in dental veneers- materials, applications, and techniques – Journal of Applied SciencesIncorrect
ANSWER
BruxismOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Contraindications for veneer placement include
– Insufficient tooth substrate (enamel for bonding)
– Labial version
– Excessive interdental spacing
– Poor oral hygiene or caries
– Parafunctional habits (clenching, bruxism)
– Moderate to severe malposition or crowdingREFERENCE
Advances in dental veneers- materials, applications, and techniques – Journal of Applied Sciences -
Question 81 of 150
81. Question
Strip crown is indicated in?
Correct
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Strip crowns consist of a clear plastic-like shell that is filled with tooth-colored composite material and then fitted over the damaged tooth.
⢠The indications for strip crowns include
– Extensive decay of the primary anterior teeth
– Fractured or malformed teeth
– Teeth that exhibit discoloration.
– As coverage for teeth that have received pulp therapy.REFERENCE
Strip Crowns Technique for Restoration of Primary Anterior Teeth Case Report – Journal of Scientific Research in DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
All of the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Strip crowns consist of a clear plastic-like shell that is filled with tooth-colored composite material and then fitted over the damaged tooth.
⢠The indications for strip crowns include
– Extensive decay of the primary anterior teeth
– Fractured or malformed teeth
– Teeth that exhibit discoloration.
– As coverage for teeth that have received pulp therapy.REFERENCE
Strip Crowns Technique for Restoration of Primary Anterior Teeth Case Report – Journal of Scientific Research in Dentistry -
Question 82 of 150
82. Question
What is the best treatment for discolouration due to hypocalcified permanent teeth?
Correct
ANSWER
Laminate VeneerOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Amalgam – Non-esthetic restoration
⢠GIC – Mainly used as a luting agent and as a restorative material.
⢠Crown – More destructive procedure. Requires more amount of tooth reduction.SYNOPSIS
⢠Several treatment modalities have been reported to improve dental esthetics.
⢠Laminate veneer, is a thin layer that covers only the surface of the tooth and is generally used for aesthetic purposes.
⢠Direct or indirect composite resin veneers may be used to mask the discoloration and improve the crown morphology and contact with adjacent teeth.
⢠Also, full-coverage adhesive composite resin or polycarbonate crowns have also been advocatedREFERENCE
Short clinical crowns (SCC) – treatment considerations and techniques – Journal of Applied SciencesIncorrect
ANSWER
Laminate VeneerOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Amalgam – Non-esthetic restoration
⢠GIC – Mainly used as a luting agent and as a restorative material.
⢠Crown – More destructive procedure. Requires more amount of tooth reduction.SYNOPSIS
⢠Several treatment modalities have been reported to improve dental esthetics.
⢠Laminate veneer, is a thin layer that covers only the surface of the tooth and is generally used for aesthetic purposes.
⢠Direct or indirect composite resin veneers may be used to mask the discoloration and improve the crown morphology and contact with adjacent teeth.
⢠Also, full-coverage adhesive composite resin or polycarbonate crowns have also been advocatedREFERENCE
Short clinical crowns (SCC) – treatment considerations and techniques – Journal of Applied Sciences -
Question 83 of 150
83. Question
What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion lesionĀ to be restored with glass ionomer cement?
Correct
ANSWER
No mechanical preparation is necessaryOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The special characteristics of these lesions are the presence of dentin or cementum in the gingival margins,
⢠Along with the lack of mechanical retention and difficulty in controlling moisture contamination in doing these restorations, longevity and marginal sealing are challenged.
⢠GICs are very durable in cervical restorations and compete with the composites, particularly where bonding to cervical dentin is required.
⢠Class V caries occur on the buccal and lingual aspects and may extend subgingivally, limiting the therapist’s ability to remove them completely and place a proper restoration.
⢠GICs have very low shrinkage and are thermally compatible with tooth structure.
⢠They can even bond to dentin surfaces without the removal of the smear layer and their biological compatibility is well proved.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
No mechanical preparation is necessaryOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The special characteristics of these lesions are the presence of dentin or cementum in the gingival margins,
⢠Along with the lack of mechanical retention and difficulty in controlling moisture contamination in doing these restorations, longevity and marginal sealing are challenged.
⢠GICs are very durable in cervical restorations and compete with the composites, particularly where bonding to cervical dentin is required.
⢠Class V caries occur on the buccal and lingual aspects and may extend subgingivally, limiting the therapist’s ability to remove them completely and place a proper restoration.
⢠GICs have very low shrinkage and are thermally compatible with tooth structure.
⢠They can even bond to dentin surfaces without the removal of the smear layer and their biological compatibility is well proved.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 84 of 150
84. Question
A patient came to your clinic with a feeling of tightness and pain after one day of placing the proximo-occlusal inlay and proximo-occlusal amalgam filling. What is the diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Galvanic currentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The sense of tightness and pain is due to galvanism.
⢠The presence of metallic restorations in the mouth may cause a phenomenon called galvanic action or galvanism.
⢠This results from a difference in potential between dissimilar fillings in opposing or adjacent teeth.
⢠These fillings in conjunction with saliva as electrolyte make up an electric cell.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 65.Incorrect
ANSWER
Galvanic currentOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The sense of tightness and pain is due to galvanism.
⢠The presence of metallic restorations in the mouth may cause a phenomenon called galvanic action or galvanism.
⢠This results from a difference in potential between dissimilar fillings in opposing or adjacent teeth.
⢠These fillings in conjunction with saliva as electrolyte make up an electric cell.REFERENCE
Basic dental materials by John J Manappallil, 4th edition, page number 65. -
Question 85 of 150
85. Question
Which obturation material can be used when a patient is allergic to latex or zinc oxide?
Correct
ANSWER
ResilionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gutta percha – GP is composed of zinc oxide.
⢠Carrier based – Alpha phase gutta percha is used in this method which contains zinc oxide.
⢠Activ gutta percha – It is a type of GP cone coated with GIC.SYNOPSIS
⢠Resilion is polycaprolactone core material with methacrylate resin, bioactive glass, bismuth, barium sulphate and pigments.
⢠It is biocompatible.
⢠It is a good alternative for patients allergic to zinc oxide or latex.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 346.Incorrect
ANSWER
ResilionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Gutta percha – GP is composed of zinc oxide.
⢠Carrier based – Alpha phase gutta percha is used in this method which contains zinc oxide.
⢠Activ gutta percha – It is a type of GP cone coated with GIC.SYNOPSIS
⢠Resilion is polycaprolactone core material with methacrylate resin, bioactive glass, bismuth, barium sulphate and pigments.
⢠It is biocompatible.
⢠It is a good alternative for patients allergic to zinc oxide or latex.REFERENCE
Grossman’s Endodontic Practise – 13th Edition Page No 346. -
Question 86 of 150
86. Question
If a canal is prepared to a 5 percent taper, why not use a 5 percent master cone instead of the standard 2percent?Ā
Correct
ANSWER
Cold lateral condensation would be very difficultOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Cold lateral condensation would be very difficult if a GP cone with a different taper than the taper of prepared canal is used.
⢠With the introduction of standardized endodontic instruments, standardized master cones were also made available, with various ISO sizes and a 2 percent taper.
⢠The standardized sizes are designed to match the size and taper of the corresponding stainless steel or nickel-titanium instruments employed for shaping the canals.
– ISO 2 percent from size Nos. 15 to 140
– Greater taper gutta-percha cones such as 4 or 6 percent taper
– Variable taper gutta-percha points suiting the taper of variable taper shaping instruments such as the ProTaper F1, F2, and F3.REFERENCE
Grossman’s endodontics pg 317.Incorrect
ANSWER
Cold lateral condensation would be very difficultOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Cold lateral condensation would be very difficult if a GP cone with a different taper than the taper of prepared canal is used.
⢠With the introduction of standardized endodontic instruments, standardized master cones were also made available, with various ISO sizes and a 2 percent taper.
⢠The standardized sizes are designed to match the size and taper of the corresponding stainless steel or nickel-titanium instruments employed for shaping the canals.
– ISO 2 percent from size Nos. 15 to 140
– Greater taper gutta-percha cones such as 4 or 6 percent taper
– Variable taper gutta-percha points suiting the taper of variable taper shaping instruments such as the ProTaper F1, F2, and F3.REFERENCE
Grossman’s endodontics pg 317. -
Question 87 of 150
87. Question
A patient who is under benzodiazepene and digoxin for hypotension, presents to your clinic with physician consent for some treatment. While performing the treatment, the patient experienced excessive salivation and yellowish blurred vision. What is the reason for this?
Correct
ANSWER
Digoxin toxicityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stroke – In stroke, patient shows vision loss, facial drooping, speech difficulties, weakness, confusion, dizziness etc.
⢠Benzodiapene toxicity – In excess benzodiazepene intake, patient complaints of slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, dizziness.
⢠Heart failure – Heart failure symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, sweeling of legs, dizziness and sudden fatigue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Digoxin is a drug used commonly for treatment of hypotension.
⢠Digoxin toxicity can cause symptoms like nausea, vomiting, excessive salivation, yellowish – green visual problems, syncope, palpitations, tachycardia, arrhythmias etc.
⢠Kidney dysfunction and low levels of pottasium can generally cause digoxin toxicity.REFERENCE
Digoxin Toxicity Article by Earl D Cummings and Henry D Swoboda.Incorrect
ANSWER
Digoxin toxicityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stroke – In stroke, patient shows vision loss, facial drooping, speech difficulties, weakness, confusion, dizziness etc.
⢠Benzodiapene toxicity – In excess benzodiazepene intake, patient complaints of slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, dizziness.
⢠Heart failure – Heart failure symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, sweeling of legs, dizziness and sudden fatigue.SYNOPSIS
⢠Digoxin is a drug used commonly for treatment of hypotension.
⢠Digoxin toxicity can cause symptoms like nausea, vomiting, excessive salivation, yellowish – green visual problems, syncope, palpitations, tachycardia, arrhythmias etc.
⢠Kidney dysfunction and low levels of pottasium can generally cause digoxin toxicity.REFERENCE
Digoxin Toxicity Article by Earl D Cummings and Henry D Swoboda. -
Question 88 of 150
88. Question

A 5 years old child comes to your clinic with history of low grade fever, anorexia, diarrhea, vomiting, lymphadenopathy and pharyngitis. On examination, you noted vesicular lesions of hands, fingers, legs, feet and buttock. Parent complaints that child refuse to eat due to sore mouth and ulcerative oral lesions. What is your clinical diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Hand, foot and mouth diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Herpes zoster – Herpes zoster infection exhibits fever, malaise, linear vesicular lesions skin or mucosa supplied by affected nerve.
⢠Herpes simplex type 1 – HSV 1 affects face, lips, oral cavity and upper body.
⢠Herpangina – Herpangina exhibits sore throat, low grade fever, headache, with crops of ulcers on hard and soft palate, pharngeal wall, buccal mucosa, tongue and anterior faucial pillars.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by a type of coxsackie virus.
⢠Disease affects mostly young children between 6 months to 5 years.
⢠Clinically manifested as low grade fever, lymphadenopathy, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, pharyngitis and vesicular lesions on hand, feet and mouth.
⢠No specific treatment is required as the disease is self-limiting.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 321.Incorrect
ANSWER
Hand, foot and mouth diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Herpes zoster – Herpes zoster infection exhibits fever, malaise, linear vesicular lesions skin or mucosa supplied by affected nerve.
⢠Herpes simplex type 1 – HSV 1 affects face, lips, oral cavity and upper body.
⢠Herpangina – Herpangina exhibits sore throat, low grade fever, headache, with crops of ulcers on hard and soft palate, pharngeal wall, buccal mucosa, tongue and anterior faucial pillars.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by a type of coxsackie virus.
⢠Disease affects mostly young children between 6 months to 5 years.
⢠Clinically manifested as low grade fever, lymphadenopathy, nausea, diarrhea, vomiting, pharyngitis and vesicular lesions on hand, feet and mouth.
⢠No specific treatment is required as the disease is self-limiting.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 321. -
Question 89 of 150
89. Question
Which among the following is the most retentive crown?
Correct
ANSWER
Full Metal crownOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠A full veneer crown is described as a restoration that covers all the coronal tooth surfaces (Mesial, Distal, Facial, Lingual and Occlusal).
⢠Laminate veneer, on the other hand, is a thin layer that covers only the surface of the tooth and is generally used for aesthetic purposes.
⢠Veneers are strong but brittle, and sharp or repeated impacts can dislodge or crack them.
⢠A crown encases the entire tooth. It can be made of metal, porcelain or a combination of both. It is usually around double the thickness of a veneer, making it more durable and resistant to cracking than a veneer.
⢠Among porcelain and metal, metal crowns are most retentive.
⢠Because they can be manufactured in a very thin layer without losing their solid and robust properties, metal crowns require the least tooth structure to be removed compared to other types of crowns, which preserve the core of the tooth for maximum strength and retention.REFERENCE
Dental Crowns – Everything you need to know – Cosmetic DentalIncorrect
ANSWER
Full Metal crownOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠A full veneer crown is described as a restoration that covers all the coronal tooth surfaces (Mesial, Distal, Facial, Lingual and Occlusal).
⢠Laminate veneer, on the other hand, is a thin layer that covers only the surface of the tooth and is generally used for aesthetic purposes.
⢠Veneers are strong but brittle, and sharp or repeated impacts can dislodge or crack them.
⢠A crown encases the entire tooth. It can be made of metal, porcelain or a combination of both. It is usually around double the thickness of a veneer, making it more durable and resistant to cracking than a veneer.
⢠Among porcelain and metal, metal crowns are most retentive.
⢠Because they can be manufactured in a very thin layer without losing their solid and robust properties, metal crowns require the least tooth structure to be removed compared to other types of crowns, which preserve the core of the tooth for maximum strength and retention.REFERENCE
Dental Crowns – Everything you need to know – Cosmetic Dental -
Question 90 of 150
90. Question
How much is the clotting time in Lee-White method?
Correct
ANSWER
8-10 minutesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Clotting time (CT) measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.
⢠Normal values depend on the method used
– LeeāWhite method – 8ā10 minutes (commonly quoted in dental exams)
– Capillary tube method – ~3ā6 minutes
⢠In dentistry, 8ā10 minutes is the standard exam answer.REFERENCE
Guyton & Hall. Textbook of Medical PhysiologyIncorrect
ANSWER
8-10 minutesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Clotting time (CT) measures the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation.
⢠Normal values depend on the method used
– LeeāWhite method – 8ā10 minutes (commonly quoted in dental exams)
– Capillary tube method – ~3ā6 minutes
⢠In dentistry, 8ā10 minutes is the standard exam answer.REFERENCE
Guyton & Hall. Textbook of Medical Physiology -
Question 91 of 150
91. Question
Which is the most important bevel in inlay?
Correct
ANSWER
GingivalOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The gingival bevel is considered the most important bevel in an inlay preparation because
⢠It lies at the gingival seat, which is the critical margin of the restoration
⢠Provides a thin, well-adapted metal margin
⢠Improves marginal seal and reduces microleakage
⢠Enhances retention and resistance of the inlay
⢠Proper gingival beveling ensures accurate casting adaptation and longevity of the restoration.REFERENCE
Shillingburg HT et al. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
GingivalOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The gingival bevel is considered the most important bevel in an inlay preparation because
⢠It lies at the gingival seat, which is the critical margin of the restoration
⢠Provides a thin, well-adapted metal margin
⢠Improves marginal seal and reduces microleakage
⢠Enhances retention and resistance of the inlay
⢠Proper gingival beveling ensures accurate casting adaptation and longevity of the restoration.REFERENCE
Shillingburg HT et al. Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics, 4th ed. -
Question 92 of 150
92. Question
What is the management to return vascularity of tooth for a 20 years old patient with avulsed tooth for more than 60 minutes?
Correct
ANSWER
Soak in citric acid and 2 percent stannous fluorideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Treatment in the office – Emergency visit – Place the tooth in HBSS while the exam is conducted and history is taken. Prepare the socket for gentle repositioning of the tooth. Prepare the root.
⢠Extraoral dry time less than 20 minutes-
– Closed apex — replant immediately after gentle washing.
– Open apex — soak in 1 mg doxycycline in 20 mg saline for 5 minutes.
⢠Extraoral dry time 20 to 60 minutes – Soak in HBSS for 30 minutes and replant.
⢠Extraoral dry time greater than 60 minutes – Soak in citric acid, 2percent stannous fluoride, and doxycycline and replant. RCT can be done extra orallyREFERENCE
Clinical management of the avulsed tooth – A ReviewIncorrect
ANSWER
Soak in citric acid and 2 percent stannous fluorideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠Treatment in the office – Emergency visit – Place the tooth in HBSS while the exam is conducted and history is taken. Prepare the socket for gentle repositioning of the tooth. Prepare the root.
⢠Extraoral dry time less than 20 minutes-
– Closed apex — replant immediately after gentle washing.
– Open apex — soak in 1 mg doxycycline in 20 mg saline for 5 minutes.
⢠Extraoral dry time 20 to 60 minutes – Soak in HBSS for 30 minutes and replant.
⢠Extraoral dry time greater than 60 minutes – Soak in citric acid, 2percent stannous fluoride, and doxycycline and replant. RCT can be done extra orallyREFERENCE
Clinical management of the avulsed tooth – A Review -
Question 93 of 150
93. Question
What are the recommended numbers of implants for completely edentulous patients?
Correct
ANSWER
Maxilla 6 Mandibular 4OTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The number of implants required to support an overdenture in order to obtain optimal treatment outcomes in terms of implant survival, overdenture longevity, and patient satisfaction still remains a controversial issue.
⢠The most frequent tendency is to place at least four implants in maxilla and 2 in mandible, splinted or unsplinted.
⢠The survival rate of implants appears to be higher when at least four implants are placed to support the overdenture, compared to less than four implants.
⢠The overwhelming majority of articles dealing with standard surgical procedures to rehabilitate edentulous jaws use 4 in mandible and 6 implants in maxilla.REFERENCE
The optimal number of oral implants for fixed reconstructions – A review of the literature – European Journal of ImplantologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Maxilla 6 Mandibular 4OTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠The number of implants required to support an overdenture in order to obtain optimal treatment outcomes in terms of implant survival, overdenture longevity, and patient satisfaction still remains a controversial issue.
⢠The most frequent tendency is to place at least four implants in maxilla and 2 in mandible, splinted or unsplinted.
⢠The survival rate of implants appears to be higher when at least four implants are placed to support the overdenture, compared to less than four implants.
⢠The overwhelming majority of articles dealing with standard surgical procedures to rehabilitate edentulous jaws use 4 in mandible and 6 implants in maxilla.REFERENCE
The optimal number of oral implants for fixed reconstructions – A review of the literature – European Journal of Implantology -
Question 94 of 150
94. Question
What should be done after the completion of orthodontic treatment for rotated tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Circumferential fiberotomyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Frenectomy – This technique is indicated when there is hypertrophy of the frenum with a low insertion, which is associated with an inter-incisor diastema, and when the lateral incisors have appeared without causing the diastema to disappear and also in cases of a short vestibule.SYNOPSIS
⢠During the orthodontic correction, the teeth shift and sometimes, rotate, causing the elastic supracrestal gingival fibers to stretch and twist during the rotational tooth movement.
⢠After orthodontic treatment, this flexible tissue will try to morph back into its former position and may cause the teeth to relapse.
⢠Circumferential fiberotomy reduces the rotational relapse of orthodontically aligned teeth through the release of the connective supracrestal fibers that attach the tooth to the bone.REFERENCE
Rotational relapse of anterior teeth following orthodontic treatment and circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy-RehamAl-JasseraMaiAl-SubaiebNasserAl-JassercAbdulazizAl-Rasheeda-The Saudi Dental Journal-2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
Circumferential fiberotomyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Frenectomy – This technique is indicated when there is hypertrophy of the frenum with a low insertion, which is associated with an inter-incisor diastema, and when the lateral incisors have appeared without causing the diastema to disappear and also in cases of a short vestibule.SYNOPSIS
⢠During the orthodontic correction, the teeth shift and sometimes, rotate, causing the elastic supracrestal gingival fibers to stretch and twist during the rotational tooth movement.
⢠After orthodontic treatment, this flexible tissue will try to morph back into its former position and may cause the teeth to relapse.
⢠Circumferential fiberotomy reduces the rotational relapse of orthodontically aligned teeth through the release of the connective supracrestal fibers that attach the tooth to the bone.REFERENCE
Rotational relapse of anterior teeth following orthodontic treatment and circumferential supracrestal fiberotomy-RehamAl-JasseraMaiAl-SubaiebNasserAl-JassercAbdulazizAl-Rasheeda-The Saudi Dental Journal-2020. -
Question 95 of 150
95. Question
A premolar with a recently placed crown shows grade II mobility. But the periodontal and periapical findings were normal. What is the reason ?
Correct
ANSWER
Primary occlusal traumaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma – Secondary occlusal traumaĀ is injury resulting in tissue changes from normal or excessive occlusal forces applied to a tooth or teeth with reduced periodontal support.Ā It occurs in the presence of attachment loss, bone loss, and normal or excessive occlusal force(s).
⢠Insufficient ferrule – leads to poor fracture resistance
⢠Periodontitis – Periodontitis isĀ a severe gum infection that can lead to tooth loss and other serious health complications.SYNOPSIS
⢠Occlusal trauma is a term used to describe an injury resulting in tissue changes within the attachment apparatus, including periodontal ligament, supporting alveolar bone, and cementum, as a result of occlusal force(s).
⢠Occlusal trauma may occur in an intact periodontium or in a reduced periodontium caused by periodontal disease.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma is an injury resulting in tissue changes from excessive occlusal forces applied to a tooth or teeth with normal periodontal support.
⢠It occurs in the presence of normal clinical attachment levels, normal bone levels, and excessive occlusal force(s)
⢠The signs and symptoms experienced by patients with occlusal trauma areĀ
– Mobility of teeth,
– Temperomandibular joint pain,
– Pain on mastication
⢠Early diagnosis, proper treatment plan and correction of malocclusion can lead to a successful outcome.REFERENCE
Carranzas Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Primary occlusal traumaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma – Secondary occlusal traumaĀ is injury resulting in tissue changes from normal or excessive occlusal forces applied to a tooth or teeth with reduced periodontal support.Ā It occurs in the presence of attachment loss, bone loss, and normal or excessive occlusal force(s).
⢠Insufficient ferrule – leads to poor fracture resistance
⢠Periodontitis – Periodontitis isĀ a severe gum infection that can lead to tooth loss and other serious health complications.SYNOPSIS
⢠Occlusal trauma is a term used to describe an injury resulting in tissue changes within the attachment apparatus, including periodontal ligament, supporting alveolar bone, and cementum, as a result of occlusal force(s).
⢠Occlusal trauma may occur in an intact periodontium or in a reduced periodontium caused by periodontal disease.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma is an injury resulting in tissue changes from excessive occlusal forces applied to a tooth or teeth with normal periodontal support.
⢠It occurs in the presence of normal clinical attachment levels, normal bone levels, and excessive occlusal force(s)
⢠The signs and symptoms experienced by patients with occlusal trauma areĀ
– Mobility of teeth,
– Temperomandibular joint pain,
– Pain on mastication
⢠Early diagnosis, proper treatment plan and correction of malocclusion can lead to a successful outcome.REFERENCE
Carranzas Clinical Periodontology -
Question 96 of 150
96. Question
A 7 years old child patient visits your clinic with multiple carious teeth. What radiograph should be adviced if its his first visit?
Correct
ANSWER
Selected periapical and posterior bite wingsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠For first time visit a 7-year-old is recommended to take posterior bitewings and panoramic exam OR posterior bitewings and selected periapical
⢠For first visit , children of 1-5 year age group – posterior bitewings and periapical x-ray of anteriors. Bitewing x rays every 6-12 months for child with high caries risk and every 12-24 months for low caries risk children
⢠For 6-12 years old – posterior bitewings, selected periapical of anteriors or a Panoramic x ray and posterior bite wings .Bitewings are recommended every 6-18 months in high risk patients and every 12-36 months in low caries risk patients
⢠For those above 12 years of age with permanent teeth but no wisdom teeth,the Dentist might take bitewing x rays of posteriors, selected periapical x rays or a panoramic x ray, or a full mouth survey of x rays if there is evidence of widespread disease. Bitewings are recommended every 6- 18 months for high risk cases and every 12-36 months for low risk cases.REFERENCE
AAPD Guidelines for use of Radiographs in ChildrenIncorrect
ANSWER
Selected periapical and posterior bite wingsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠For first time visit a 7-year-old is recommended to take posterior bitewings and panoramic exam OR posterior bitewings and selected periapical
⢠For first visit , children of 1-5 year age group – posterior bitewings and periapical x-ray of anteriors. Bitewing x rays every 6-12 months for child with high caries risk and every 12-24 months for low caries risk children
⢠For 6-12 years old – posterior bitewings, selected periapical of anteriors or a Panoramic x ray and posterior bite wings .Bitewings are recommended every 6-18 months in high risk patients and every 12-36 months in low caries risk patients
⢠For those above 12 years of age with permanent teeth but no wisdom teeth,the Dentist might take bitewing x rays of posteriors, selected periapical x rays or a panoramic x ray, or a full mouth survey of x rays if there is evidence of widespread disease. Bitewings are recommended every 6- 18 months for high risk cases and every 12-36 months for low risk cases.REFERENCE
AAPD Guidelines for use of Radiographs in Children -
Question 97 of 150
97. Question
A patient in your dental clinic develops discomfort and warmth after receiving local anesthesia. On examination, blood pressure is 100-75 mmHg. The patient also reports being on arthritis medication (likely long-term corticosteroids). What condition does this most likely represent?
Correct
ANSWER
Adrenal crisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hyperglycemia – Symptoms are polyuria, polydipsia not sudden hypotension.
ā Adrenal insufficiency – Chronic form, acute emergency is adrenal crisis.
ā Hyperthyroidism – It causes tachycardia, anxiety, and hypertension not hypotension.SYNOPSIS
ā If the patient is on long-term steroid therapy for arthritis (e.g., prednisolone), their adrenal gland may be suppressed.
ā Stress from dental treatment can lead to acute adrenal crisis.,
ā Hypotension is the earliest and most important sign.
– BP 100-75 mmHg is low for a stressed state.
– Warm or weak feeling and discomfort further support a circulatory collapse picture.
ā Patients on long-term steroids need stress dose steroid supplementation before major dental procedures to prevent adrenal crisis.REFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Adrenal crisisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Hyperglycemia – Symptoms are polyuria, polydipsia not sudden hypotension.
ā Adrenal insufficiency – Chronic form, acute emergency is adrenal crisis.
ā Hyperthyroidism – It causes tachycardia, anxiety, and hypertension not hypotension.SYNOPSIS
ā If the patient is on long-term steroid therapy for arthritis (e.g., prednisolone), their adrenal gland may be suppressed.
ā Stress from dental treatment can lead to acute adrenal crisis.,
ā Hypotension is the earliest and most important sign.
– BP 100-75 mmHg is low for a stressed state.
– Warm or weak feeling and discomfort further support a circulatory collapse picture.
ā Patients on long-term steroids need stress dose steroid supplementation before major dental procedures to prevent adrenal crisis.REFERENCE
Medical Emergencies in the Dental Office – Stanley F Malamed 7th Edition -
Question 98 of 150
98. Question
Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is mediated predominantly by?
Correct
ANSWER
IgE antibodiesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠IgG or IgM antibodies – Type II is caused by cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies.
⢠Immune complex mediated – Type III is reaction mediated by immune complexes.
⢠Cell mediated – Type IV is delayed reaction mediated by cellular response.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypersensitivity is immune and inflammatory responses that are harmful to the host.
⢠Type 1 hypersensitivity is IgE mediated.
⢠Antigen induces cross linking of IgE bound to mast cells and basophils with release of vasoactive mediators.
⢠It occurs immediately after contact with allergens or antigens.
⢠Response to the antigen occurs in two stages – the sensitization and the effect stage.
⢠In the sensitization stage, the host experiences an asymptomatic contact with the antigen.
⢠Subsequently, in the effect period, the pre-sensitized host is reintroduced to the antigen, which then leads to a type I anaphylactic or atopic immune response.
⢠Typical manifestations include systemic anaphylaxis, localized anaphylaxis such as hay fever, asthma, hives, food allergies and eczema.REFERENCE
Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction by National Library of Medicine.Incorrect
ANSWER
IgE antibodiesOTHER OPTIONS
⢠IgG or IgM antibodies – Type II is caused by cytotoxic reaction mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies.
⢠Immune complex mediated – Type III is reaction mediated by immune complexes.
⢠Cell mediated – Type IV is delayed reaction mediated by cellular response.SYNOPSIS
⢠Hypersensitivity is immune and inflammatory responses that are harmful to the host.
⢠Type 1 hypersensitivity is IgE mediated.
⢠Antigen induces cross linking of IgE bound to mast cells and basophils with release of vasoactive mediators.
⢠It occurs immediately after contact with allergens or antigens.
⢠Response to the antigen occurs in two stages – the sensitization and the effect stage.
⢠In the sensitization stage, the host experiences an asymptomatic contact with the antigen.
⢠Subsequently, in the effect period, the pre-sensitized host is reintroduced to the antigen, which then leads to a type I anaphylactic or atopic immune response.
⢠Typical manifestations include systemic anaphylaxis, localized anaphylaxis such as hay fever, asthma, hives, food allergies and eczema.REFERENCE
Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction by National Library of Medicine. -
Question 99 of 150
99. Question
What should be the width of the cavity for small cavity preparation for amalgam restoration in the upper premolar?
Correct
ANSWER
One-fourth intercuspal distanceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠One-third intercuspal distance – ideal for molarsSYNOPSIS
⢠The ideal width for an amalgam cavity in premolar is one-fourth of the intercuspal distance.
⢠Minimum amount of marginal tooth structure to be preserved is 2mm in molars and 1.6mm in premolars
⢠Depth of amalgam restoration – 1.5 – 2mm
⢠Cavosurface angle for amalgam – 90 degreeREFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
One-fourth intercuspal distanceOTHER OPTIONS
⢠One-third intercuspal distance – ideal for molarsSYNOPSIS
⢠The ideal width for an amalgam cavity in premolar is one-fourth of the intercuspal distance.
⢠Minimum amount of marginal tooth structure to be preserved is 2mm in molars and 1.6mm in premolars
⢠Depth of amalgam restoration – 1.5 – 2mm
⢠Cavosurface angle for amalgam – 90 degreeREFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry -
Question 100 of 150
100. Question
65-year-old patient presented with pain on biting in left lower posterior teeth 47. The tooth 47 is having a temporary root canal filling since 6 months and 46 have an amalgam filling since 2 years. There is 5-6mm deep isolated pocket on lingual side of 47 with otherwise healthy periodontal tooth. Diagnosis of pain can be?
Correct
ANSWER
Vertical Root Fracture of 47OTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠According to the American Association of Endodontists, A vertical root fracture is a longitudinally oriented fracture of the root that originates from the apex and propagates to the coronal part
⢠Possible symptoms include
– General discomfort or a sharp twinge of pain when biting or chewing,
– A visible crack during a dental examination,
– Swelling, and
– Abscess, or boil near the tooth indicating an infection,
– An isolated pocket in the gum next to the tooth in question.
⢠The prognosis of the root with VRF is poor therefore tooth extraction and root amputation are usually the only treatment options.
⢠However, bonding of the fracture line with adhesive resin cement during the intentional replantation procedure was recently suggested as an alternative to tooth extraction.REFERENCE
Treatment of a vertical root fracture using dual-curing resin cement- a case report-Iranian Dental JournalIncorrect
ANSWER
Vertical Root Fracture of 47OTHER OPTIONS
⢠NilSYNOPSIS
⢠According to the American Association of Endodontists, A vertical root fracture is a longitudinally oriented fracture of the root that originates from the apex and propagates to the coronal part
⢠Possible symptoms include
– General discomfort or a sharp twinge of pain when biting or chewing,
– A visible crack during a dental examination,
– Swelling, and
– Abscess, or boil near the tooth indicating an infection,
– An isolated pocket in the gum next to the tooth in question.
⢠The prognosis of the root with VRF is poor therefore tooth extraction and root amputation are usually the only treatment options.
⢠However, bonding of the fracture line with adhesive resin cement during the intentional replantation procedure was recently suggested as an alternative to tooth extraction.REFERENCE
Treatment of a vertical root fracture using dual-curing resin cement- a case report-Iranian Dental Journal -
Question 101 of 150
101. Question
A patient with abrasion on the teeth and gingivitis complains of bleeding on brushing. On examination, the patient’s oral hygiene measures show brushing twice and using floss too. What change has to be advised for him for better periodontal health?
Correct
ANSWER
Change the brushing techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Changing the brushing technique can improve the condition of this patient
⢠Bass Method or Sulcular cleaning method is the most accepted and effective method for the removal of dental plaque present adjacent to and underneath the gingival margin
⢠Indications
– Open interproximal areas
– Cervical areas beneath the height of the contour of enamel
– Exposed root surface
– Recommended for patients with or without periodontal involvement
⢠Technique
– The bristles are held at a 45-degree angle toward the gum line.
– Very slight pressure and vibratory motions are made so that the bristles go slightly beneath the gum line.
– Only small groups of teeth can be done at a time.
– Once an area is complete, move on to the next set of teeth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Change the brushing techniqueOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Changing the brushing technique can improve the condition of this patient
⢠Bass Method or Sulcular cleaning method is the most accepted and effective method for the removal of dental plaque present adjacent to and underneath the gingival margin
⢠Indications
– Open interproximal areas
– Cervical areas beneath the height of the contour of enamel
– Exposed root surface
– Recommended for patients with or without periodontal involvement
⢠Technique
– The bristles are held at a 45-degree angle toward the gum line.
– Very slight pressure and vibratory motions are made so that the bristles go slightly beneath the gum line.
– Only small groups of teeth can be done at a time.
– Once an area is complete, move on to the next set of teeth.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 102 of 150
102. Question
A 27-year-old male presented with multiple superficial, painful ulcers in the oral cavity. Associated skin lesions and eye lesions were also present. He reports similar lesion in his private area also. Identify the diagnosis.
Correct
ANSWER
Behcet’s diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Major aphthous ulcer – It is more intense and the ulcers are deeper, larger (1 cm), long lasting (weeks to months) than minor aphthae. They appear on the lips, soft palate, and throat.
⢠Minor aphthous ulcer – Canker sores, also called aphthous ulcers, are small, shallow lesions that develop on the soft tissues in your mouth or at the base of your gums.
⢠Herpetic gingivostomatitis – Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and is characterized by high-grade fever and painful oral lesions.SYNOPSIS
⢠Behcet’s disease also called Behcet’s syndrome, is a rare disorder that causes blood vessel inflammation throughout the body.
⢠The disease can lead to numerous signs and symptoms that can seem unrelated at first.
⢠They can include mouth sores, eye inflammation, skin rashes and lesions, and genital sores.REFERENCE
Ravikaran Ongole – Text book of Oral MedicineIncorrect
ANSWER
Behcet’s diseaseOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Major aphthous ulcer – It is more intense and the ulcers are deeper, larger (1 cm), long lasting (weeks to months) than minor aphthae. They appear on the lips, soft palate, and throat.
⢠Minor aphthous ulcer – Canker sores, also called aphthous ulcers, are small, shallow lesions that develop on the soft tissues in your mouth or at the base of your gums.
⢠Herpetic gingivostomatitis – Herpetic gingivostomatitis is a manifestation of herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) and is characterized by high-grade fever and painful oral lesions.SYNOPSIS
⢠Behcet’s disease also called Behcet’s syndrome, is a rare disorder that causes blood vessel inflammation throughout the body.
⢠The disease can lead to numerous signs and symptoms that can seem unrelated at first.
⢠They can include mouth sores, eye inflammation, skin rashes and lesions, and genital sores.REFERENCE
Ravikaran Ongole – Text book of Oral Medicine -
Question 103 of 150
103. Question
A 17-year-old girl who has her board exam on the coming week presented with a round sore with a yellow center and a red border in the buccal mucosa. What is the treatment of choice?
Correct
ANSWER
Triamcinolone pasteOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Betadine – It is used to treat minor wounds (such as cuts, scrapes, burns) and to help prevent or treat mild skin infections.
⢠Gentian violet – Gentian violet belongs to the group of medicines called antifungals. Topical gentian violet is used to treat some types of fungal infections inside the mouth (thrush) and of the skin.
⢠Local therapy with amphotericin B – Indicated for empiric therapy for presumed fungal infection in febrile, neutropenic patientsSYNOPSIS
⢠Triamcinolone is a medium-strength corticosteroid that treats and relieves discomfort caused by mouth sores.
⢠It works by decreasing inflammation in the mouth.
⢠It belongs to a group of medications called topical steroids.
⢠This drug comes in a dental paste that allows it to stick to the inside of the mouth or cheeks or gums.
⢠It works by reducing the swelling, itching, and pain that can occur with mouth sores.REFERENCE
Medical Pharmacology by Padmaja UdaykumarIncorrect
ANSWER
Triamcinolone pasteOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Betadine – It is used to treat minor wounds (such as cuts, scrapes, burns) and to help prevent or treat mild skin infections.
⢠Gentian violet – Gentian violet belongs to the group of medicines called antifungals. Topical gentian violet is used to treat some types of fungal infections inside the mouth (thrush) and of the skin.
⢠Local therapy with amphotericin B – Indicated for empiric therapy for presumed fungal infection in febrile, neutropenic patientsSYNOPSIS
⢠Triamcinolone is a medium-strength corticosteroid that treats and relieves discomfort caused by mouth sores.
⢠It works by decreasing inflammation in the mouth.
⢠It belongs to a group of medications called topical steroids.
⢠This drug comes in a dental paste that allows it to stick to the inside of the mouth or cheeks or gums.
⢠It works by reducing the swelling, itching, and pain that can occur with mouth sores.REFERENCE
Medical Pharmacology by Padmaja Udaykumar -
Question 104 of 150
104. Question
A patient visits your clinic with severe pain in his lower left mandibular molar. Clinical examination shows positive pulp test and percussion test but no radiographic abnormality upper right side he has a recent FPD. What will be your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWERS
Acute apical periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Chronic apical periodontitis is generally a non-painful condition in which the apical portion (i.e. the part around the tip) of a tooth root is chronically inflamed.
⢠Apical abscess- is the most common form of dental abscess and is caused by infection of the root canal of the tooth. It is usually localized intraorally but in some cases the apical abscess may spread and result in severe complications or even mortality.SYNOPSIS
⢠Acute apical periodontitis is a condition in which the apical portion of a tooth root becomes inflamed following trauma or infection.
⢠The presence of inflammation makes it tender when tapping or chewing on it.
⢠There are various causes for this apical inflammation and one of the reasons is a newly placed restoration or crown.
⢠Improper occlusion from the newly placed crown can result in abnormal occlusal forces that can contribute to apical periodontitis.
⢠In such cases there will be a periapical inflammatory response which may not be evident radiographically as there has been no bone or root resorption to create a widening of the periodontal ligament space or a radiolucency.REFERENCE
Classification diagnosis and clinical manifestations of apical periodontitis- PAUL V. ABBOTTIncorrect
ANSWERS
Acute apical periodontitisOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Chronic apical periodontitis is generally a non-painful condition in which the apical portion (i.e. the part around the tip) of a tooth root is chronically inflamed.
⢠Apical abscess- is the most common form of dental abscess and is caused by infection of the root canal of the tooth. It is usually localized intraorally but in some cases the apical abscess may spread and result in severe complications or even mortality.SYNOPSIS
⢠Acute apical periodontitis is a condition in which the apical portion of a tooth root becomes inflamed following trauma or infection.
⢠The presence of inflammation makes it tender when tapping or chewing on it.
⢠There are various causes for this apical inflammation and one of the reasons is a newly placed restoration or crown.
⢠Improper occlusion from the newly placed crown can result in abnormal occlusal forces that can contribute to apical periodontitis.
⢠In such cases there will be a periapical inflammatory response which may not be evident radiographically as there has been no bone or root resorption to create a widening of the periodontal ligament space or a radiolucency.REFERENCE
Classification diagnosis and clinical manifestations of apical periodontitis- PAUL V. ABBOTT -
Question 105 of 150
105. Question
A 25 years old patient came to your clinic with mild to moderate caries and no demineralization symptoms. What is the treatment plan?
Correct
ANSWER
FluorideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Sealant – Sealants protect the chewing surfaces from cavities by covering them with a protective shield that blocks out germs and food in newly erupted molars.
⢠A Preventive Resin Restoration (PRR) – Ā A resin restoration is placed in the prepared tooth surface.Ā A PRR is more of a definitive restoration, unlike a sealant which may need to be replaced from time to time.SYNOPSIS
⢠Fluoride varnish is an effective way to control caries development in adult patients.
⢠Fluoride treatments can help to strengthen and protect teeth, preventing the need for invasive and expensive procedures in the future.
⢠Benefits
– It slows down the development of decay by stopping demineralisation.
– It makes the enamel more resistant to acid attack (from plaque bacteria), and speeds up remineralisation (remineralising the tooth with fluoride ions, making the tooth surface stronger and less soluble).REFERENCE
Fluoride Varnishes for Dental Health – A Review of the Clinical Effectiveness, Cost-effectiveness and Guidelines – Saudi Dental JournalIncorrect
ANSWER
FluorideOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Sealant – Sealants protect the chewing surfaces from cavities by covering them with a protective shield that blocks out germs and food in newly erupted molars.
⢠A Preventive Resin Restoration (PRR) – Ā A resin restoration is placed in the prepared tooth surface.Ā A PRR is more of a definitive restoration, unlike a sealant which may need to be replaced from time to time.SYNOPSIS
⢠Fluoride varnish is an effective way to control caries development in adult patients.
⢠Fluoride treatments can help to strengthen and protect teeth, preventing the need for invasive and expensive procedures in the future.
⢠Benefits
– It slows down the development of decay by stopping demineralisation.
– It makes the enamel more resistant to acid attack (from plaque bacteria), and speeds up remineralisation (remineralising the tooth with fluoride ions, making the tooth surface stronger and less soluble).REFERENCE
Fluoride Varnishes for Dental Health – A Review of the Clinical Effectiveness, Cost-effectiveness and Guidelines – Saudi Dental Journal -
Question 106 of 150
106. Question
When do you do serial extraction?
Correct
ANSWER
For space deficiency in mandibular anterior regionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠For space deficiency in the maxilla – Space can be gained by expansion.SYNOPSIS
⢠Extraction in mandible is done to avoid lower anterior crowding.
⢠Serial extraction increases the amount of space available for the erupting permanent teeth and thereby enables them to assume a more normal position and occlusal and spatial relationship.
⢠Indications –
– Absence of physiologic spacing.
– Unilateral or bilateral premature loss of deciduous canines with midline shift
– Malpositioned or impacted lateral incisors that erupt palatally out of the arch
– Markedly irregular or crowded maxillary and mandibular anteriors
– Localized gingival recession in the mandibular anterior region
– Ectopic eruption of teeth
– Mesial migration of buccal segment
– Abnormal eruption pattern and sequence
– Mandibular anterior flaring
– Ankylosis of one or more teeth.REFERENCE
Orthodontics-The art And Science-Fifth edition-Bhalaji-Page 297-300.Incorrect
ANSWER
For space deficiency in mandibular anterior regionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠For space deficiency in the maxilla – Space can be gained by expansion.SYNOPSIS
⢠Extraction in mandible is done to avoid lower anterior crowding.
⢠Serial extraction increases the amount of space available for the erupting permanent teeth and thereby enables them to assume a more normal position and occlusal and spatial relationship.
⢠Indications –
– Absence of physiologic spacing.
– Unilateral or bilateral premature loss of deciduous canines with midline shift
– Malpositioned or impacted lateral incisors that erupt palatally out of the arch
– Markedly irregular or crowded maxillary and mandibular anteriors
– Localized gingival recession in the mandibular anterior region
– Ectopic eruption of teeth
– Mesial migration of buccal segment
– Abnormal eruption pattern and sequence
– Mandibular anterior flaring
– Ankylosis of one or more teeth.REFERENCE
Orthodontics-The art And Science-Fifth edition-Bhalaji-Page 297-300. -
Question 107 of 150
107. Question
A 38-year-old HIV-positive male presents to your dental clinic with a white, non-removable, corrugated lesion on the lateral border of the tongue. He reports no pain or discomfort. His most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³, and he is not currently on antiretroviral therapy.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Correct
ANSWER
Refer the patient to an oral medicine specialist for further evaluationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reassure the patient that the lesion is benign and no treatment is required – Reassurance without further evaluation is not ideal due to the systemic implications.
⢠Prescribe antifungal medication and review in two weeks – HIV is viral infection.SYNOPSIS
⢠The lesion described is characteristic of oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL), which commonly appears on the lateral tongue and is strongly associated with Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) in immunocompromised patients, especially those with HIV/AIDS.
⢠OHL is not premalignant, but its presence may indicate HIV disease progression or poor immune function
⢠It does not typically require biopsy if the clinical diagnosis is clear, but a referral to a specialist is appropriate for confirmation, monitoring, and coordination of HIV care.REFERENCE
Wilkinsā Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist, 13th Edition (2020). Chapter on oral manifestations of systemic disease.Incorrect
ANSWER
Refer the patient to an oral medicine specialist for further evaluationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Reassure the patient that the lesion is benign and no treatment is required – Reassurance without further evaluation is not ideal due to the systemic implications.
⢠Prescribe antifungal medication and review in two weeks – HIV is viral infection.SYNOPSIS
⢠The lesion described is characteristic of oral hairy leukoplakia (OHL), which commonly appears on the lateral tongue and is strongly associated with Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) in immunocompromised patients, especially those with HIV/AIDS.
⢠OHL is not premalignant, but its presence may indicate HIV disease progression or poor immune function
⢠It does not typically require biopsy if the clinical diagnosis is clear, but a referral to a specialist is appropriate for confirmation, monitoring, and coordination of HIV care.REFERENCE
Wilkinsā Clinical Practice of the Dental Hygienist, 13th Edition (2020). Chapter on oral manifestations of systemic disease. -
Question 108 of 150
108. Question
A 17 years old male patient came to your clinic for orthodontic treatment. On full mouth radiographic examination you noted a radiolucent area with sclerotic border involving the roots of 45 and 46 as seen in the diagram below. All his teeth are vital. What is the condition?
Correct
ANSWER
Traumatic bone cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stafne bone cyst – Stafne bone cyst is developmental abnormality seen as asymptomatic radiolucency at angle of mandible below mandibular canal.
⢠Dentigerous cyst – Dentigerous cyst is odontogenic cyst seen as pericoronal radiolucency around unerupted tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic bone cyst is a pseudocyst and non odongenic.
⢠May develop due to trauma.
⢠Found in young patients mean age of 18 years.
⢠Clinically, it is asymptomatic and discovered in routine radiographic examination.
⢠Radiographically, it is seen as radiolucent area with sclerotic border sometimes involving the roots of teeth in the region , especially in posterior mandible.
⢠All associated teeth will be vital and treatment involves surgical exploration of cavity with enucleation of lining and reestablish bleeding into cavity.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 95.Incorrect
ANSWER
Traumatic bone cystOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Stafne bone cyst – Stafne bone cyst is developmental abnormality seen as asymptomatic radiolucency at angle of mandible below mandibular canal.
⢠Dentigerous cyst – Dentigerous cyst is odontogenic cyst seen as pericoronal radiolucency around unerupted tooth.SYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic bone cyst is a pseudocyst and non odongenic.
⢠May develop due to trauma.
⢠Found in young patients mean age of 18 years.
⢠Clinically, it is asymptomatic and discovered in routine radiographic examination.
⢠Radiographically, it is seen as radiolucent area with sclerotic border sometimes involving the roots of teeth in the region , especially in posterior mandible.
⢠All associated teeth will be vital and treatment involves surgical exploration of cavity with enucleation of lining and reestablish bleeding into cavity.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 95. -
Question 109 of 150
109. Question

A 45-year-old patient presents with a painless swelling in the lower jaw that has been slowly enlarging over the past year. The patient reports no significant medical history and denies any trauma to the area. On clinical examination, there is a firm, non-tender mass in the posterior mandible. Radiographic examination reveals a multilocular radiolucent lesion with a soap bubble appearance. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy reveals clusters of epithelial cells with reverse polarity and stellate reticulum-like areas. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
AmeloblastomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumor that commonly occurs in the mandible.
⢠The classic radiographic appearance is a multilocular radiolucent lesion with a soap bubble or honeycomb appearance.
⢠Histopathologically, ameloblastomas show epithelial cells with reverse polarity and stellate reticulum-like areas, which are characteristic findings.
⢠Treatment typically involves surgical resection due to the tumor’s potential for local recurrence.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral PathologyIncorrect
ANSWER
AmeloblastomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Ameloblastoma is a benign but locally aggressive odontogenic tumor that commonly occurs in the mandible.
⢠The classic radiographic appearance is a multilocular radiolucent lesion with a soap bubble or honeycomb appearance.
⢠Histopathologically, ameloblastomas show epithelial cells with reverse polarity and stellate reticulum-like areas, which are characteristic findings.
⢠Treatment typically involves surgical resection due to the tumor’s potential for local recurrence.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology -
Question 110 of 150
110. Question
What is the recommended time duration for flushing water lines in between every patients?
Correct
ANSWER
15 – 20 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Current recommendations are to flush water lines for atleast 15-20 seconds between every patients.
⢠Water lines should be atleast 3 minutes at he begining of day.
⢠This does not remove biofilm but lowers level of free-floating microorganisms like Legionella pneumonia and Pseudomonas aeroginosa in water.
Only chemical disinfection will remove or control biofilm.REFERENCE
Dental Secrets, Stephen T Sonis – 4th Edition Page No 302.Incorrect
ANSWER
15 – 20 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Current recommendations are to flush water lines for atleast 15-20 seconds between every patients.
⢠Water lines should be atleast 3 minutes at he begining of day.
⢠This does not remove biofilm but lowers level of free-floating microorganisms like Legionella pneumonia and Pseudomonas aeroginosa in water.
Only chemical disinfection will remove or control biofilm.REFERENCE
Dental Secrets, Stephen T Sonis – 4th Edition Page No 302. -
Question 111 of 150
111. Question
What is the angle formed by sagittal plane and the path of advancing condyle during lateral mandibular movement called?
Correct
ANSWER
Bennett angleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Incisal guidance angle – Incisal guidance angle is angle formed between incisal margin of maxillary and mandibular incisors.
⢠Cusp angle – Cusp angle is measured by angle formed by mesiobuccal cusp incline horizontal plane when long axis of tooth is vertical to plane.
⢠Rake angle – Rake angle is angle formed between rake face and radial line from center of bur.SYNOPSIS
⢠Bennett angle is the angle formed between the non working condyle and sagittal plane.
⢠That is angle formed between sagittal plane and path of advancing condyle during lateral mandibular movement.
⢠It is also known as lateral condylar guidance angle.
⢠This angle is determined using lateral records or using Hanau’s formula
(L is equal to (H divided by 8) plus 12).
⢠It can range from 2 – 44 degree with an average of 16 degree.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics, V Rangarajan – Page No 104.Incorrect
ANSWER
Bennett angleOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Incisal guidance angle – Incisal guidance angle is angle formed between incisal margin of maxillary and mandibular incisors.
⢠Cusp angle – Cusp angle is measured by angle formed by mesiobuccal cusp incline horizontal plane when long axis of tooth is vertical to plane.
⢠Rake angle – Rake angle is angle formed between rake face and radial line from center of bur.SYNOPSIS
⢠Bennett angle is the angle formed between the non working condyle and sagittal plane.
⢠That is angle formed between sagittal plane and path of advancing condyle during lateral mandibular movement.
⢠It is also known as lateral condylar guidance angle.
⢠This angle is determined using lateral records or using Hanau’s formula
(L is equal to (H divided by 8) plus 12).
⢠It can range from 2 – 44 degree with an average of 16 degree.REFERENCE
Textbook of Prosthodontics, V Rangarajan – Page No 104. -
Question 112 of 150
112. Question
A child has multiple supernumerary teeth, absence of clavicle and short stature. Which syndrome is this?
Correct
ANSWER
Cleidocranial dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Apert syndrome – Apert’s syndrome is seen as midface hypoplasia, craniosynostosis, scaphocephaly and bilateral syndactyly.
⢠Gardner’s syndrome – Gardener’s syndrome is characterized by osteomas, odontomas, intestinal polyps, supernumerary teeth and epidermoid cysts
⢠Achondroplasia – Achondroplasia is characterized by large head with frontal bossing, hypoplasia of midface and short limbs.SYNOPSIS
⢠Cleidocranial dysplasia is a hereditary syndrome of autosomal dominant trait.
⢠It is characterized by missing clavicle, large fontanelles, brachycephaly, short stature etc.
⢠It shows oral features like supernumerary teeth, underdeveloped maxilla, high arch palate, prolonged retention of primary teeth and delayed eruption of permanent teeth.
⢠There is no specific treatment but oral rehabilitation is important.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 482.Incorrect
ANSWER
Cleidocranial dysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Apert syndrome – Apert’s syndrome is seen as midface hypoplasia, craniosynostosis, scaphocephaly and bilateral syndactyly.
⢠Gardner’s syndrome – Gardener’s syndrome is characterized by osteomas, odontomas, intestinal polyps, supernumerary teeth and epidermoid cysts
⢠Achondroplasia – Achondroplasia is characterized by large head with frontal bossing, hypoplasia of midface and short limbs.SYNOPSIS
⢠Cleidocranial dysplasia is a hereditary syndrome of autosomal dominant trait.
⢠It is characterized by missing clavicle, large fontanelles, brachycephaly, short stature etc.
⢠It shows oral features like supernumerary teeth, underdeveloped maxilla, high arch palate, prolonged retention of primary teeth and delayed eruption of permanent teeth.
⢠There is no specific treatment but oral rehabilitation is important.REFERENCE
Shafer’s Textbook of Oral Pathology – 8th Edition Page No 482. -
Question 113 of 150
113. Question
A patient with a dental implant came to your clinic for removing calculus. Which type of scaler will you prefer when scaling around titanium implants?
Correct
ANSWER
Plastic scalerOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠All metal instruments and ultrasonic scalers increase the surface roughness of titanium.
⢠Use of plastic, teflon coated and carbon coated scalers and nonmetal ultrasonic tips are advocated for scaling titanium implant from contamination by other metals and reduce scratching the surface.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No 864.Incorrect
ANSWER
Plastic scalerOTHER OPTIONS
Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠All metal instruments and ultrasonic scalers increase the surface roughness of titanium.
⢠Use of plastic, teflon coated and carbon coated scalers and nonmetal ultrasonic tips are advocated for scaling titanium implant from contamination by other metals and reduce scratching the surface.REFERENCE
Newman and Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology – 13th Edition Page No 864. -
Question 114 of 150
114. Question
Patient came after 1 week of applying braces with inflamed lips and cheek and feeling uncomfortable with braces. What you will do?
Correct
ANSWER
Apply braces wax to avoid any injury to the mucosa.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cut the wire – This is done it the inflammation is distal to the end of the wire alone.
⢠Apply cotton – This might stick to the inflamed mucosa and increase pain.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dental wax is the most popular choice for eliminating the discomfort caused by braces.
⢠It creates a barrier between the inside of your mouth and your braces, reducing friction and allowing any irritation or sores to heal.
⢠To apply orthodontic wax, follow these steps-
1. Wash your hands.
2. Brush your teeth to make sure the area to which you’re going to apply the wax is clean.
3. Take a small piece of wax (just enough to cover the offending wire or bracket) and roll it into a ball. This will make it more malleable and easier to apply.
4. Press the wax onto the bracket or wire that is causing discomfort.
5. Rub the wax into place. It should form a small bump overtop of the bracket or wire, preventing further friction.
⢠Recent-Lip Protectors-Lip protectors are flexible bumpers that cover your braces from end to end, shielding your lips and gums from your braces.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Sridhar Premkumar-Chapter 28-Page 339.Incorrect
ANSWER
Apply braces wax to avoid any injury to the mucosa.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Cut the wire – This is done it the inflammation is distal to the end of the wire alone.
⢠Apply cotton – This might stick to the inflamed mucosa and increase pain.SYNOPSIS
⢠Dental wax is the most popular choice for eliminating the discomfort caused by braces.
⢠It creates a barrier between the inside of your mouth and your braces, reducing friction and allowing any irritation or sores to heal.
⢠To apply orthodontic wax, follow these steps-
1. Wash your hands.
2. Brush your teeth to make sure the area to which you’re going to apply the wax is clean.
3. Take a small piece of wax (just enough to cover the offending wire or bracket) and roll it into a ball. This will make it more malleable and easier to apply.
4. Press the wax onto the bracket or wire that is causing discomfort.
5. Rub the wax into place. It should form a small bump overtop of the bracket or wire, preventing further friction.
⢠Recent-Lip Protectors-Lip protectors are flexible bumpers that cover your braces from end to end, shielding your lips and gums from your braces.REFERENCE
Textbook of Craniofacial Growth-Sridhar Premkumar-Chapter 28-Page 339. -
Question 115 of 150
115. Question
What is the best parameter for detecting the severity of periodontitis?
Correct
ANSWER
Attachment level or Attachment lossOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠The severity of the disease is based on the amount of clinical attachment loss (CAL).
⢠It is described as
– Mild when the CAL is 1 to 2 mm,
– Moderate the CAL is 3 to 4 mm, or
– Severe when the CAL is more than 5 mmREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Attachment level or Attachment lossOTHER OPTIONS
⢠NILSYNOPSIS
⢠The severity of the disease is based on the amount of clinical attachment loss (CAL).
⢠It is described as
– Mild when the CAL is 1 to 2 mm,
– Moderate the CAL is 3 to 4 mm, or
– Severe when the CAL is more than 5 mmREFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 116 of 150
116. Question
In which of the following conditions can epinephrine-impregnated gingival retraction cords produce significant adverse effects?
Correct
ANSWER
HypertensionĀOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Epinephrine-impregnated gingival retraction cords are used to control gingival bleeding during impression making.
ā However, epinephrine can be systemically absorbed through the gingival sulcus.
ā In patients with Hypertension epinephrine may cause
– Sudden rise in blood pressure
– Tachycardia
– Cardiac arrhythmias
– Hypertensive crisis (in severe cases)
ā Systemic absorption from cords may equal several cartridges of local anesthetic containing epinephrine.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
HypertensionĀOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā Epinephrine-impregnated gingival retraction cords are used to control gingival bleeding during impression making.
ā However, epinephrine can be systemically absorbed through the gingival sulcus.
ā In patients with Hypertension epinephrine may cause
– Sudden rise in blood pressure
– Tachycardia
– Cardiac arrhythmias
– Hypertensive crisis (in severe cases)
ā Systemic absorption from cords may equal several cartridges of local anesthetic containing epinephrine.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 117 of 150
117. Question
Which statement is true regarding the procedure of giving local anaesthesia?
Correct
ANSWER
The needle cap is inserted before the stopperOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā During assembly of a dental local anaesthetic syringe
ā The cartridge (with rubber stopper) is placed before attaching the needle.
ā The needle cap is inserted before the stopper
– While inserting the cartridge, the rubber stopper end goes in first, and the needle is attached afterward, so the needle cap remains in place initially to maintain sterility and prevent accidental needle stick
ā Excessive force must never be applied
– It can damage the cartridge, dislodge the stopper, or cause leakage
– Engagement of the harpoon should be gentleREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
The needle cap is inserted before the stopperOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā During assembly of a dental local anaesthetic syringe
ā The cartridge (with rubber stopper) is placed before attaching the needle.
ā The needle cap is inserted before the stopper
– While inserting the cartridge, the rubber stopper end goes in first, and the needle is attached afterward, so the needle cap remains in place initially to maintain sterility and prevent accidental needle stick
ā Excessive force must never be applied
– It can damage the cartridge, dislodge the stopper, or cause leakage
– Engagement of the harpoon should be gentleREFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 118 of 150
118. Question
What is the function of bevel given in Class II amalgam restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Increase the resistance to fracture of restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Bevels are angled surfaces that are placed on prepared tooth structures to improve the fit, strength, and resistance of dental restorations.
⢠A bevel is defined as any abrupt incline between the two surfaces of the prepared tooth or between the cavity wall and the cavosurface margins in the prepared cavity.
⢠Functions include
– Increases the surface area for retention
– Improves esthetics.
– Enhances the marginal seal.
– Beveling of the entire cavosurface angle in class II MOD restorations can improve fracture resistance and fracture pattern of teeth restored with direct composite and might be recommended in such situations.REFERENCE
Retention and resistance features for complex amalgam restorations – The Journal of the American Dental AssociationIncorrect
ANSWER
Increase the resistance to fracture of restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Bevels are angled surfaces that are placed on prepared tooth structures to improve the fit, strength, and resistance of dental restorations.
⢠A bevel is defined as any abrupt incline between the two surfaces of the prepared tooth or between the cavity wall and the cavosurface margins in the prepared cavity.
⢠Functions include
– Increases the surface area for retention
– Improves esthetics.
– Enhances the marginal seal.
– Beveling of the entire cavosurface angle in class II MOD restorations can improve fracture resistance and fracture pattern of teeth restored with direct composite and might be recommended in such situations.REFERENCE
Retention and resistance features for complex amalgam restorations – The Journal of the American Dental Association -
Question 119 of 150
119. Question
During an extraoral maxillary nerve block, after the needle contacts the lateral pterygoid plate, in which direction should the needle be redirected to reach the maxillary nerve?
Correct
ANSWER
Forward and anteriorlyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Backward and anteriorly – Posterior movement risks vascular structures and does not guide the needle toward the pterygopalatine fossa.
ā Backward and posteriorly – Directs the needle away from the maxillary nerve and increases risk of complications.
ā Forward and posteriorly – Posterior redirection is anatomically incorrect for accessing the maxillary nerve.SYNOPSIS
ā In the extraoral maxillary nerve block, the needle is first advanced until it contacts the lateral pterygoid plate.
ā This contact serves as a bony landmark.
ā After touching the plate, the needle is withdrawn slightly and then redirected forward (anteriorly) to bypass the plate and enter the pterygopalatine fossa, where the maxillary nerve (V2) lies.
ā Depositing local anesthetic here results in anesthesia of the entire maxillary division.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
Forward and anteriorlyOTHER OPTIONS
ā Backward and anteriorly – Posterior movement risks vascular structures and does not guide the needle toward the pterygopalatine fossa.
ā Backward and posteriorly – Directs the needle away from the maxillary nerve and increases risk of complications.
ā Forward and posteriorly – Posterior redirection is anatomically incorrect for accessing the maxillary nerve.SYNOPSIS
ā In the extraoral maxillary nerve block, the needle is first advanced until it contacts the lateral pterygoid plate.
ā This contact serves as a bony landmark.
ā After touching the plate, the needle is withdrawn slightly and then redirected forward (anteriorly) to bypass the plate and enter the pterygopalatine fossa, where the maxillary nerve (V2) lies.
ā Depositing local anesthetic here results in anesthesia of the entire maxillary division.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 120 of 150
120. Question
What is the least common complication caused due to odontogenic infection?
Correct
ANSWER
PeritonitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Potential Serious Complications
1. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
– Spread from maxillary infections via facial and angular veins
– Life-threatening but documented
2. Pulmonary abscess
– Occurs via aspiration or septic emboli
– Reported in severe untreated infections
ā Prosthetic valve infection – Infective endocarditis
– Bacteremia from dental infections
– Especially in patients with prosthetic valves
ā Peritonitis involves infection of the abdominal cavity. No direct anatomical pathway from odontogenic infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial SurgeryIncorrect
ANSWER
PeritonitisOTHER OPTIONS
ā Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
ā Potential Serious Complications
1. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
– Spread from maxillary infections via facial and angular veins
– Life-threatening but documented
2. Pulmonary abscess
– Occurs via aspiration or septic emboli
– Reported in severe untreated infections
ā Prosthetic valve infection – Infective endocarditis
– Bacteremia from dental infections
– Especially in patients with prosthetic valves
ā Peritonitis involves infection of the abdominal cavity. No direct anatomical pathway from odontogenic infection.REFERENCE
Peterson’s Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery -
Question 121 of 150
121. Question
Which of the following factors influence the choice of local anaesthesia technique to be given?
Correct
ANSWER
All the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The choice of local anaesthesia technique (infiltration vs nerve block vs field block) depends on multiple factors, not a single one
ā Chemical composition of the anaesthetic – Determines diffusion, potency, and duration.
ā Location of the nerve
– Deeply placed nerves (e.g. inferior alveolar nerve) require nerve block.
– Superficial terminal branches can be anesthetized by infiltration.
ā Bone structure
– Maxilla – porous cancellous bone – infiltration is usually sufficient.
– Mandible (posterior) – dense cortical bone – nerve block preferred.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
All the aboveOTHER OPTIONS
ā Not applicableSYNOPSIS
ā The choice of local anaesthesia technique (infiltration vs nerve block vs field block) depends on multiple factors, not a single one
ā Chemical composition of the anaesthetic – Determines diffusion, potency, and duration.
ā Location of the nerve
– Deeply placed nerves (e.g. inferior alveolar nerve) require nerve block.
– Superficial terminal branches can be anesthetized by infiltration.
ā Bone structure
– Maxilla – porous cancellous bone – infiltration is usually sufficient.
– Mandible (posterior) – dense cortical bone – nerve block preferred.REFERENCE
Handbook of Local Anesthesia – Stanley F Malamed – 6th Edition -
Question 122 of 150
122. Question
What is the speed of high speed handpiece?
Correct
ANSWER
45,000 – 1,00,000 rpmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠5000- 40,000 – Low speed HandpieceSYNOPSIS
⢠The high-speed handpiece is a precision device for removal of tooth tissue efficiently and rapidly with no pressure, heat or vibration and cut the tooth like butter.
⢠High-speed handpieces operate at speeds between 300,000 and 450,000 RPM.REFERENCE
High-speed handpieces – Journal of International Oral HealthIncorrect
ANSWER
45,000 – 1,00,000 rpmOTHER OPTIONS
⢠5000- 40,000 – Low speed HandpieceSYNOPSIS
⢠The high-speed handpiece is a precision device for removal of tooth tissue efficiently and rapidly with no pressure, heat or vibration and cut the tooth like butter.
⢠High-speed handpieces operate at speeds between 300,000 and 450,000 RPM.REFERENCE
High-speed handpieces – Journal of International Oral Health -
Question 123 of 150
123. Question

A 35-year-old male presents with painless cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A lymph node biopsy is performed, and Reed-Sternberg cells are identified on histopathological examination. Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with these findings?
Correct
ANSWER
Hodgkinās lymphomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Non-Hodgkinās lymphoma – NHL does not characteristically show Reed-Sternberg cells.
⢠Burkittās lymphoma – It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and presents with aggressive jaw involvement in endemic cases.
⢠Multiple myeloma involves plasma cells and does not exhibit Reed-Sternberg cells.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are large binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli, classically seen in Hodgkinās lymphoma (HL).
⢠HL typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats.REFERENCE
Kumar V, Abbas AK, Aster JC. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 10th ed. Elsevier; 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
Hodgkinās lymphomaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Non-Hodgkinās lymphoma – NHL does not characteristically show Reed-Sternberg cells.
⢠Burkittās lymphoma – It is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and presents with aggressive jaw involvement in endemic cases.
⢠Multiple myeloma involves plasma cells and does not exhibit Reed-Sternberg cells.SYNOPSIS
⢠Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells are large binucleated or multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli, classically seen in Hodgkinās lymphoma (HL).
⢠HL typically presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, weight loss, and night sweats.REFERENCE
Kumar V, Abbas AK, Aster JC. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 10th ed. Elsevier; 2020. -
Question 124 of 150
124. Question
What property of niti is responsible for the breakage of the niti file in 25 tooth during biomechanical preparation of canal?
Correct
ANSWER
TorsionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Rigidity and memory – While NiTi files have a certain rigidity and can remember their original shape (due to the shape memory effect), this property does not directly contribute to breakage during use.
⢠Super Flexibility and Memory – NiTi files exhibit super flexibility, allowing them to navigate curved canals better than stainless steel files. However, flexibility alone does not lead to breakage.
⢠Anti-Fatigue – This property allows NiTi files to withstand repeated bending without fracturing, but it does not directly address breakage from torque or torsion.SYNOPSIS
⢠The property of NiTi (nickel-titanium) files responsible for breakage during biomechanical preparation of a canal, particularly in a 25 tooth, is primarily torsion.
⢠When excessive torsional stress is applied during canal preparation (for example, from inadequate rotation or incorrect angulation), the file can break due to torsion. This is especially critical in tighter or curved canals where excessive rotational force may be exerted. Thus, torsion is the most relevant property associated with the breakage of NiTi files during endodontic procedures.REFERENCE
Fracture of endodontic instruments Part 1- Literature review on factors that influence instrument breakage-M Pillay , M Vorster , PJ van der Vyver.-SADJ November 2020.Incorrect
ANSWER
TorsionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Rigidity and memory – While NiTi files have a certain rigidity and can remember their original shape (due to the shape memory effect), this property does not directly contribute to breakage during use.
⢠Super Flexibility and Memory – NiTi files exhibit super flexibility, allowing them to navigate curved canals better than stainless steel files. However, flexibility alone does not lead to breakage.
⢠Anti-Fatigue – This property allows NiTi files to withstand repeated bending without fracturing, but it does not directly address breakage from torque or torsion.SYNOPSIS
⢠The property of NiTi (nickel-titanium) files responsible for breakage during biomechanical preparation of a canal, particularly in a 25 tooth, is primarily torsion.
⢠When excessive torsional stress is applied during canal preparation (for example, from inadequate rotation or incorrect angulation), the file can break due to torsion. This is especially critical in tighter or curved canals where excessive rotational force may be exerted. Thus, torsion is the most relevant property associated with the breakage of NiTi files during endodontic procedures.REFERENCE
Fracture of endodontic instruments Part 1- Literature review on factors that influence instrument breakage-M Pillay , M Vorster , PJ van der Vyver.-SADJ November 2020. -
Question 125 of 150
125. Question
Correct order of fabrication of T band matrix?
1. Bend the wings of the T-band into a U-shape
2. Pull the free end through the U-shape.
3. Close the wings and pull the free end to make a small loop
4. Place the band on the tooth while holding the free end towards the facial.Correct
ANSWER
1,4,3,2OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠To prepare the T-band matrix
1. First bend the wings of the T-band into a U-shape.
2. Then place the band on the tooth while holding the free end towards the facial. 3. Afterward, close the wings and pull the free end to make a small loop, and
4. Finally pull the free end through the U shape.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th EditionIncorrect
ANSWER
1,4,3,2OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠To prepare the T-band matrix
1. First bend the wings of the T-band into a U-shape.
2. Then place the band on the tooth while holding the free end towards the facial. 3. Afterward, close the wings and pull the free end to make a small loop, and
4. Finally pull the free end through the U shape.REFERENCE
Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, 4th Edition -
Question 126 of 150
126. Question
What is the best restoration for class V caries in old age patients?
Correct
ANSWER
Resin modified glass ionomer cementOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Improved mechanical properties, quicker set reaction and better aesthetics are the characteristics of RMGIC, which make it, generally, the restorative material of choice in older patients.
⢠However, in some cases, when the general and oral health of frail and functionally dependent older patients creates limitations, the use of conventional GIC should be preferred.
⢠Conventional glass ionomers are the optimal choice for treatment of xerostomic patients owing to radiation, medication, salivary gland disorders, etc., and for generally high caries risk patients.
⢠Although RMGI appear to have better resistance against abrasion and erosion, this is not the case in xerostomic mouths.
⢠The purpose of restoration here is the protection from secondary caries.
⢠Active caries are observable three months after radiotherapy and extreme damage of the dentition is commonly seen within a year.
⢠The presence of caries in these patients progresses rapidly and can lead to full fracture of the crown. ⢠Conventional glass ionomers release fluoride to a higher extent than RMGIC and therefore provide better protection against secondary caries.REFERENCE
Glass Ionomer Cements for the Restoration of Non-Carious Cervical Lesions in the Geriatric Patient – Journal of Functional BiomaterialsIncorrect
ANSWER
Resin modified glass ionomer cementOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Improved mechanical properties, quicker set reaction and better aesthetics are the characteristics of RMGIC, which make it, generally, the restorative material of choice in older patients.
⢠However, in some cases, when the general and oral health of frail and functionally dependent older patients creates limitations, the use of conventional GIC should be preferred.
⢠Conventional glass ionomers are the optimal choice for treatment of xerostomic patients owing to radiation, medication, salivary gland disorders, etc., and for generally high caries risk patients.
⢠Although RMGI appear to have better resistance against abrasion and erosion, this is not the case in xerostomic mouths.
⢠The purpose of restoration here is the protection from secondary caries.
⢠Active caries are observable three months after radiotherapy and extreme damage of the dentition is commonly seen within a year.
⢠The presence of caries in these patients progresses rapidly and can lead to full fracture of the crown. ⢠Conventional glass ionomers release fluoride to a higher extent than RMGIC and therefore provide better protection against secondary caries.REFERENCE
Glass Ionomer Cements for the Restoration of Non-Carious Cervical Lesions in the Geriatric Patient – Journal of Functional Biomaterials -
Question 127 of 150
127. Question
How should be the contact points in the retainer of rubber dam?
Correct
ANSWER
Four points of contact below the facial and lingual height of contourOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Clamp stability rule
– For a clamp to be stable it must
1. Possess adequate tension (inherent spring clamping force).
2. Be placed with four points of contact (the prongs must all touch the tooth).
3. Be positioned below (apical) to the facial and lingual height of contour.REFERENCE
General Dentistsā Use of Isolation Techniques During Root Canal Treatment – from the National Dental Practice-Based Research NetworkIncorrect
ANSWER
Four points of contact below the facial and lingual height of contourOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Clamp stability rule
– For a clamp to be stable it must
1. Possess adequate tension (inherent spring clamping force).
2. Be placed with four points of contact (the prongs must all touch the tooth).
3. Be positioned below (apical) to the facial and lingual height of contour.REFERENCE
General Dentistsā Use of Isolation Techniques During Root Canal Treatment – from the National Dental Practice-Based Research Network -
Question 128 of 150
128. Question
What will cause improper occlusal harmony in restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Lateral loadOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not ApplicableSYNOPSIS
⢠When the even contact between the anterior and posterior teeth in a balanced relationship is disturbed due to lateral load it affects periodontal health and eventually leads to mobility.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical PeriodontologyIncorrect
ANSWER
Lateral loadOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not ApplicableSYNOPSIS
⢠When the even contact between the anterior and posterior teeth in a balanced relationship is disturbed due to lateral load it affects periodontal health and eventually leads to mobility.REFERENCE
Carranza’s Clinical Periodontology -
Question 129 of 150
129. Question
Incidence of secondary caries is decreased after placement of GIC over amalgam restoration. Even after the loss of restoration, the incidence of secondary caries has declined. What would be the reason?
Correct
ANSWER
Enamel has exposed to fluorine alreadyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The glass ionomer cement incorporated the fluoride-releasing properties of the silicate cement with the adhesive qualities of polycarboxylate cement.
⢠This incorporation allowed the material to be stronger, less soluble,caries resistant and more translucent (and therefore more aesthetic) than its predecessors.
⢠Fluoride release from GIC restorations increases the fluoride concentration in saliva and adjacent hard dental tissues.
⢠Thus, continuous small amounts of fluoride surrounding the teeth is responsible for the formation of fluorapatite crystals within the enamel which are more resistant to acid attack and demineralization process.REFERENCE
Fluoride Release by Glass Ionomer Cements, Compomer, and Giomer – Dental Research JournalIncorrect
ANSWER
Enamel has exposed to fluorine alreadyOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The glass ionomer cement incorporated the fluoride-releasing properties of the silicate cement with the adhesive qualities of polycarboxylate cement.
⢠This incorporation allowed the material to be stronger, less soluble,caries resistant and more translucent (and therefore more aesthetic) than its predecessors.
⢠Fluoride release from GIC restorations increases the fluoride concentration in saliva and adjacent hard dental tissues.
⢠Thus, continuous small amounts of fluoride surrounding the teeth is responsible for the formation of fluorapatite crystals within the enamel which are more resistant to acid attack and demineralization process.REFERENCE
Fluoride Release by Glass Ionomer Cements, Compomer, and Giomer – Dental Research Journal -
Question 130 of 150
130. Question
What type of glass ionomer cement is used as luting cement?
Correct
ANSWER
Type IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠GIC is classified based on application as follows
Type I –Ā Luting cement used for cementation of crowns and bridges
Type II –Ā Restorative cement used for aesthetic fillings
Type III – GIC used as liners and bases
Type IV –Ā GIC used as pit and fissure sealants
Type V –Ā GIC used for orthodontic cementation
Type VI –Ā GIC is used for core build-up in highly mutilated teeth
Type VII –Ā Fluoride releasing light-cured GIC
Type VIII –Ā GIC for atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)
Type IX –Ā GIC used for Pediatric and geriatric restorationsREFERENCE
GUIDELINES ON THE USE OF GLASS IONOMER CEMENTSIncorrect
ANSWER
Type IOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠GIC is classified based on application as follows
Type I –Ā Luting cement used for cementation of crowns and bridges
Type II –Ā Restorative cement used for aesthetic fillings
Type III – GIC used as liners and bases
Type IV –Ā GIC used as pit and fissure sealants
Type V –Ā GIC used for orthodontic cementation
Type VI –Ā GIC is used for core build-up in highly mutilated teeth
Type VII –Ā Fluoride releasing light-cured GIC
Type VIII –Ā GIC for atraumatic restorative treatment (ART)
Type IX –Ā GIC used for Pediatric and geriatric restorationsREFERENCE
GUIDELINES ON THE USE OF GLASS IONOMER CEMENTS -
Question 131 of 150
131. Question
What types of base materials can be placed in contact with resin cements to not to inhibit the polymerization of resin?
Correct
ANSWER
B and COTHER OPTIONS
⢠Zinc oxide eugenol Ā – ZnOE interferes with the polymerization of resin-based materialsSYNOPSIS
⢠Glass-ionomer cement (GICs) and Zinc phosphate cement have been utilized as liners to provide the stress-buffering capacity for reducing the contraction stress and gap formation at the dentin-resin adhesive interface.
⢠Both types of cement does not interfere with the polymerization of the resin.REFERENCE
Effect of resin-modified glass-ionomer cement lining and composite layering technique on the adhesive interface of the lateral wall – Journal of Operative DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
B and COTHER OPTIONS
⢠Zinc oxide eugenol Ā – ZnOE interferes with the polymerization of resin-based materialsSYNOPSIS
⢠Glass-ionomer cement (GICs) and Zinc phosphate cement have been utilized as liners to provide the stress-buffering capacity for reducing the contraction stress and gap formation at the dentin-resin adhesive interface.
⢠Both types of cement does not interfere with the polymerization of the resin.REFERENCE
Effect of resin-modified glass-ionomer cement lining and composite layering technique on the adhesive interface of the lateral wall – Journal of Operative Dentistry -
Question 132 of 150
132. Question
What could be the reason to say calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material?
Correct
ANSWER
It induces reparative dentine formationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide has high alkaline pH of 12.5.
⢠The initial response after exposing pulp tissue to these highly alkaline aqueous pulp-capping agents is necrosis to a depth of 1 mm or more.
⢠Within weeks to months, however, the necrotic zone undergoes dystrophic calcification, which appears to be a stimulus for dentin bridge formation.
⢠Calcium hydroxide helps in dentine bridge formation when placed as a pulp capping agent.REFERENCE
CRAIGāS RESTORATIVE DENTAL MATERIALS, 13th edition, page number 122.Incorrect
ANSWER
It induces reparative dentine formationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠Calcium hydroxide has high alkaline pH of 12.5.
⢠The initial response after exposing pulp tissue to these highly alkaline aqueous pulp-capping agents is necrosis to a depth of 1 mm or more.
⢠Within weeks to months, however, the necrotic zone undergoes dystrophic calcification, which appears to be a stimulus for dentin bridge formation.
⢠Calcium hydroxide helps in dentine bridge formation when placed as a pulp capping agent.REFERENCE
CRAIGāS RESTORATIVE DENTAL MATERIALS, 13th edition, page number 122. -
Question 133 of 150
133. Question
What is the sequence of treatment planning?
Correct
ANSWER
Periodontic, endodontic, surgery, operative and orthodonticOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Model 1 of Periodontal Treatment Planning – (Lindhe Textbook)
In this model, treatment is undergone in four phases
1. Systemic phase of therapy including smoking counseling
2. Initial (or hygiene) phase of periodontal therapy, i.e. cause-related therapy.
3. Corrective phase of therapy, i.e. additional measures such as endodontic therapy, periodontal surgery, implant surgery, restorative, orthodontic and or prosthetic treatment.
4. Maintenance phase (care), i.e. supportive periodontal therapy (SPT).REFERENCE
Lindhe’s Clinical Periodontology and Implant DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Periodontic, endodontic, surgery, operative and orthodonticOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Model 1 of Periodontal Treatment Planning – (Lindhe Textbook)
In this model, treatment is undergone in four phases
1. Systemic phase of therapy including smoking counseling
2. Initial (or hygiene) phase of periodontal therapy, i.e. cause-related therapy.
3. Corrective phase of therapy, i.e. additional measures such as endodontic therapy, periodontal surgery, implant surgery, restorative, orthodontic and or prosthetic treatment.
4. Maintenance phase (care), i.e. supportive periodontal therapy (SPT).REFERENCE
Lindhe’s Clinical Periodontology and Implant Dentistry -
Question 134 of 150
134. Question
What should be the time duration for conditioning agent applied before glass ionomer cement restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
10 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentin Conditioner for GIC is a mild polyacrylic acid solution designed to remove the dentinal smear layer and condition dentine and enamel before applying glass ionomer cement.
⢠It will increase the bond between the glass ionomer cement and tooth structure for added longevity.
⢠10 percent poly acrylic acid for 10- 20 seconds is the recommended time.REFERENCE
A Review of Glass-Ionomer Cements for Clinical Dentistry – Saudi dental JournalIncorrect
ANSWER
10 secondsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Dentin Conditioner for GIC is a mild polyacrylic acid solution designed to remove the dentinal smear layer and condition dentine and enamel before applying glass ionomer cement.
⢠It will increase the bond between the glass ionomer cement and tooth structure for added longevity.
⢠10 percent poly acrylic acid for 10- 20 seconds is the recommended time.REFERENCE
A Review of Glass-Ionomer Cements for Clinical Dentistry – Saudi dental Journal -
Question 135 of 150
135. Question
What can be used under the composite restoration?
1. Varnish
2. Zinc oxide eugenol
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Zinc phosphate cementCorrect
ANSWER
3 and 4OTHER OPTIONS
ā¢Ā Zinc oxide eugenol – contraindicated for composite restorations due to inhibition of resin polymerization by the phenolic hydrogen of eugenol.
⢠Varnish – Cavity varnish is not compatible with resin composite materialsĀ because it retards the setting reaction and has a detrimental effect on the bonding properties.SYNOPSIS
⢠The liners most commonly used in restorative dentistry include calcium hydroxide and glass ionomer cement, both of which are available in either chemical or lightācured formulations
⢠The antibacterial action and remineralization cabability of calcium hydroxide make thes cement useful in indirect pulp-capping procedures involving carious dentin.
⢠Zinc phosphate cement offers advantages as a base for composite resin restoration.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp (Tenth Edition), 2011Incorrect
ANSWER
3 and 4OTHER OPTIONS
ā¢Ā Zinc oxide eugenol – contraindicated for composite restorations due to inhibition of resin polymerization by the phenolic hydrogen of eugenol.
⢠Varnish – Cavity varnish is not compatible with resin composite materialsĀ because it retards the setting reaction and has a detrimental effect on the bonding properties.SYNOPSIS
⢠The liners most commonly used in restorative dentistry include calcium hydroxide and glass ionomer cement, both of which are available in either chemical or lightācured formulations
⢠The antibacterial action and remineralization cabability of calcium hydroxide make thes cement useful in indirect pulp-capping procedures involving carious dentin.
⢠Zinc phosphate cement offers advantages as a base for composite resin restoration.REFERENCE
Cohen’s Pathways of the Pulp (Tenth Edition), 2011 -
Question 136 of 150
136. Question
A 45-year-old male presents with tooth mobility, wear facets, and localized gingival recession. He reports pain on biting and sensitivity in certain teeth. Clinical examination reveals premature contacts and fremitus in the anterior region. Radiographic evaluation shows widening of the periodontal ligament (PDL) space without significant bone loss.When does an occlusion become traumatic?
Correct
ANSWER
When there is excessive force on a tooth exceeding its adaptive capacityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic occlusion occurs when excessive occlusal forces exceed the toothās adaptive capacity, leading to damage to the periodontium.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive force is applied to a tooth with a normal periodontium.
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when normal occlusal forces cause damage due to a weakened periodontium (e.g., due to periodontitis).
⢠Clinical Signs of Traumatic Occlusion:
Increased tooth mobility
Widening of the PDL space
Fremitus (vibration of teeth during occlusion)
Tooth migration and abfraction lesionsREFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed.Incorrect
ANSWER
When there is excessive force on a tooth exceeding its adaptive capacityOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Traumatic occlusion occurs when excessive occlusal forces exceed the toothās adaptive capacity, leading to damage to the periodontium.
⢠Primary occlusal trauma occurs when excessive force is applied to a tooth with a normal periodontium.
⢠Secondary occlusal trauma occurs when normal occlusal forces cause damage due to a weakened periodontium (e.g., due to periodontitis).
⢠Clinical Signs of Traumatic Occlusion:
Increased tooth mobility
Widening of the PDL space
Fremitus (vibration of teeth during occlusion)
Tooth migration and abfraction lesionsREFERENCE
Carranza FA, Newman MG. Carranzaās Clinical Periodontology. 13th ed. -
Question 137 of 150
137. Question
What is the depth of cavity preparation for composite restoration in posterior tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Depends on caries extensionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠For resin composite restorations are not predetermined by the physical properties of the material.
⢠The only criterion for the cavity design is the removal of the diseased tissue and as a result, there are no standard cavities for resin composite restorations.
⢠Cavities can be of minimal depth, can have unsupported enamel at the cavo- surface margin, proximal walls, and the cervical floor and do not require the placement of a base material.
⢠Unsupported enamel in the interproximal box is not removed with a bur or chisel as this can lead to bleeding from the interproximal papilla let alone loss of healthy enamel.
⢠The papilla can also be protected by pre-wedging which also assists in the development of good interproximal contact.
⢠The cavosurface margins of proximal boxes to be restored with resin composite are smoothed and finished, but not beveled.REFERENCE
Replacement of resin-based composite- Evaluation of cavity design, cavity depth, and shade matching – Journal of Esthetic DentistryIncorrect
ANSWER
Depends on caries extensionOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠For resin composite restorations are not predetermined by the physical properties of the material.
⢠The only criterion for the cavity design is the removal of the diseased tissue and as a result, there are no standard cavities for resin composite restorations.
⢠Cavities can be of minimal depth, can have unsupported enamel at the cavo- surface margin, proximal walls, and the cervical floor and do not require the placement of a base material.
⢠Unsupported enamel in the interproximal box is not removed with a bur or chisel as this can lead to bleeding from the interproximal papilla let alone loss of healthy enamel.
⢠The papilla can also be protected by pre-wedging which also assists in the development of good interproximal contact.
⢠The cavosurface margins of proximal boxes to be restored with resin composite are smoothed and finished, but not beveled.REFERENCE
Replacement of resin-based composite- Evaluation of cavity design, cavity depth, and shade matching – Journal of Esthetic Dentistry -
Question 138 of 150
138. Question
When should the layer of bonding agent be applied in class V composite restoration?
Correct
ANSWER
Following removal of smear layer and then curedOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠As a result of the tissue removal procedures performed during cavity preparation, the dentine surface is covered by a smear layer consisting of blood, saliva, bacteria, hydroxyapatite crystals, and denatured collagen.
⢠Studies showed that the smear layer creates a barrier for microorganisms to reach the pulp, and have reported that with the removal of this layer, dentin permeability will increase 5-10 times.
⢠That means the removal of the smear layer was found to increase the effectiveness of the dentin-bonding agents.
⢠So bonding agent should be applied following the removal of the smear layer and then cured.REFERENCE
Dentin Bonding Agent – Craig’s Restorative Dental Materials (Thirteenth Edition), 2012.Incorrect
ANSWER
Following removal of smear layer and then curedOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠As a result of the tissue removal procedures performed during cavity preparation, the dentine surface is covered by a smear layer consisting of blood, saliva, bacteria, hydroxyapatite crystals, and denatured collagen.
⢠Studies showed that the smear layer creates a barrier for microorganisms to reach the pulp, and have reported that with the removal of this layer, dentin permeability will increase 5-10 times.
⢠That means the removal of the smear layer was found to increase the effectiveness of the dentin-bonding agents.
⢠So bonding agent should be applied following the removal of the smear layer and then cured.REFERENCE
Dentin Bonding Agent – Craig’s Restorative Dental Materials (Thirteenth Edition), 2012. -
Question 139 of 150
139. Question
What type of motor driven diamond burs are the most efficient and least traumatic instruments for correcting overhanging or over-contoured proximal alloy and resin restorations?
Correct
ANSWER
EVA systemOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Perioscopy system – Endoscopic way of treating periodontal disease.
⢠Ultrasonic and Sonic system – Sonic and ultrasonic instrumentsĀ remove caries by abrading hard and soft dental tissues with oscillating diamond-coated tips.SYNOPSIS
⢠Eva system or enhanced visual assessment is the most efficient and least traumatic instrument.
⢠EVA corrects overhanging or over-contoured proximal alloy and resin restorations
⢠Files made of Al in the shape of a wedge protruding from the shaft, one side of wedge is diamond coated and other side is smooth
⢠Files can be attached to a special dental handpiece attachment that generates reciprocating strokes of variable frequencyREFERENCE
EVA System – Quintessence InternationalIncorrect
ANSWER
EVA systemOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Perioscopy system – Endoscopic way of treating periodontal disease.
⢠Ultrasonic and Sonic system – Sonic and ultrasonic instrumentsĀ remove caries by abrading hard and soft dental tissues with oscillating diamond-coated tips.SYNOPSIS
⢠Eva system or enhanced visual assessment is the most efficient and least traumatic instrument.
⢠EVA corrects overhanging or over-contoured proximal alloy and resin restorations
⢠Files made of Al in the shape of a wedge protruding from the shaft, one side of wedge is diamond coated and other side is smooth
⢠Files can be attached to a special dental handpiece attachment that generates reciprocating strokes of variable frequencyREFERENCE
EVA System – Quintessence International -
Question 140 of 150
140. Question
What should be done after the final inlay cementation before the complete setting of cement?
Correct
ANSWER
Burnishing of peripheries of restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
Step 1 Preparation of the Restoration
Step 2 Preparation of the Abutment Tooth
Step 3 Mix Cement
Step 4 Insertion of restoration
Step 5 Removal of Excess Cement and Final Adjustments
⢠It is easier to remove excess cement before it finally sets. Therefore,burnishing of peripheries of restoration for better adaptation is done before the complete setting of the cement.
Once the cement is hard, the rubber dam is removed and with the help of an articulating paper occlusal interferences are cleared and interproximal contacts are adjusted.
⢠Avoid chewing on hard, crunchy, or sticky foods for 24 hours in order to give time for the cement to fully bond.
⢠Mild sensitivity to hot or cold foods is not unusual and should dissipate after a few weeks.REFERENCE
Tips and Tricks for the Adhesive Cementation of Ceramic – AEGIS article.Incorrect
ANSWER
Burnishing of peripheries of restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
Step 1 Preparation of the Restoration
Step 2 Preparation of the Abutment Tooth
Step 3 Mix Cement
Step 4 Insertion of restoration
Step 5 Removal of Excess Cement and Final Adjustments
⢠It is easier to remove excess cement before it finally sets. Therefore,burnishing of peripheries of restoration for better adaptation is done before the complete setting of the cement.
Once the cement is hard, the rubber dam is removed and with the help of an articulating paper occlusal interferences are cleared and interproximal contacts are adjusted.
⢠Avoid chewing on hard, crunchy, or sticky foods for 24 hours in order to give time for the cement to fully bond.
⢠Mild sensitivity to hot or cold foods is not unusual and should dissipate after a few weeks.REFERENCE
Tips and Tricks for the Adhesive Cementation of Ceramic – AEGIS article. -
Question 141 of 150
141. Question
Parents of a one week old infant are concerned with the presence of mandibular incisors which are highly mobile and the mother is not having a problem in nursing. What will be the choice of treatment?
Correct
ANSWER
Immediate extraction because there is a chance of teeth inhalation into lungsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Natal teeth present at birth and neonatal present within 30 days of birth.
⢠Incidence 1ā2 per 6000 births 90 percent are primary,10 percent supernumerary, 85 percent mandibular.
⢠Natal teeth which are present at birth should be immediately removed to prevent risk of inhalation into lungs.
⢠Natal teeth that are mobile should be removed immediately even if it doesn’t cause nursing difficulties.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 207Incorrect
ANSWER
Immediate extraction because there is a chance of teeth inhalation into lungsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Natal teeth present at birth and neonatal present within 30 days of birth.
⢠Incidence 1ā2 per 6000 births 90 percent are primary,10 percent supernumerary, 85 percent mandibular.
⢠Natal teeth which are present at birth should be immediately removed to prevent risk of inhalation into lungs.
⢠Natal teeth that are mobile should be removed immediately even if it doesn’t cause nursing difficulties.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 207 -
Question 142 of 150
142. Question

A 6-year-old child presents with delayed eruption and malformed teeth in the maxillary anterior region. Clinical examination reveals hypoplastic enamel and discolored teeth in a localized segment crossing the midline. Radiographically, the affected teeth show a characteristic āghost-like appearanceā with thin enamel and dentin, enlarged pulp chambers, and short roots. What is your diagnosis?
Correct
ANSWER
Regional odontodysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypoplasia – developmental defects of enamel or dentin.
⢠Dentinogenesis imperfecta – inherited defect of dentin.
⢠Amelogenesis imperfecta – inherited defects of enamel.SYNOPSIS
⢠This is an uncommon developmental anomaly, typically affecting the primary teeth and corresponding permanent successors within a segment of the dentition.
⢠The anterior teeth are more commonly affected than the posterior teeth and the defect may cross the midline.
⢠The term ghost teeth is sometimes applied to reflect the radiographic appearance seen.
⢠Affected patients may present with abscesses prior to the eruption of the teeth.
⢠The abnormal teeth have poorly developed crowns with enamel and dentine changes, large pulp chambers, and open apices.
⢠The permanent teeth may be less severely affected than the primary predecessors.
⢠The removal of teeth affected by regional odontodysplasia is often necessary.
⢠As this is often the case in the primary dentition, consideration then needs to be given to management of the affected permanent successors.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur .j.NowakIncorrect
ANSWER
Regional odontodysplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Hypoplasia – developmental defects of enamel or dentin.
⢠Dentinogenesis imperfecta – inherited defect of dentin.
⢠Amelogenesis imperfecta – inherited defects of enamel.SYNOPSIS
⢠This is an uncommon developmental anomaly, typically affecting the primary teeth and corresponding permanent successors within a segment of the dentition.
⢠The anterior teeth are more commonly affected than the posterior teeth and the defect may cross the midline.
⢠The term ghost teeth is sometimes applied to reflect the radiographic appearance seen.
⢠Affected patients may present with abscesses prior to the eruption of the teeth.
⢠The abnormal teeth have poorly developed crowns with enamel and dentine changes, large pulp chambers, and open apices.
⢠The permanent teeth may be less severely affected than the primary predecessors.
⢠The removal of teeth affected by regional odontodysplasia is often necessary.
⢠As this is often the case in the primary dentition, consideration then needs to be given to management of the affected permanent successors.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur .j.Nowak -
Question 143 of 150
143. Question
A 4 years old patient visits your hospital after bicycle accident. In clinical examination you found the primary tooth intruded into the permanent follicle. What is the effect it will cause to permanent tooth?
Correct
ANSWER
Turner’s hypoplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dens in dente – A condition resulting from invagination of the inner enamel epithelium producing the appearance of a tooth within a tooth.
⢠Dens evagenatus – Describes an outfolding of the enamel organ that results in an extra cusp, usually in the central groove or ridge of posterior teeth and in the cingulum area of the anterior teeth, sometimes called a talon cusp.
⢠Ankylosis – Fusion of tooth to boneSYNOPSIS
⢠Trauma to the primary teeth may progress to cellulitis, and may result in aborted development or enamel hypoplasia of the succedaneous tooth.
⢠Enamel hypoplasia or hypomineralization can be generalized throughout the dentition or it can be localized.
⢠Enamel development, or amelogenesis, is an exquisitely regulated process at the molecular level but can be disrupted by many environmental factors, such as fever, infection, trauma, changes in oxygen saturation, antibiotics, and many other factors.
⢠Trauma leads to hypomineralization to marked enamel hypoplasia, which manifests as blue-gray to yellow-brown color.
⢠The altered tooth is called Turner’s tooth.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak PageIncorrect
ANSWER
Turner’s hypoplasiaOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Dens in dente – A condition resulting from invagination of the inner enamel epithelium producing the appearance of a tooth within a tooth.
⢠Dens evagenatus – Describes an outfolding of the enamel organ that results in an extra cusp, usually in the central groove or ridge of posterior teeth and in the cingulum area of the anterior teeth, sometimes called a talon cusp.
⢠Ankylosis – Fusion of tooth to boneSYNOPSIS
⢠Trauma to the primary teeth may progress to cellulitis, and may result in aborted development or enamel hypoplasia of the succedaneous tooth.
⢠Enamel hypoplasia or hypomineralization can be generalized throughout the dentition or it can be localized.
⢠Enamel development, or amelogenesis, is an exquisitely regulated process at the molecular level but can be disrupted by many environmental factors, such as fever, infection, trauma, changes in oxygen saturation, antibiotics, and many other factors.
⢠Trauma leads to hypomineralization to marked enamel hypoplasia, which manifests as blue-gray to yellow-brown color.
⢠The altered tooth is called Turner’s tooth.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page -
Question 144 of 150
144. Question
Patient with an avulsed tooth comes to you within 30 minutes and the tooth is stored in milk. You plan to re-implant the tooth. What will be the time of splinting?
Correct
ANSWER
2 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer Synopsis.Synopsis
1. If there is visible contamination, rinse the root surface with a stream of saline or osmolality-balanced media to remove gross debris.
2. Check the avulsed tooth for surface debris. Remove any debris by gently agitating it in the storage medium.
3. Leave the tooth in a storage medium while taking a history, examining the patient clinically and radiographically, and preparing the patient for the replantation.
4. Administer local anesthesia
5. Irrigate the socket with sterile saline.
6. Examine the alveolar socket. If there is a fracture of the socket wall, reposition the fractured fragment into its original position with a suitable instrument.
7. Removal of the coagulum with a saline stream may allow better repositioning of the tooth.
8. Excessive force should not be used to replant the tooth back into its original position.
9. Stabilize the tooth for 2 weeks.
10.. Suture gingival lacerations, if present.
11. Initiate root canal treatment within 2 weeks after replantation
12. Administer systemic antibiotics.
13. Check tetanus status.
14. Provide post-operative instructions.
15. Follow up.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental
Injuries.Incorrect
ANSWER
2 weeksOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer Synopsis.Synopsis
1. If there is visible contamination, rinse the root surface with a stream of saline or osmolality-balanced media to remove gross debris.
2. Check the avulsed tooth for surface debris. Remove any debris by gently agitating it in the storage medium.
3. Leave the tooth in a storage medium while taking a history, examining the patient clinically and radiographically, and preparing the patient for the replantation.
4. Administer local anesthesia
5. Irrigate the socket with sterile saline.
6. Examine the alveolar socket. If there is a fracture of the socket wall, reposition the fractured fragment into its original position with a suitable instrument.
7. Removal of the coagulum with a saline stream may allow better repositioning of the tooth.
8. Excessive force should not be used to replant the tooth back into its original position.
9. Stabilize the tooth for 2 weeks.
10.. Suture gingival lacerations, if present.
11. Initiate root canal treatment within 2 weeks after replantation
12. Administer systemic antibiotics.
13. Check tetanus status.
14. Provide post-operative instructions.
15. Follow up.REFERENCE
International Association of Dental Traumatology Guidelines for the Management of Traumatic Dental
Injuries. -
Question 145 of 150
145. Question
It is recommended to avoid light meal within how many hours of general anaesthesia?
Correct
ANSWER
6 hrsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Agents used for sedation have the potential to impair protective airway reflexes, particularly during deep sedation.
⢠Although a rare occurrence, pulmonary aspiration may occur if the child regurgitates and cannot protect his or her airway.
⢠Therefore, it is prudent that before sedation, the practitioner evaluate preceding food and fluid intake.
⢠It is likely that the risk of aspiration during procedural sedation differs from that during general anesthesia involving tracheal intubation or other airway manipulation.
⢠2 hours prior the procedure – Clear liquids only(No orange juice, hard candy, gum), Medications with a sip of clear liquid.
4 hours prior to procedure – breast milk (if applicable)
6 hours prior to the procedure – Formula or non-human milk, Non clear drinks or juices, gum,hard candy, Light meal.
8 hours prior to the procedure – Regular meal.REFERENCE
American academy of pediatric dentistry (AAPD) Clinical guidelines Pg 175Incorrect
ANSWER
6 hrsOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Agents used for sedation have the potential to impair protective airway reflexes, particularly during deep sedation.
⢠Although a rare occurrence, pulmonary aspiration may occur if the child regurgitates and cannot protect his or her airway.
⢠Therefore, it is prudent that before sedation, the practitioner evaluate preceding food and fluid intake.
⢠It is likely that the risk of aspiration during procedural sedation differs from that during general anesthesia involving tracheal intubation or other airway manipulation.
⢠2 hours prior the procedure – Clear liquids only(No orange juice, hard candy, gum), Medications with a sip of clear liquid.
4 hours prior to procedure – breast milk (if applicable)
6 hours prior to the procedure – Formula or non-human milk, Non clear drinks or juices, gum,hard candy, Light meal.
8 hours prior to the procedure – Regular meal.REFERENCE
American academy of pediatric dentistry (AAPD) Clinical guidelines Pg 175 -
Question 146 of 150
146. Question
A child 6 years old having thumb sucking problem brought by his parents to you and it already caused dental problem to that patient. What will you do?
Correct
ANSWER
Early habit breaking appliance.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Thumb sucking till the age of 4 is considered normal and no treatment is required, beyond age 4 it should be treated using habit-breaking appliances or reminder therapy
⢠Child having thumb sucking even at age of 5 should be treated immediately and not allowed for follow up.
⢠Timing of treatment must be gauged carefully. If parents or the child does not want to engage in treatment, it should not be attempted.
⢠The child should be allowed to stop the habit spontaneously before the permanent teeth erupt.
⢠If treatment is selected as an alternative, it is generally undertaken between the ages of 4 and 6 years.
⢠Delay until the early school-age years allows for spontaneous discontinuation of the habit by many children, often through peer pressure at school.
⢠The simplest yet least widely applicable approach is counseling with the patient.
⢠This involves a discussion between the dentist and the patient of the problems created by nonnutritive sucking.
⢠These adult-like discussions focus on the changes that have occurred because of the sucking and their impact on esthetics.
⢠Usually an appeal is made to the children based on their maturity and responsibility.
⢠Clearly, this approach is best aimed at older children who can conceptually grasp the issue and who may be feeling social pressure to stop the habit.
⢠Some children are captured by this approach and successfully eliminate their habit.
⢠An intraoral appliance approach can also be used in the adjoint method.
⢠The two appliances used most often to discourage the sucking habit are the quad helix and the palatal crib.
⢠The quad helix is a fixed appliance commonly used to expand a constricted
maxillary arch a common finding accompanied by posterior crossbite in patients who practice nonnutritive sucking.
⢠The helices of the appliance serve to remind the child not to place the finger in the mouth if they are placed in the area where the child places the thumb when sucking.
⢠The quad helix is a versatile appliance because it can correct a posterior crossbite and discourage a finger habit at the same time.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 387, 388Incorrect
ANSWER
Early habit breaking appliance.OTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠Thumb sucking till the age of 4 is considered normal and no treatment is required, beyond age 4 it should be treated using habit-breaking appliances or reminder therapy
⢠Child having thumb sucking even at age of 5 should be treated immediately and not allowed for follow up.
⢠Timing of treatment must be gauged carefully. If parents or the child does not want to engage in treatment, it should not be attempted.
⢠The child should be allowed to stop the habit spontaneously before the permanent teeth erupt.
⢠If treatment is selected as an alternative, it is generally undertaken between the ages of 4 and 6 years.
⢠Delay until the early school-age years allows for spontaneous discontinuation of the habit by many children, often through peer pressure at school.
⢠The simplest yet least widely applicable approach is counseling with the patient.
⢠This involves a discussion between the dentist and the patient of the problems created by nonnutritive sucking.
⢠These adult-like discussions focus on the changes that have occurred because of the sucking and their impact on esthetics.
⢠Usually an appeal is made to the children based on their maturity and responsibility.
⢠Clearly, this approach is best aimed at older children who can conceptually grasp the issue and who may be feeling social pressure to stop the habit.
⢠Some children are captured by this approach and successfully eliminate their habit.
⢠An intraoral appliance approach can also be used in the adjoint method.
⢠The two appliances used most often to discourage the sucking habit are the quad helix and the palatal crib.
⢠The quad helix is a fixed appliance commonly used to expand a constricted
maxillary arch a common finding accompanied by posterior crossbite in patients who practice nonnutritive sucking.
⢠The helices of the appliance serve to remind the child not to place the finger in the mouth if they are placed in the area where the child places the thumb when sucking.
⢠The quad helix is a versatile appliance because it can correct a posterior crossbite and discourage a finger habit at the same time.REFERENCE
Pediatric dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 387, 388 -
Question 147 of 150
147. Question
All of the following are contraindications of nitrous oxide sedation except?
Correct
ANSWER
Hyperactive gag reflexOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recognizes nitrous oxide inhalation as a safe and effective technique to reduce anxiety, produce analgesia, and enhance effective communication between a patient and health care provider.
⢠Each patient was randomly assigned to receive an inhalation regimen of nitrous oxide or oxygen mix or room air or oxygen mix (placebo) five minutes before administration of a conventional IAN block.
⢠Patients receiving nitrous oxide were titrated to a dose of 30-50 percent.
⢠When used in the dental setting, nitrous oxide inhalation serves any of the following goals
– To reduce or eliminate fear and anxiety.
– To enhance communication between the patient and dental team.
– To instill a positive attitude towards dental care.
– To raise the pain reaction threshold.
– To reduce untoward movement.
– To help control a hyperactive gag reflex that can interfere with dental care.
– To decrease patient fatigue and increase operator efficiency for longer appointments.
– To provide an amnesic effect thus creating a more positive outlook towards dental care.
Indications for the use of nitrous oxide include
⢠A fearful or anxious patient.
⢠Certain patients with muscular tone disorders prone to unintentional movement.
⢠A patient whose strong or hypersensitive gag reflex interferes with dental care.
⢠A patient for whom profound local anesthesia or analgesia cannot be obtained.
⢠A cooperative child undergoing a lengthy dental procedure who would benefit from alleviating treatment fatigue.
Contraindications for the use of nitrous oxide may include
⢠Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.
⢠Current upper respiratory tract infections (e.g., cold, cough, tonsillitis), sinusitis, or other conditions (e.g., seasonal allergies) that inhibit nasal breathing.
⢠Recent middle ear disturbance or infection (e.g., acute otitis media).
⢠Recent (within 14 days) ear, nose, and or throat operations.
⢠Raised intraocular pressure (e.g., glaucoma), up to three months post retinal surgery, severe emotional disturbances or drug-related dependencies.
⢠First trimester of pregnancy.
⢠Treatment with bleomycin sulfate.
⢠Untreated cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency.REFERENCE
The Effect Of Nitrous Oxide on the efficacy of the inferior alveolar nerve block in patients with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. William D. Stanley,Incorrect
ANSWER
Hyperactive gag reflexOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Refer SynopsisSYNOPSIS
⢠The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recognizes nitrous oxide inhalation as a safe and effective technique to reduce anxiety, produce analgesia, and enhance effective communication between a patient and health care provider.
⢠Each patient was randomly assigned to receive an inhalation regimen of nitrous oxide or oxygen mix or room air or oxygen mix (placebo) five minutes before administration of a conventional IAN block.
⢠Patients receiving nitrous oxide were titrated to a dose of 30-50 percent.
⢠When used in the dental setting, nitrous oxide inhalation serves any of the following goals
– To reduce or eliminate fear and anxiety.
– To enhance communication between the patient and dental team.
– To instill a positive attitude towards dental care.
– To raise the pain reaction threshold.
– To reduce untoward movement.
– To help control a hyperactive gag reflex that can interfere with dental care.
– To decrease patient fatigue and increase operator efficiency for longer appointments.
– To provide an amnesic effect thus creating a more positive outlook towards dental care.
Indications for the use of nitrous oxide include
⢠A fearful or anxious patient.
⢠Certain patients with muscular tone disorders prone to unintentional movement.
⢠A patient whose strong or hypersensitive gag reflex interferes with dental care.
⢠A patient for whom profound local anesthesia or analgesia cannot be obtained.
⢠A cooperative child undergoing a lengthy dental procedure who would benefit from alleviating treatment fatigue.
Contraindications for the use of nitrous oxide may include
⢠Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases.
⢠Current upper respiratory tract infections (e.g., cold, cough, tonsillitis), sinusitis, or other conditions (e.g., seasonal allergies) that inhibit nasal breathing.
⢠Recent middle ear disturbance or infection (e.g., acute otitis media).
⢠Recent (within 14 days) ear, nose, and or throat operations.
⢠Raised intraocular pressure (e.g., glaucoma), up to three months post retinal surgery, severe emotional disturbances or drug-related dependencies.
⢠First trimester of pregnancy.
⢠Treatment with bleomycin sulfate.
⢠Untreated cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency.REFERENCE
The Effect Of Nitrous Oxide on the efficacy of the inferior alveolar nerve block in patients with symptomatic irreversible pulpitis. William D. Stanley, -
Question 148 of 150
148. Question
Patient came for sealing a deep fissure. But the dentist was not comfortable of sealing it because it shows a potential caries on examination and decide to visualize before doing filling. What does this type of restorations with minimum preparations called?
Correct
ANSWER
Preventive resin restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The preventive resin restoration is an alternative procedure for restoring young permanent teeth that requires only minimal tooth preparation for caries removal but also has adjacent susceptible fissures.
⢠They help to prevent caries progression via a minimally invasive way.REFERENCE
McDonald dentistry children adolescent Pg 191Incorrect
ANSWER
Preventive resin restorationOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The preventive resin restoration is an alternative procedure for restoring young permanent teeth that requires only minimal tooth preparation for caries removal but also has adjacent susceptible fissures.
⢠They help to prevent caries progression via a minimally invasive way.REFERENCE
McDonald dentistry children adolescent Pg 191 -
Question 149 of 150
149. Question
Pits and fissure sealants are usually derived from?
Correct
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The sealants are mainly derived from Cyanoacrylates,Polyurethanes and BIS -GMA.
⢠Most sealants today are made ofĀ Bowen’s formula called BIS- GMA, an acronym for a monomer that is the reaction product of bisphenol A and glycidyl methacrylate. This is the same material that comprises the matrix of composite resin-filling materials.REFERENCE
Fissure sealant – Science DirectIncorrect
ANSWER
Both A and BOTHER OPTIONS
⢠Not applicableSYNOPSIS
⢠The sealants are mainly derived from Cyanoacrylates,Polyurethanes and BIS -GMA.
⢠Most sealants today are made ofĀ Bowen’s formula called BIS- GMA, an acronym for a monomer that is the reaction product of bisphenol A and glycidyl methacrylate. This is the same material that comprises the matrix of composite resin-filling materials.REFERENCE
Fissure sealant – Science Direct -
Question 150 of 150
150. Question
Surgical removal of the primary incisor in child patient will be done in which of the following conditions?
Correct
ANSWER
Primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠External and internal root resorption doesn’t require surgical removal of the primary incisor.SYNOPSIS
⢠Impinged primary tooth over permanent tooth bud should be extracted to avoid causing infection to permanent teeth.
⢠If massive external inflammatory root resorption is detected or if the follicle of the underlying permanent tooth bud is involved in the inflammatory process, the tooth must be extracted as soon as possible.
⢠Leaving such teeth untreated increases the risk of damage to the permanent incisor.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 233Incorrect
ANSWER
Primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisorOTHER OPTIONS
⢠External and internal root resorption doesn’t require surgical removal of the primary incisor.SYNOPSIS
⢠Impinged primary tooth over permanent tooth bud should be extracted to avoid causing infection to permanent teeth.
⢠If massive external inflammatory root resorption is detected or if the follicle of the underlying permanent tooth bud is involved in the inflammatory process, the tooth must be extracted as soon as possible.
⢠Leaving such teeth untreated increases the risk of damage to the permanent incisor.REFERENCE
Pediatric Dentistry Arthur.J.Nowak Page 233
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